Anaphylaxis Overview and Treatment Guide
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of consulting services in a subacute management scenario?

  • To handle the administrative aspects of patient care
  • To offer emotional support to the patient
  • To provide a second opinion on a diagnosis
  • To ensure proper treatment options are available for the patient (correct)
  • Which of the following considerations is important when counseling a pregnant patient?

  • Encouraging the patient to avoid any medical consultation
  • Focusing solely on the pregnancy without considering past medical history
  • Discussing risks related to potential recurrent conditions (correct)
  • Reassuring the patient that all treatments are safe
  • What ethical issue might arise involving a patient who is a Jehovah’s Witness and refuses a blood transfusion?

  • Hospital policy on blood products
  • Patient's right to refuse treatment (correct)
  • Requirement for the provider to override the patient's wishes
  • Legal consequences for the healthcare provider
  • In patient-centered communication, what is meant by 'meeting a patient where they are'?

    <p>Acknowledging and addressing the patient’s personal values and circumstances</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical aspect when discussing driving risks with patients post-ICD implantation or stroke?

    <p>Assessing the individual patient's fitness to drive</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When treating anaphylaxis, what is the maximum dose of intramuscular epinephrine that should be administered?

    <p>0.5 mg</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is used as an adjunctive treatment in anaphylaxis?

    <p>Ranitidine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the route of administration for epinephrine in cases of severe anaphylaxis?

    <p>Intramuscular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For patients who are experiencing significant bronchoconstriction during anaphylaxis, which medication should be considered?

    <p>Salbutamol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be performed after the administration of epinephrine for anaphylaxis?

    <p>Monitoring of vital signs for 4-6 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the concentration of the epinephrine solution for intravenous administration?

    <p>1:10000</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for anaphylaxis?

    <p>Exercise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for acute anaphylaxis?

    <p>Intramuscular epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must a capable patient understand regarding medical treatment?

    <p>The nature and anticipated effects of proposed treatment and alternatives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who should be identified as a substitute decision maker if a patient is incapable?

    <p>An appropriate substitute decision maker (SDM)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the case of a conflict between substitute decision makers (SDMs), who is responsible for making the decision?

    <p>The public guardian and trustee</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines a common-law partner in the context of healthcare decision-making in Ontario?

    <p>Cohabiting for at least one year, having a child together, or having a cohabitation agreement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when treating a patient who waives their autonomy regarding consent?

    <p>The patient must be capable and properly informed about their choice</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What scenario might require a healthcare provider to consider informed consent more closely?

    <p>A patient refusing life-saving therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When may capacity for consent fluctuate in a hospital setting?

    <p>Capacity may change at any time due to health conditions or medication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve issues of consent?

    <p>Doctor providing treatment to a fully informed capable patient</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most suitable adjustment to improve oxygenation in a patient with respiratory failure?

    <p>Increase the PEEP to 10 cm H2O</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is increasing the FiO2 to 100% not recommended before optimizing PEEP?

    <p>It can lead to hyperoxia and increase free radicals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario would switching to volume control ventilation be acceptable?

    <p>In lung protective ventilation for ARDS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is on nasal prongs with worsening hypoxemia. What represents a potential next step in management?

    <p>Initiate Non-Invasive Ventilation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What finding in the VBG suggests that the patient might need urgent intervention?

    <p>Low pH.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following management options is considered for acute respiratory failure in a palliative care setting?

    <p>Non-Invasive Ventilation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal when adjusting ventilator settings in acute respiratory failure?

    <p>Optimize gas exchange.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which management option is least likely to benefit a patient with severe hypoxemia from influenza?

    <p>Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature indicates a potential diagnosis of serotonin syndrome rather than neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

    <p>Hyperreflexia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a patient with severe traumatic brain injury, which of the following steps should be taken given the findings of GCS 3 and no brainstem reflexes?

    <p>Order a CTA head and neck as an ancillary test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main reason that prevents the completion of DNC assessment in the patient after a severe TBI with an ocular injury?

    <p>Persistent lateral abduction of the eye makes reflex assessment impossible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered an accepted ancillary test in neuroprognostication?

    <p>Cerebral Angiography (CTA)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be noted about the timing for DNC assessment after a traumatic brain injury?

    <p>Assessment can happen earlier if neuroimaging indicates severe injury</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors is NOT appropriate for assessing brainstem reflexes?

    <p>Fixed eye position due to ocular muscle disruption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why can’t SSEPs be used as an accepted ancillary test in DNC assessment?

    <p>They are not recognized for this specific purpose</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After a patient ingestion of drugs, what is the most critical action within 4 hours of ingestion?

    <p>Administer activated charcoal immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Anaphylaxis Overview

    • Common triggers include food, medication, latex, and insect venom.
    • Diagnosis requires clinical criteria fulfillment after exposure to an allergen.

    Acute Treatment

    • IM Epinephrine:

      • Administer 0.01 mg/kg (max 0.5 mg) intramuscularly.
      • Repeat every 5-15 minutes as needed.
      • Use 1:1000 solution (1 mg/mL) in the anterolateral thigh.
    • IV Epinephrine:

      • Administer 0.05-0.1 mg IV over 5 minutes.
      • Maintain continuous infusion of 2-10 mcg/min adjusted to blood pressure.
      • IV solution at 1:10,000 concentration (0.1 mg/mL).
    • Adjunctive Medications:

      • H1-Blocker: Ranitidine 50 mg IV every 8 hours as required.
      • H2-Blocker: Diphenhydramine 25-50 mg IV every 4-6 hours as needed.
      • Steroids: Methylprednisolone 125 mg IV every 6 hours as necessary.
      • Glucagon for patients on beta-blockers.
      • Salbutamol for bronchoconstriction signs.
      • Vasopressors for persistent hypotension.

    Discharge Plan

    • Prescribe Epinephrine Autoinjector (0.3 mg IM) for emergencies.
    • Implement an Anaphylaxis Action Plan including patient education and wearing a MedicAlert bracelet.
    • Refer to an Allergist/Immunologist for further evaluation.

    Patient-Centered Communication

    • Emphasizes understanding socioeconomic and cultural health influences.
    • Consent and capacity for treatment require the understanding of treatment nature and consequences.
    • Identify a Substitute Decision Maker (SDM) following Ontario’s hierarchy:
      • Power of Attorney for Personal Care
      • Spouse, common-law partner, or partner
      • Parents or adult children over 16
      • Siblings and other family members
      • Public Guardian and Trustee in case of conflict.

    Ethical Considerations in Patient Scenarios

    • Considerations include managing patient decisions regarding life-saving therapy, communication of serious diagnoses, and potential family disagreements on treatment choices.

    Additional Topics

    • Non-Invasive Ventilation indicated for hypoxemia in specific cases; consider situations like respiratory failure or pneumonia.
    • For severe traumatic brain injury, guidelines are to assess neurologic criteria following proper timelines, avoiding unnecessary delays.

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    Description

    This quiz covers essential information about anaphylaxis, including common triggers such as food, medication, and insect venom. It emphasizes the acute treatment protocols including the use of IM epinephrine and the importance of identifying and removing triggers. Test your knowledge on diagnosing and managing anaphylaxis.

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