WBSET CSE MCQs PDF

Turing Test and Rational Agent Approaches 1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Turing Test? a) To measure the speed of a computer program b) To determine if a machine can exhibit human-like intelligence c) To evaluate the efficiency of an algorithm d) To tes...

Turing Test and Rational Agent Approaches 1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Turing Test? a) To measure the speed of a computer program b) To determine if a machine can exhibit human-like intelligence c) To evaluate the efficiency of an algorithm d) To test the reliability of a system Answer: b) To determine if a machine can exhibit human-like intelligence 2. What is a rational agent in artificial intelligence? a) An agent that acts without thinking b) An agent that always performs actions that maximize its performance measure c) An agent that focuses only on minimizing errors d) An agent that mimics human emotions Answer: b) An agent that always performs actions that maximize its performance measure 3. Which component is NOT essential for a rational agent? a) Performance measure b) Knowledge base c) Sensors and actuators d) Emotions Answer: d) Emotions State Space Representation of Problems 4. What does the state space of a problem represent? a) The space occupied by a database b) All possible configurations of a problem c) The hardware memory allocated to a problem d) The operating system’s virtual memory space Answer: b) All possible configurations of a problem 5. In state space representation, what are the 'nodes' typically used to denote? a) Memory allocation units b) Different actions to solve the problem c) States of the problem d) Sensors of the agent Answer: c) States of the problem  6. Which of the following is NOT a component of state space representation? a) Initial state b) Goal state c) Transition model d) Feedback loop Answer: d) Feedback loop Heuristic Search Techniques 7. What is a heuristic in the context of AI search? a) A mathematical formula to guarantee the shortest path b) A rule of thumb to improve search efficiency c) A way to randomly explore the search space d) A method to backtrack and avoid loops Answer: b) A rule of thumb to improve search efficiency 8. Which heuristic search algorithm is commonly used in pathfinding? a) Breadth-First Search b) Depth-First Search c) A* Search d) Minimax Answer: c) A* Search 9. What is the main difference between greedy best-first search and A search?* a) Greedy best-first search uses only the heuristic value (h), while A* uses both cost (g) and heuristic value (h). b) Greedy best-first search is exhaustive, while A* is not. c) A* search ignores heuristic values. d) There is no difference. Answer: a) Greedy best-first search uses only the heuristic value (h), while A* uses both cost (g) and heuristic value (h). Game Playing, Min-Max Search, Alpha-Beta Cutoff 10. In game playing, what does the minimax algorithm aim to do? a) Maximize the score of both players b) Minimize the opponent’s score while maximizing one’s own score  c) Maximize the complexity of the game d) Randomly explore moves Answer: b) Minimize the opponent’s score while maximizing one’s own score 11. What is the primary purpose of alpha-beta pruning in minimax search? a) To find the optimal solution faster by eliminating unnecessary nodes b) To increase the branching factor c) To ensure fairness between players d) To improve the graphical representation of the game Answer: a) To find the optimal solution faster by eliminating unnecessary nodes 12. Which statement is TRUE about alpha-beta pruning? a) It affects the final decision made by the minimax algorithm. b) It reduces the number of nodes evaluated without changing the outcome. c) It cannot be used for games with two players. d) It removes the need for a heuristic function. Answer: b) It reduces the number of nodes evaluated without changing the outcome. 13. In the minimax algorithm, what does the term "cutoff" mean? a) A move that guarantees a win b) A situation where further evaluation is stopped c) A penalty for making a bad move d) A predefined winning condition Answer: b) A situation where further evaluation is stopped 14. What is the complexity of the minimax algorithm for a game tree of depth d and branching factor b? a) O(b + d) b) O(b^d) c) O(d^b) d) O(log(bd)) Answer: b) O(b^d) Logic 1. Which type of logic is primarily used in knowledge representation? a) Predicate Logic b) Temporal Logic c) Propositional Logic  d) Modal Logic Answer: a) Predicate Logic 2. What is the main difference between propositional logic and predicate logic? a) Predicate logic includes quantifiers b) Propositional logic is more expressive c) Predicate logic cannot handle negations d) Propositional logic includes variables Answer: a) Predicate logic includes quantifiers Semantic Networks 3. Semantic networks are used to represent: a) Procedural knowledge b) Declarative knowledge c) Relational databases d) Numerical data Answer: b) Declarative knowledge 4. In a semantic network, what is used to represent a concept? a) Node b) Edge c) Graph d) Attribute Answer: a) Node Frames 5. Frames in AI are primarily used to: a) Represent procedural knowledge b) Structure declarative knowledge c) Perform reasoning with certainty d) Execute sequential operations Answer: b) Structure declarative knowledge 6. In a frame, slots are used to represent: a) Rules b) Variables c) Attributes or properties d) Logical relations Answer: c) Attributes or properties Rules  7. A production rule in an expert system consists of: a) A question and answer b) A condition and an action c) A node and an edge d) A fact and a hypothesis Answer: b) A condition and an action 8. Which of the following systems commonly uses rule-based knowledge representation? a) Neural networks b) Fuzzy systems c) Expert systems d) Genetic algorithms Answer: c) Expert systems Scripts 9. Scripts are used in AI to represent: a) Frequently occurring events b) Rare events c) Real-time calculations d) Data compression Answer: a) Frequently occurring events 10. In a script, a "scene" refers to: a) A specific event b) A type of knowledge c) A condition for an action d) An external program Answer: a) A specific event Conceptual Dependency 11. What is the purpose of Conceptual Dependency (CD) in AI? a) To compress data b) To simplify natural language processing c) To optimize algorithms d) To model hardware designs Answer: b) To simplify natural language processing 12. In Conceptual Dependency, an ACT is used to represent: a) Objects b) Relationships c) Actions or events  d) Uncertainty Answer: c) Actions or events Ontologies 13. Ontologies in AI are primarily used for: a) Representing the structure of knowledge b) Designing algorithms c) Representing uncertainty d) Visualizing data Answer: a) Representing the structure of knowledge 14. Which of the following tools is commonly used to create and manage ontologies? a) Jupyter Notebook b) Protégé c) TensorFlow d) PyTorch Answer: b) Protégé Expert Systems 15. Expert systems typically include which two main components? a) Input device and output device b) Knowledge base and inference engine c) Graph and edges d) Training data and testing data Answer: b) Knowledge base and inference engine 16. An example of an expert system is: a) Siri b) MYCIN c) Google Translate d) AlphaGo Answer: b) MYCIN Handling Uncertainty 17. Which of the following methods is used to handle uncertainty in AI? a) Heuristics b) Fuzzy logic c) Ontologies  d) Semantic networks Answer: b) Fuzzy logic 18. The Bayesian Network is used to represent: a) Certainty in data b) Probabilistic relationships among variables c) Boolean logic rules d) Linguistic rules Answer: b) Probabilistic relationships among variables 19. What is the range of probability values in Bayesian inference? a) 0 to 100 b) -1 to 1 c) 0 to 1 d) Undefined Answer: c) 0 to 1 20. Dempster-Shafer theory is used for: a) Representing binary decisions b) Combining evidence to calculate belief c) Optimizing search algorithms d) Training neural networks Answer: b) Combining evidence to calculate belief Planning Components of a Planning System 1. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a planning system? a) Problem definition b) Plan generation c) Plan execution d) Data mining Answer: d) Data mining 2. What is the role of the knowledge base in a planning system? a) To generate plans b) To store facts and rules about the environment c) To execute the plan d) To solve optimization problems Answer: b) To store facts and rules about the environment Linear and Non-Linear Planning 3. Linear planning is characterized by which of the following? a) A single sequence of actions without branching b) Multiple parallel actions c) Use of probabilistic models d) No constraints on the plan order Answer: a) A single sequence of actions without branching  4. What is the main advantage of non-linear planning over linear planning? a) Simplicity b) Capability to handle complex dependencies between actions c) Faster execution time d) Reduced computational requirements Answer: b) Capability to handle complex dependencies between actions Goal Stack Planning 5. In goal stack planning, which structure is primarily used to organize goals? a) Graph b) Queue c) Stack d) Tree Answer: c) Stack 6. Which of the following best describes goal stack planning? a) Goals are decomposed and pushed onto a stack to be solved sequentially. b) Goals are solved simultaneously using parallel processing. c) Goals are sorted alphabetically and executed. d) Goals are ignored during execution. Answer: a) Goals are decomposed and pushed onto a stack to be solved sequentially. Hierarchical Planning 7. Hierarchical planning involves breaking down a complex problem into: a) Unrelated subproblems b) Simple atomic actions c) Subgoals and smaller planning tasks d) Randomized tasks Answer: c) Subgoals and smaller planning tasks 8. What is the key benefit of hierarchical planning? a) Reduced computational complexity b) Complete avoidance of failures c) Ensures all goals are met simultaneously d) Requires no domain knowledge Answer: a) Reduced computational complexity STRIPS 9. The STRIPS planning system represents actions using which three components? a) Preconditions, add list, and delete list b) Goals, heuristics, and constraints c) Inputs, outputs, and transformations d) Initial state, final state, and transition function Answer: a) Preconditions, add list, and delete list  10. What does STRIPS stand for? a) Structured Transition in Planning Systems b) Stanford Research Institute Problem Solver c) Sequential Task Resolution in Problem Solving d) State Transition and Recursive Planning System Answer: b) Stanford Research Institute Problem Solver Partial Order Planning 11. Partial order planning allows: a) Linear ordering of all actions b) Reordering of actions that are independent c) Random execution of actions d) No ordering of actions Answer: b) Reordering of actions that are independent 12. Which of the following is a key feature of partial order planning? a) No preconditions for actions b) Plans are partially ordered with flexibility in execution c) Complete absence of constraints d) Fixed execution paths Answer: b) Plans are partially ordered with flexibility in execution Natural Language Processing (NLP) Grammar and Language 13. Which of the following best describes a grammar in NLP? a) A set of rules for forming valid sentences in a language b) A collection of words and their meanings c) A probabilistic model for text generation d) A database for storing linguistic data Answer: a) A set of rules for forming valid sentences in a language 14. What is a context-free grammar? a) Grammar that does not depend on the sentence context b) Grammar with no rules c) Grammar for spoken language only d) Grammar for machine learning tasks Answer: a) Grammar that does not depend on the sentence context Parsing Techniques 15. Which parsing technique uses a top-down approach? a) CYK algorithm b) Shift-reduce parsing  c) Recursive descent parsing d) Earley parser Answer: c) Recursive descent parsing 16. What does a parse tree represent? a) The semantic meaning of a sentence b) The syntactic structure of a sentence c) The sequence of words in a sentence d) The frequency of words in a sentence Answer: b) The syntactic structure of a sentence Semantic Analysis and Pragmatics 17. Semantic analysis in NLP focuses on: a) The syntactic structure of sentences b) The meaning of words and sentences c) The frequency of word occurrence d) Text formatting rules Answer: b) The meaning of words and sentences 18. Pragmatics in NLP deals with: a) Sentence syntax b) Contextual meaning in communication c) Word pronunciation d) Lexical analysis Answer: b) Contextual meaning in communication 19. Word sense disambiguation is a part of: a) Semantic analysis b) Syntactic parsing c) Speech recognition d) Grammar checking Answer: a) Semantic analysis 20. Which of the following is an example of pragmatics in NLP? a) Identifying passive voice in a sentence b) Resolving ambiguity in a conversation based on the context c) Breaking a sentence into tokens d) Checking subject-verb agreement Answer: b) Resolving ambiguity in a conversation based on the context Topic: Agents and Objects 1. What is a primary difference between agents and objects in software design? a) Agents operate based on predefined methods, while objects have autonomy. b) Objects respond to messages, while agents are reactive and proactive. c) Agents cannot interact with the environment, while objects can. d) Objects are dynamic, while agents are static. Answer: b  2. Which feature is NOT typically associated with agents? a) Autonomy b) Proactivity c) Inheritance d) Social ability Answer: c Topic: Agents and Expert Systems 3. How do agents differ from expert systems? a) Agents lack decision-making capabilities, while expert systems have them. b) Agents are designed for dynamic environments, while expert systems work in static ones. c) Expert systems are reactive, while agents are only proactive. d) Agents do not require rules, whereas expert systems are rule-based. Answer: b 4. What type of reasoning do expert systems commonly use? a) Forward and backward chaining b) Reinforcement learning c) Evolutionary algorithms d) Statistical inference Answer: a Topic: Generic Structure of Multiagent System 5. Which is NOT a component of a typical multi-agent system? a) Agent communication protocol b) Shared knowledge base c) Centralized control system d) Environment Answer: c 6. In a multi-agent system, the environment refers to: a) The physical location of the agents b) The shared communication protocols c) The external context in which agents operate d) The software framework of the agents Answer: c Topic: Semantic Web  7. What is the goal of the Semantic Web? a) To make web pages visually appealing b) To enable machines to understand web content c) To replace HTML with a new standard d) To create an offline database of websites Answer: b 8. Which language is commonly used for defining ontologies in the Semantic Web? a) JSON b) RDF c) XML d) SQL Answer: b Topic: Agent Communication 9. What is the purpose of agent communication languages (ACLs)? a) To specify the programming language of agents b) To provide a standard for agents to exchange messages c) To define the hardware specifications for agents d) To ensure agents use the same operating system Answer: b 10. Which of the following is a popular agent communication language? a) HTTP b) FIPA ACL c) SMTP d) XML Answer: b Topic: Knowledge Sharing using Ontologies 11. In knowledge sharing, an ontology is: a) A data storage system b) A formal representation of a set of concepts and relationships c) A language used for programming agents d) A messaging protocol for agents Answer: b 12. Which is NOT a benefit of using ontologies in knowledge sharing? a) Consistency in data representation b) Enhanced agent autonomy c) Improved interoperability between agents d) Simplified reasoning and inference Answer: b Topic: Agent Development Tools 13. Which of the following is an agent development tool? a) JADE b) TensorFlow c) Selenium d) MATLAB Answer: a 14. What is the primary purpose of tools like JADE in multi-agent systems? a) To facilitate agent training using neural networks b) To provide a framework for developing and testing agents c) To design user interfaces for agent interaction d) To simulate real-world physical environments Answer: b Topic 1: Notion of Fuzziness and Membership Functions Q1: What does a membership function in fuzzy logic represent? A. The degree to which a value belongs to a fuzzy set B. The binary classification of a value into a set C. The relationship between two fuzzy sets D. The gradient of a crisp set Answer: A Q2: Which of the following is NOT a property of fuzzy sets? A. Membership values are between 0 and 1 B. A fuzzy set is defined by a membership function C. A fuzzy set contains only crisp elements D. Fuzziness describes the uncertainty in defining set boundaries Answer: C Topic 2: Fuzzification and Defuzzification Q3: What is the process of converting crisp input values into fuzzy sets called? A. Defuzzification B. Fuzzification C. Membership transformation D. Linguistic quantification Answer: B Q4: Which of the following is a commonly used defuzzification method? A. Centroid method B. Max-min method C. Triangular method D. Crispification Answer: A Topic 3: Operations on Fuzzy Sets Q5: The union of two fuzzy sets AAA and BBB is computed using: A. Minimum of membership values B. Maximum of membership values C. Difference of membership values D. Product of membership values Answer: B Q6: For two fuzzy sets AAA and BBB, the intersection is defined by: A. Taking the minimum of the membership values B. Taking the maximum of the membership values C. Subtracting the membership values D. Taking the complement of the union Answer: A Topic 4: Fuzzy Functions and Linguistic Variables Q7: A linguistic variable is one whose values are: A. Numerical B. Boolean C. Words or phrases D. Binary Answer: C Q8: Which of the following is NOT an example of a linguistic variable? A. Temperature = {cold, warm, hot} B. Speed = {slow, medium, fast} C. Price = {low, moderate, high} D. Distance = {10, 20, 30} Answer: D Topic 5: Fuzzy Relations and Fuzzy Rules Q9: A fuzzy relation can be represented by: A. A membership matrix B. A scalar value C. A Boolean table D. A linguistic term Answer: A Q10: In fuzzy logic, a rule such as "IF temperature is high THEN fan speed is fast" is an example of: A. A crisp rule B. A fuzzy inference rule C. A defuzzification statement D. A fuzzification statement Answer: B Topic 6: Fuzzy Control System and Fuzzy Rule-Based Systems Q11: What is the role of the inference engine in a fuzzy control system? A. To convert crisp inputs to fuzzy inputs B. To evaluate fuzzy rules and produce fuzzy outputs C. To calculate the crisp output D. To define membership functions Answer: B Q12: Fuzzy rule-based systems are widely used in: A. Traditional programming tasks B. Control systems with uncertainty C. Deterministic systems D. Systems with no linguistic inputs Answer: B Genetic Algorithms (GA) 1. Which of the following is NOT an encoding strategy in Genetic Algorithms? A) Binary Encoding B) Octal Encoding C) Permutation Encoding D) Real-Value Encoding Answer: B) Octal Encoding 2. In Genetic Algorithms, crossover is used to: A) Mutate genes B) Select the best chromosome C) Combine information from parent chromosomes D) Measure fitness Answer: C) Combine information from parent chromosomes 3. What is the purpose of a fitness function in a Genetic Algorithm? A) Select parents for reproduction B) Initialize the population C) Ensure mutation does not occur D) Prevent crossover between chromosomes Answer: A) Select parents for reproduction 4. What is the first step in a Genetic Algorithm cycle? A) Crossover B) Fitness evaluation C) Selection D) Initialization of population Answer: D) Initialization of population 5. Which of the following is a common termination condition in Genetic Algorithms? A) Reaching a predefined number of iterations B) No significant improvement in fitness C) Achieving a predefined fitness value D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) 6. Which of the following is an example of supervised learning? A) K-means clustering B) Image classification using labeled data C) Self-organizing maps D) Reinforcement learning Answer: B) Image classification using labeled data  7. What is the activation function in a perceptron? A) Sigmoid function B) Step function C) ReLU function D) Softmax function Answer: B) Step function 8. A Multi-Layer Perceptron (MLP) is also known as: A) A linear classifier B) A deep neural network C) A single-layer network D) A support vector machine Answer: B) A deep neural network 9. Self-Organizing Maps (SOM) are primarily used for: A) Regression analysis B) Supervised learning tasks C) Unsupervised learning tasks D) Reinforcement learning tasks Answer: C) Unsupervised learning tasks 10. Which of the following statements about the Hopfield Network is TRUE? A) It is a type of supervised learning algorithm. B) It uses binary threshold units. C) It is used for regression tasks. D) It has no feedback connections. Answer: B) It uses binary threshold units. Problem Solving Using GA and ANN 11. Which problem is best suited for Genetic Algorithms? A) Linear regression B) Path optimization in a traveling salesman problem C) Predicting stock prices D) Image classification Answer: B) Path optimization in a traveling salesman problem 12. What is the primary role of a hidden layer in a Multi-Layer Perceptron? A) Provide direct output B) Capture complex patterns and relationships in data C) Perform linear classification D) Reduce the dimensionality of input data Answer: B) Capture complex patterns and relationships in data 13. Which of the following is an example of reinforcement learning? A) Decision tree classification B) Game-playing algorithms like AlphaGo C) Clustering customer data  D) Neural style transfer Answer: B) Game-playing algorithms like AlphaGo 14. Which genetic operator introduces random changes in chromosomes? A) Crossover B) Selection C) Mutation D) Elitism Answer: C) Mutation 15. Backpropagation is a learning algorithm used in: A) Genetic Algorithms B) Hopfield Networks C) Multi-Layer Perceptrons D) Self-Organizing Maps Answer: C) Multi-Layer Perceptrons Data Communication 1. Which component is NOT part of a data communication system? a) Sender b) Transmission medium c) Protocol d) Firewall Answer: d) Firewall 2. In which communication mode can data flow only in one direction? a) Duplex b) Half-Duplex c) Simplex d) Full-Duplex Answer: c) Simplex 3. What type of signal has continuous variations? a) Digital signal b) Analog signal c) Binary signal d) Square signal Answer: b) Analog signal 4. What is the measure of the data-carrying capacity of a channel? a) Bandwidth b) Latency c) Throughput d) Error rate Answer: a) Bandwidth 5. Which of the following involves converting digital data into analog signals? a) Modulation b) Demodulation  c) Multiplexing d) Encoding Answer: a) Modulation 6. What type of transmission sends multiple signals over a single medium? a) Broadband transmission b) Baseband transmission c) Multiplexing d) Unicast Answer: c) Multiplexing 7. Which term describes the delay caused by data transfer in a network? a) Throughput b) Latency c) Bandwidth d) Noise Answer: b) Latency 8. What is the primary difference between noiseless and noisy channels? a) Bandwidth b) Signal-to-noise ratio c) Latency d) Transmission speed Answer: b) Signal-to-noise ratio 9. Which error-handling mechanism retransmits data if an error is detected? a) Parity checking b) Hamming code c) Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) d) Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) Answer: c) Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) Computer Networks 10. Which topology connects all devices to a central hub? a) Mesh b) Bus c) Ring d) Star Answer: d) Star 11. Which type of network is typically used for a city-wide connection? a) Local Area Network (LAN) b) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) c) Wide Area Network (WAN) d) Personal Area Network (PAN) Answer: b) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) 12. Which network type covers the largest geographic area? a) LAN  b) MAN c) WAN d) WLAN Answer: c) WAN 13. Which wireless network standard is commonly used for local networks? a) IEEE 802.11 b) IEEE 802.3 c) IEEE 802.15 d) IEEE 802.1X Answer: a) IEEE 802.11 14. Which device is required to connect different networks? a) Hub b) Switch c) Router d) Repeater Answer: c) Router 15. Which protocol suite forms the backbone of the Internet? a) TCP/IP b) FTP c) SMTP d) HTTP Answer: a) TCP/IP 16. What is the primary characteristic of a mesh topology? a) All devices connect directly to a central hub. b) Devices connect to a shared communication line. c) Each device has a dedicated link to every other device. d) Devices form a closed-loop connection. Answer: c) Each device has a dedicated link to every other device. 17. Which transmission media uses light for data transmission? a) Coaxial cable b) Fiber-optic cable c) Twisted pair cable d) Wireless Answer: b) Fiber-optic cable 18. Which term describes multiple devices sharing a single channel in a time-based sequence? a) Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) b) Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) c) Code Division Multiplexing (CDM) d) Space Division Multiplexing (SDM) Answer: b) Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) 19. What is the primary purpose of error detection mechanisms in networks? a) To reduce transmission delay b) To identify corrupted data c) To optimize throughput  d) To prioritize network traffic Answer: b) To identify corrupted data 20. Which topology is best suited for fault tolerance? a) Bus b) Star c) Ring d) Mesh Answer: d) Mesh Layered Architecture and Protocols 1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions? a) Application Layer b) Session Layer c) Transport Layer d) Presentation Layer Answer: b) Session Layer 2. The primary function of the Network Layer is: a) Error detection and correction b) Routing and forwarding c) Flow control d) Encryption and decryption Answer: b) Routing and forwarding 3. Which protocol is used in the Transport Layer of the TCP/IP model for reliable communication? a) UDP b) IP c) TCP d) ARP Answer: c) TCP 4. How many layers are there in the OSI Reference Model? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Answer: c) 7 5. Which addressing type is used to identify a device in a network uniquely? a) Logical address b) Port address c) Physical address d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above Switching Techniques 6. In a circuit-switched network: a) A dedicated path is established for the duration of the session b) Data is sent in packets c) The connection is not guaranteed d) It uses token passing Answer: a) A dedicated path is established for the duration of the session 7. Which switching technique is best suited for real-time audio and video communication? a) Circuit switching b) Packet switching c) Message switching d) Token switching Answer: a) Circuit switching 8. What does CSMA/CD stand for? a) Carrier Signal Multiplexing Access / Collision Detection b) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection c) Carrier Sense Multiple Allocation / Circuit Detection d) Carrier Signal Multiple Access / Circuit Detection Answer: b) Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection IPv4 and IPv6 9. What is the size of an IPv4 address? a) 16 bits b) 32 bits c) 64 bits d) 128 bits Answer: b) 32 bits 10. Which of the following is NOT a classful addressing type? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class E d) Class F Answer: d) Class F 11. The header size of an IPv6 packet is: a) 20 bytes b) 40 bytes c) 60 bytes d) 80 bytes Answer: b) 40 bytes  12. Which protocol maps an IP address to a physical address in a network? a) RARP b) ARP c) ICMP d) DNS Answer: b) ARP Transport Layer Protocols 13. Which transport layer protocol does NOT provide reliable communication? a) TCP b) UDP c) SCTP d) All provide reliable communication Answer: b) UDP 14. Which field in the TCP header is used for flow control? a) Sequence number b) Acknowledgment number c) Window size d) Urgent pointer Answer: c) Window size 15. What is the purpose of congestion control in TCP? a) To ensure error-free delivery b) To prevent network overload c) To establish a connection d) To map logical to physical addresses Answer: b) To prevent network overload Multiple Access Techniques 16. Which multiple access technique uses frequency division? a) FDMA b) TDMA c) CDMA d) CSMA Answer: a) FDMA 17. In CSMA/CA, what is the purpose of collision avoidance? a) To detect and correct collisions b) To prevent collisions before they occur c) To broadcast tokens d) To divide frequency bands Answer: b) To prevent collisions before they occur Miscellaneous 18. Which network device operates at the Data Link Layer of the OSI model? a) Router b) Switch c) Hub d) Repeater Answer: b) Switch 19. What is the main advantage of Virtual LANs (VLANs)? a) Reduces packet size b) Increases bandwidth c) Enhances network segmentation and security d) Provides wireless connectivity Answer: c) Enhances network segmentation and security 20. The primary function of framing in data communication is to: a) Manage network congestion b) Divide the data stream into manageable units c) Assign IP addresses d) Detect and correct errors Answer: b) Divide the data stream into manageable units World Wide Web (WWW) 1. What does a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) specify? A. The name of the web browser B. The location of a resource on the internet C. The version of the HTTP protocol used D. The size of a web page Answer: B 2. Which of the following is responsible for translating domain names to IP addresses? A. HTTP B. FTP C. DNS D. SMTP Answer: C 3. What is the process of converting a domain name like example.com into an IP address called? A. IP Mapping B. Name Resolution  C. Address Conversion D. Network Translation Answer: B 4. Which part of the URL https://www.example.com/path/page.html represents the protocol? A. https B. www.example.com C. /path/page.html D..com Answer: A 5. What is the main purpose of the Domain Name System (DNS)? A. Encrypt data during transmission B. Host websites C. Map names to addresses and addresses to names D. Store user credentials Answer: C Electronic Mail Architecture 6. Which protocol is used for sending emails? A. POP3 B. SMTP C. IMAP D. FTP Answer: B 7. Which protocol allows a user to download emails from a mail server for offline access? A. SMTP B. POP3 C. IMAP D. TELNET Answer: B 8. What is the primary difference between POP3 and IMAP? A. POP3 is used for sending emails, whereas IMAP is used for receiving emails. B. IMAP supports remote mailbox synchronization, while POP3 downloads emails  locally. C. POP3 encrypts emails, whereas IMAP does not. D. IMAP is faster than POP3. Answer: B 9. Which component in email architecture manages the actual delivery of emails? A. Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) B. Mail User Agent (MUA) C. Mail Delivery Agent (MDA) D. Domain Name System (DNS) Answer: A 10. Which protocol is used to access emails stored on a mail server without downloading them? A. SMTP B. POP3 C. IMAP D. FTP Answer: C TELNET and FTP 11. Which of the following is true about TELNET? A. It is used for file transfer. B. It is used for remote login to another computer. C. It encrypts all communications. D. It is a protocol for secure communication. Answer: B 12. Which of the following protocols is used to transfer files between computers? A. TELNET B. FTP C. IMAP D. DNS Answer: B 13. What does FTP stand for? A. File Transfer Protocol B. Fast Transfer Protocol  C. File Translation Process D. File Transmission Path Answer: A Network Security 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of malware? A. Worm B. Trojan Horse C. Firewall D. Spyware Answer: C 15. What is cryptography primarily used for? A. File compression B. Securing data communication C. Network addressing D. Virus detection Answer: B 16. Which of the following uses a pair of keys (public and private) for encryption and decryption? A. Secret-Key Algorithms B. Public-Key Algorithms C. Digital Signature D. Hashing Answer: B 17. What is the purpose of a digital signature? A. Encrypting data B. Ensuring data integrity and authenticity C. Compressing files D. Scanning for viruses Answer: B 18. Which of the following represents a private network that uses a public network to connect remote sites? A. VPN B. Firewall  C. SMTP D. TELNET Answer: A 19. Which of the following acts as a barrier to unauthorized access to a network? A. Digital Signature B. Firewall C. DNS D. FTP Answer: B 20. What is steganography? A. A type of malware B. The practice of hiding data within other data C. A cryptographic algorithm D. A firewall configuration method Answer: B Topic: Arrays and Their Applications 1. Which of the following is the correct time complexity to access an element in an array by index? a) O(1) b) O(log n) c) O(n) d) O(n²) Answer: a) O(1) 2. What is the disadvantage of an array? a) Sequential access b) Fixed size c) Dynamic size d) Easy to traverse Answer: b) Fixed size Topic: Sparse Matrix 3. What is a sparse matrix? a) A matrix in which most elements are non-zero b) A matrix in which most elements are zero c) A matrix with equal rows and columns  d) A square matrix Answer: b) A matrix in which most elements are zero 4. Which of the following is used to efficiently store a sparse matrix? a) Two-dimensional array b) Linked list c) Compressed storage representation d) Stack Answer: c) Compressed storage representation Topic: Stacks and Queues 5. Which data structure uses LIFO (Last In First Out) order? a) Queue b) Stack c) Priority Queue d) Linked List Answer: b) Stack 6. What is the time complexity of an enqueue operation in a queue implemented using an array? a) O(1) b) O(log n) c) O(n) d) O(n²) Answer: a) O(1) Topic: Priority Queues 7. In a priority queue, the highest priority element is typically: a) The last element inserted b) The element with the smallest value c) The element with the largest value d) The first element inserted Answer: b) The element with the smallest value 8. Which of the following data structures is commonly used to implement a priority queue? a) Array b) Linked List c) Heap d) Stack Answer: c) Heap Topic: Trees and Binary Trees 9. What is the maximum number of children a binary tree node can have? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Unlimited Answer: b) 2 10. Which tree is height-balanced and self-balancing? a) AVL Tree b) Binary Search Tree c) Threaded Binary Tree d) B Tree Answer: a) AVL Tree Topic: Graphs 11. What is the time complexity of BFS (Breadth-First Search) in a graph represented using an adjacency list? a) O(V + E) b) O(V²) c) O(E log V) d) O(V log E) Answer: a) O(V + E) 12. Which of the following is true for a directed acyclic graph (DAG)? a) It contains at least one cycle b) All edges point in one direction c) It has no cycles d) It contains both directed and undirected edges Answer: c) It has no cycles Topic: Sorting and Searching Algorithms 13. Which sorting algorithm is considered the fastest on average for large datasets? a) Bubble Sort b) Quick Sort c) Selection Sort d) Merge Sort Answer: b) Quick Sort 14. What is the worst-case time complexity of Binary Search? a) O(1) b) O(n)  c) O(log n) d) O(n log n) Answer: c) O(log n) Topic: Hashing 15. What is the main purpose of a hash function in hashing? a) To sort data b) To generate a unique index for storing data c) To encrypt data d) To create linked lists Answer: b) To generate a unique index for storing data 16. Which of the following is a common collision resolution strategy in hashing? a) Binary Search b) Linear Probing c) Quick Sort d) AVL Tree Answer: b) Linear Probing Topic: Performance Analysis of Algorithms 17. What does Big-O notation describe? a) The best-case complexity of an algorithm b) The worst-case complexity of an algorithm c) The average-case complexity of an algorithm d) The size of the algorithm Answer: b) The worst-case complexity of an algorithm 18. Which of the following is an example of divide-and-conquer strategy? a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort c) Linear Search d) Insertion Sort Answer: b) Merge Sort Design Techniques Divide and Conquer 1. Which of the following is an example of a Divide and Conquer algorithm? A) Bubble Sort B) Merge Sort C) Linear Search  D) Dynamic Programming Answer: B) Merge Sort 2. In Divide and Conquer, the solution to a problem is obtained by: A) Solving smaller instances of the problem independently. B) Iteratively improving a candidate solution. C) Combining solutions to subproblems. D) Exploring all possible solutions. Answer: C) Combining solutions to subproblems. Dynamic Programming 3. Which property must a problem have for Dynamic Programming to be applicable? A) Greediness B) Overlapping subproblems C) Monotonicity D) Backtracking Answer: B) Overlapping subproblems 4. The time complexity of solving the Fibonacci sequence using Dynamic Programming is: A) O(2n)O(2^n)O(2n) B) O(n2)O(n^2)O(n2) C) O(n)O(n)O(n) D) O(log⁡n)O(\log n)O(logn) Answer: C) O(n)O(n)O(n) Greedy Algorithms 5. In Greedy Algorithms, decisions are made based on: A) The overall optimal solution. B) Local optimal choices. C) Dynamic programming tables. D) Backtracking trees. Answer: B) Local optimal choices. 6. Which of the following problems can be solved using a Greedy Algorithm? A) Longest Common Subsequence B) Knapsack Problem (0/1) C) Minimum Spanning Tree D) Matrix Chain Multiplication Answer: C) Minimum Spanning Tree Backtracking 7. Backtracking is primarily used for solving: A) Optimization problems. B) Problems with a large search space. C) Problems with overlapping subproblems. D) Problems with non-polynomial solutions. Answer: B) Problems with a large search space. 8. Which of the following is an example of a Backtracking algorithm? A) Dijkstra’s Algorithm B) Prim’s Algorithm C) N-Queens Problem D) Floyd-Warshall Algorithm Answer: C) N-Queens Problem Branch and Bound 9. Which of the following is true for Branch and Bound? A) It guarantees the optimal solution. B) It is the same as Backtracking. C) It uses heuristics to prune the search space. D) It does not use bounding functions. Answer: A) It guarantees the optimal solution. 10. Branch and Bound is mainly used for solving: A) NP-complete problems. B) Greedy solvable problems. C) Problems with independent subproblems. D) Deterministic problems. Answer: A) NP-complete problems. Lower Bound Theory Comparison Trees 11. The minimum number of comparisons required to sort nnn elements using a comparison tree is: A) O(n)O(n)O(n) B) O(n2)O(n^2)O(n2) C) O(nlog⁡n)O(n \log n)O(nlogn) D) O(log⁡n)O(\log n)O(logn) Answer: C) O(nlog⁡n)O(n \log n)O(nlogn)  12. Comparison trees are used to determine: A) Upper bounds for problems. B) Lower bounds for comparison-based problems. C) Optimality of Divide and Conquer algorithms. D) The complexity of graph traversal. Answer: B) Lower bounds for comparison-based problems. Lower Bounds through Reductions 13. Reduction is used in Lower Bound Theory to: A) Prove a problem is solvable. B) Transform one problem into another. C) Determine the time complexity of an algorithm. D) Optimize an existing solution. Answer: B) Transform one problem into another. 14. To show that a problem AAA has a lower bound, it is reduced to a problem BBB that: A) Has an unknown complexity. B) Has a known lower bound. C) Is simpler than AAA. D) Has a faster algorithm. Answer: B) Has a known lower bound. Graph Algorithms Breadth-First Search (BFS) 15. Breadth-First Search is typically used for: A) Detecting cycles in a graph. B) Finding the shortest path in an unweighted graph. C) Computing strongly connected components. D) Finding minimum spanning trees. Answer: B) Finding the shortest path in an unweighted graph. 16. The time complexity of BFS for a graph with VVV vertices and EEE edges is: A) O(V+E)O(V + E)O(V+E) B) O(V2)O(V^2)O(V2) C) O(Elog⁡V)O(E \log V)O(ElogV) D) O(V3)O(V^3)O(V3) Answer: A) O(V+E)O(V + E)O(V+E) Depth-First Search (DFS) 17. DFS can be used to: A) Find the shortest path in a weighted graph. B) Detect cycles in a graph. C) Find all-pairs shortest paths. D) Generate a Minimum Spanning Tree. Answer: B) Detect cycles in a graph. 18. Which data structure is used in the implementation of DFS? A) Queue B) Stack C) Priority Queue D) Hash Table Answer: B) Stack Shortest Paths 19. Dijkstra's algorithm works correctly only if: A) The graph is directed. B) All edges have non-negative weights. C) The graph contains no cycles. D) The graph is connected. Answer: B) All edges have non-negative weights. 20. The Bellman-Ford algorithm is used to: A) Compute minimum spanning trees. B) Find shortest paths in graphs with negative edge weights. C) Detect strongly connected components. D) Solve the maximum flow problem. Answer: B) Find shortest paths in graphs with negative edge weights. Maximum Flow 21. The Ford-Fulkerson algorithm is used to solve: A) Shortest path problems. B) Minimum spanning tree problems. C) Maximum flow problems. D) Cycle detection problems. Answer: C) Maximum flow problems. 22. In a flow network, the flow value is maximized when: A) All paths from source to sink are fully utilized. B) The total inflow equals the total outflow at the sink. C) The graph is acyclic.  D) There is no bottleneck edge. Answer: B) The total inflow equals the total outflow at the sink. Minimum Spanning Trees 23. Which algorithm does NOT find a Minimum Spanning Tree? A) Kruskal’s Algorithm B) Prim’s Algorithm C) Borůvka’s Algorithm D) Floyd-Warshall Algorithm Answer: D) Floyd-Warshall Algorithm 24. The time complexity of Kruskal’s algorithm is: A) O(V+E) B) O(ElogV) C) O(V^2) D O(VlogV) Answer: B) O(ElogV) Complexity Theory: P and NP Class Problems; NP-completeness and Reducibility 1. Which of the following problems is NOT in the class P? a) Finding the shortest path in a graph b) Sorting an array c) Determining if a graph is 3-colorable d) Matrix multiplication Answer: c) Determining if a graph is 3-colorable 2. If a problem is in NP, it means: a) It can be solved in polynomial time. b) Its solution can be verified in polynomial time. c) It is undecidable. d) It is not computable. Answer: b) Its solution can be verified in polynomial time. 3. What does it mean for a problem to be NP-complete? a) It is in NP and all problems in NP can be reduced to it. b) It is in P and NP simultaneously. c) It cannot be solved by any algorithm. d) It is not verifiable in polynomial time. Answer: a) It is in NP and all problems in NP can be reduced to it.  4. The Cook-Levin theorem states that: a) P = NP. b) The Boolean satisfiability problem is NP-complete. c) All NP problems are decidable. d) Reducibility applies only to problems in P. Answer: b) The Boolean satisfiability problem is NP-complete. Number Theoretic Algorithms 5. Which of the following is used to compute the greatest common divisor (GCD)? a) Euclid's Algorithm b) Fermat's Theorem c) Chinese Remainder Theorem d) Miller-Rabin Test Answer: a) Euclid's Algorithm 6. Which of these algorithms is used for primality testing? a) Karatsuba Algorithm b) Sieve of Eratosthenes c) Extended Euclid Algorithm d) Rabin-Karp Algorithm Answer: b) Sieve of Eratosthenes 7. The Chinese Remainder Theorem is primarily used for: a) Solving linear Diophantine equations. b) Finding modular inverses. c) Computing solutions to simultaneous congruences. d) Determining primality. Answer: c) Computing solutions to simultaneous congruences. Polynomial Arithmetic and Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) 8. Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) is primarily used for: a) Solving linear equations. b) Multiplying large polynomials efficiently. c) Computing modular arithmetic. d) Finding shortest paths in graphs.  Answer: b) Multiplying large polynomials efficiently. 9. Which is the time complexity of FFT for a polynomial of degree nnn? a) O(n)O(n)O(n) b) O(n2)O(n^2)O(n2) c) O(nlog⁡n)O(n \log n)O(nlogn) d) O(log⁡n)O(\log n)O(logn) Answer: c) O(nlog⁡n)O(n \log n)O(nlogn) 10. Which property is utilized in FFT to achieve its efficiency? a) Recursion b) Divide and Conquer c) Dynamic Programming d) Greedy Method Answer: b) Divide and Conquer String Matching Algorithms 11. Which algorithm is based on the use of hashing for string matching? a) Rabin-Karp Algorithm b) Knuth-Morris-Pratt Algorithm c) Boyer-Moore Algorithm d) Naive String Matching Answer: a) Rabin-Karp Algorithm 12. The Knuth-Morris-Pratt algorithm achieves efficiency through: a) Using dynamic programming. b) Precomputing a prefix table. c) Hashing the pattern. d) Parallel processing. Answer: b) Precomputing a prefix table. 13. The worst-case time complexity of the Rabin-Karp algorithm is: a) O(m+n)O(m+n)O(m+n) b) O(mn)O(mn)O(mn) c) O(log⁡n)O(\log n)O(logn) d) O(mlog⁡n)O(m \log n)O(mlogn) Answer: b) O(mn)O(mn)O(mn) Advanced Algorithms 14. Which of the following is an example of a parallel algorithm? a) QuickSort b) MergeSort using multiple threads c) Binary Search d) Dijkstra’s Algorithm Answer: b) MergeSort using multiple threads 15. Approximation algorithms are primarily used for: a) Solving P problems efficiently. b) Providing near-optimal solutions for NP-hard problems. c) Reducing NP problems to P problems. d) Computing exact solutions for NP-complete problems. Answer: b) Providing near-optimal solutions for NP-hard problems. 16. In a randomized algorithm, randomness is used to: a) Always find the optimal solution. b) Ensure deterministic behavior. c) Simplify the algorithm's logic. d) Improve average-case performance. Answer: d) Improve average-case performance. 17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a randomized algorithm? a) QuickSort with randomized pivot selection b) Monte Carlo methods c) Rabin-Karp for string matching d) Kruskal’s Algorithm Answer: d) Kruskal’s Algorithm Software Process Models 1. Which of the following is a framework activity in the generic process model? A) Coding B) Testing C) Requirement Gathering D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above 2. What does a "task set" in a software process model represent? A) A collection of framework activities B) A collection of engineering tasks, milestones, work products, and quality assurance measures C) A list of tools for software development D) The final product of the project Answer: B) A collection of engineering tasks, milestones, work products, and quality assurance measures 3. Which of the following is NOT a prescriptive process model? A) Waterfall model B) Incremental model C) RAD model D) Scrum Answer: D) Scrum 4. Component-Based Development (CBD) focuses on: A) Reusing existing components B) Building custom components from scratch C) Simplifying software requirements D) Avoiding modular design Answer: A) Reusing existing components 5. Aspect-Oriented Software Development (AOSD) addresses: A) Time complexity issues B) Cross-cutting concerns C) Scalability challenges D) User interface design Answer: B) Cross-cutting concerns 6. Which agile model emphasizes iterative cycles and customer feedback? A) Extreme Programming (XP) B) Waterfall C) Incremental Model D) V-Model Answer: A) Extreme Programming (XP) 7. In Scrum, who is responsible for ensuring the team follows agile principles? A) Product Owner B) Scrum Master C) Development Team D) Stakeholders Answer: B) Scrum Master Software Requirements 8. Which of the following is an example of a functional requirement? A) System must support up to 1000 concurrent users B) The interface should be user-friendly C) The system must be available 99.9% of the time D) The system must generate a monthly sales report Answer: D) The system must generate a monthly sales report 9. Non-functional requirements include: A) Business rules B) User authentication C) Performance, reliability, and security D) Use case diagrams Answer: C) Performance, reliability, and security 10. What is the primary purpose of an SRS document? A) To describe the coding standards B) To provide a detailed description of software requirements C) To explain testing procedures D) To outline the project schedule Answer: B) To provide a detailed description of software requirements 11. What is the first step in the requirements elicitation process? A) Prototyping B) Gathering requirements from stakeholders C) Reviewing SRS D) Writing test cases Answer: B) Gathering requirements from stakeholders 12. In requirements modeling, use cases are used to: A) Identify system limitations B) Describe interactions between users and the system C) Define non-functional requirements D) Validate the system's performance Answer: B) Describe interactions between users and the system 13. Requirements review involves: A) Developing test cases B) Verifying and validating the gathered requirements C) Coding D) Integration testing Answer: B) Verifying and validating the gathered requirements 14. Dynamic System Development Model (DSDM) focuses on: A) Rapid development and iterative improvement B) Waterfall-style implementation C) Formal verification D) Component reusability Answer: A) Rapid development and iterative improvement 15. Feature-Driven Development (FDD) is best described as: A) A methodology that focuses on building and designing features incrementally B) A process of focusing on testing features only C) A method for non-agile projects D) A technique for database normalization Answer: A) A methodology that focuses on building and designing features incrementally Additional Questions 16. Crystal methodology emphasizes: A) Rigid processes B) Team communication and simplicity C) Advanced software tools D) Eliminating documentation Answer: B) Team communication and simplicity 17. Web Engineering specifically focuses on: A) Desktop application development B) Developing high-quality web-based systems and applications C) Database normalization techniques D) Embedded systems development Answer: B) Developing high-quality web-based systems and applications 18. The main purpose of requirement analysis is to: A) Eliminate defects in code B) Understand what the stakeholders need and document it C) Test the final software D) Provide a user-friendly interface Answer: B) Understand what the stakeholders need and document it Software Design 1. Which of the following is a key principle of software design aimed at reducing system complexity? o A) Abstraction o B) Cohesion o C) Coupling o D) Functional Independence Answer: A) Abstraction 2. Which software design pattern allows a system to be organized in a way that it can be easily modified or extended without affecting other parts of the system?  o A) Singleton o B) Factory o C) Strategy o D) Adapter Answer: C) Strategy 3. What is the main goal of Separation of Concerns in software design? o A) To reduce system size o B) To ensure that each module or component handles a separate part of the functionality o C) To integrate different modules more effectively o D) To maximize coupling between components Answer: B) To ensure that each module or component handles a separate part of the functionality 4. Which design principle focuses on hiding the internal details of a module to reduce complexity and prevent unauthorized access? o A) Functional Independence o B) Cohesion o C) Information Hiding o D) Modularity Answer: C) Information Hiding 5. In the context of object-oriented design, which of the following is a key feature of an object? o A) Data Encapsulation o B) Data Abstraction o C) Inheritance o D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above Software Quality 6. McCall’s Quality Factors include all of the following, EXCEPT: o A) Reliability o B) Usability o C) Functionality o D) Performance Answer: C) Functionality 7. Which quality assurance activity ensures that the software meets the required quality standards and specifications? o A) Risk Mitigation o B) Quality Control o C) Risk Management o D) Monitoring and Management Answer: B) Quality Control 8. Which of the following is NOT part of the ISO 9126 quality factors? o A) Portability o B) Usability  o C) Maintainability o D) Software Cost Answer: D) Software Cost 9. Which of the following is an example of a risk management activity in software development? o A) Code Review o B) Risk Mitigation o C) Testing o D) Quality Assurance Answer: B) Risk Mitigation 10. Which of the following is a software reliability factor? o A) Performance o B) Availability o C) Usability o D) Documentation Answer: B) Availability Estimation and Scheduling of Software Projects 11. Which method is commonly used for software size estimation based on function- oriented metrics? o A) Lines of Code (LOC) o B) Function Points (FP) o C) Cyclomatic Complexity o D) Class Responsibility Collaborator (CRC) Answer: B) Function Points (FP) 12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using LOC (Lines of Code) as an estimation method? o A) It is difficult to apply to non-text-based systems. o B) It requires a deep understanding of the requirements. o C) It is highly dependent on the developer’s skill. o D) It is not useful for agile projects. Answer: A) It is difficult to apply to non-text-based systems. 13. The Constructive Cost Model (COCOMO) is used for: o A) Estimating the software reliability o B) Estimating project cost and effort o C) Estimating the size of software o D) Risk management Answer: B) Estimating project cost and effort 14. Which of the following is the primary goal of project scheduling in software development? o A) To allocate resources effectively o B) To reduce the overall project cost o C) To ensure that the software meets quality standards o D) To increase the number of features in the software Answer: A) To allocate resources effectively  15. Which of the following is commonly used to display the timeline of tasks and milestones in software project management? o A) Flowchart o B) Time-line Chart o C) Gantt Chart o D) Data Flow Diagram Answer: C) Gantt Chart Software Testing 1. Which of the following is the process of checking whether the software meets the specified requirements? o A) Validation o B) Verification o C) Fault Tolerance o D) Regression Testing Answer: B) Verification 2. What term is used to refer to an unexpected behavior or issue in the software? o A) Fault o B) Bug o C) Error o D) Failure Answer: B) Bug 3. Which testing focuses on individual software components or modules to ensure their correctness? o A) Regression Testing o B) Unit Testing o C) Integration Testing o D) Performance Testing Answer: B) Unit Testing 4. In which testing type do we test how different components of the system work together? o A) Integration Testing o B) Unit Testing o C) Black-box Testing o D) Stress Testing Answer: A) Integration Testing 5. Which of the following testing methods is based on the internal structure or logic of the software? o A) White-box Testing o B) Black-box Testing o C) Regression Testing o D) Performance Testing Answer: A) White-box Testing 6. Which testing method is based solely on the external functionality of the software, with no knowledge of the internal code?  o A) Black-box Testing o B) White-box Testing o C) Stress Testing o D) Unit Testing Answer: A) Black-box Testing 7. Which of the following techniques is used in white-box testing to ensure all paths are tested? o A) Regression Testing o B) Basis Path Testing o C) Performance Testing o D) Stress Testing Answer: B) Basis Path Testing 8. What type of testing is used to verify the system’s behavior under normal and peak load conditions? o A) Stress Testing o B) Performance Testing o C) Alpha Testing o D) Beta Testing Answer: B) Performance Testing 9. Which of the following refers to the testing done by end users before the product is released to the public? o A) Alpha Testing o B) Beta Testing o C) Regression Testing o D) Integration Testing Answer: A) Alpha Testing 10. Which type of testing is conducted to verify whether recent changes in the software have affected existing functionality? o A) Performance Testing o B) Regression Testing o C) Unit Testing o D) Alpha Testing Answer: B) Regression Testing Software Configuration Management 11. Which process involves controlling the changes made to the software system during its development? o A) Version Control o B) Change Control o C) Configuration Control o D) Reverse Engineering Answer: B) Change Control  12. Which term refers to managing different versions of a software product throughout its development? o A) Version Control o B) Configuration Control o C) Software Reuse o D) Reverse Engineering Answer: A) Version Control 13. Which of the following refers to reusing existing software components or modules for new applications? o A) Software Re-engineering o B) Version Control o C) Software Reuse o D) Reverse Engineering Answer: C) Software Reuse 14. Which process involves updating or modifying an existing software product to improve its functionality or performance? o A) Reverse Engineering o B) Software Re-engineering o C) Version Control o D) Change Control Answer: B) Software Re-engineering 15. Which process involves understanding and extracting the design and implementation of a software system from its existing code? o A) Reverse Engineering o B) Software Reuse o C) Version Control o D) Change Control Answer: A) Reverse Engineering System Software: Machine, Assembly, and High-Level Languages 1. Which of the following is true about machine language? o a) It is a high-level programming language. o b) It is human-readable. o c) It consists of binary instructions executed by the CPU. o d) It requires an interpreter to execute. Answer: c) It consists of binary instructions executed by the CPU. 2. Which language requires the use of an assembler to translate the source code into machine code? o a) High-level language o b) Assembly language o c) Machine language o d) Scripting language  Answer: b) Assembly language 3. A compiler translates high-level language code into: o a) Assembly code o b) Machine code o c) Intermediate code o d) All of the above Answer: b) Machine code 4. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an interpreter? o a) Translates code line-by-line o b) Does not generate a separate output file o c) Translates the entire code at once o d) Slower execution compared to compiled code Answer: c) Translates the entire code at once 5. What is the primary function of a linker? o a) To translate source code to machine code o b) To resolve references to variables and functions in code o c) To debug the source code o d) To optimize the performance of the code Answer: b) To resolve references to variables and functions in code 6. Which of the following is used to allocate memory at program execution time? o a) Compiler o b) Loader o c) Assembler o d) Debugger Answer: b) Loader 7. What does relocation refer to in the context of loaders? o a) Moving code to a different memory location during execution o b) Compiling code into machine language o c) Reallocating memory space for variables o d) Linking external libraries Answer: a) Moving code to a different memory location during execution Basics of Operating Systems: Structure, Operations, and Services  8. Which of the following is NOT typically a service provided by an operating system? o a) Memory management o b) User interface management o c) Network routing o d) Hardware abstraction Answer: c) Network routing 9. Which of the following is a valid system call in most operating systems? o a) Open o b) Close o c) Read o d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 10. Which part of the operating system is responsible for managing processes and system resources? o a) Kernel o b) User Interface o c) File System o d) Application Programs Answer: a) Kernel Process Management: Scheduling, Synchronization 11. Which of the following is the primary function of a process scheduler? o a) To allocate memory to processes o b) To manage process execution time o c) To handle system calls o d) To maintain process state transitions Answer: b) To manage process execution time 12. What is the main purpose of interprocess communication (IPC)? o a) To share resources between processes o b) To synchronize process execution o c) To allow processes to communicate with each other o d) To schedule process execution Answer: c) To allow processes to communicate with each other 13. In a client-server model, the server:  o a) Initiates the communication o b) Waits for requests from clients o c) Runs on a client machine o d) Does not need to respond to clients Answer: b) Waits for requests from clients 14. The critical section problem arises when: o a) Two or more processes access shared data simultaneously o b) A single process executes independently o c) Processes execute in isolation without synchronization o d) A process waits for a long time to execute Answer: a) Two or more processes access shared data simultaneously 15. Peterson's solution is used to solve which of the following problems? o a) Memory allocation problem o b) Process synchronization problem o c) Network congestion problem o d) File handling problem Answer: b) Process synchronization problem 16. Which of the following synchronization mechanisms is used to control access to shared resources by multiple processes? o a) Semaphore o b) Monitor o c) Mutex o d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 17. Which of the following statements is true about semaphores in process synchronization? o a) A semaphore can only be incremented or decremented atomically. o b) Semaphores are always binary in nature. o c) Semaphores can only be used in multi-threaded environments. o d) Semaphores do not require a process to wait for resource allocation. Answer: a) A semaphore can only be incremented or decremented atomically. 18. Which algorithm is a classic solution to the critical section problem? o a) Round Robin o b) First Come First Serve (FCFS) o c) Peterson's Algorithm o d) FIFO  Answer: c) Peterson's Algorithm Macros and Debuggers 19. Which of the following best describes a macro in programming? o a) A special function that can be invoked at runtime o b) A set of instructions that are executed by the CPU o c) A sequence of instructions that are expanded at compile-time o d) A debugger command used to inspect memory Answer: c) A sequence of instructions that are expanded at compile-time 20. Which tool is primarily used to identify bugs in a program? o a) Compiler o b) Debugger o c) Assembler o d) Linker Answer: b) Debugger Threads: Multicore Programming, Multithreading Models, Thread Libraries, Implicit Threading, Threading Issues 1. Which of the following is a key benefit of multicore programming? o A) Improved memory access speed o B) Ability to run multiple processes concurrently o C) More efficient CPU scheduling o D) Better power consumption efficiency o Answer: B) Ability to run multiple processes concurrently 2. Which threading model is used when multiple threads execute in parallel, sharing the same address space? o A) Many-to-One Model o B) One-to-One Model o C) Many-to-Many Model o D) Single-Thread Model o Answer: C) Many-to-Many Model 3. Which of the following libraries is commonly used for thread management in C programming? o A) POSIX Threads (pthreads) o B) Win32 API o C) OpenMP o D) Both A and B o Answer: D) Both A and B 4. Implicit threading allows the programmer to:  o A) Manually manage the creation and scheduling of threads o B) Automatically parallelize code without explicitly managing threads o C) Directly control the scheduling of threads o D) Use only one thread to execute tasks o Answer: B) Automatically parallelize code without explicitly managing threads 5. Which of the following is a major issue in multithreading? o A) Deadlock o B) Cache coherence o C) Thread synchronization o D) All of the above o Answer: D) All of the above CPU Scheduling: Scheduling Criteria and Algorithms; Thread Scheduling, Multiple Processor Scheduling, Real-Time CPU Scheduling 6. Which of the following is a scheduling criterion for CPU scheduling algorithms? o A) Throughput o B) Fairness o C) CPU utilization o D) All of the above o Answer: D) All of the above 7. In the round-robin scheduling algorithm, each process is assigned a: o A) Priority value o B) Time quantum o C) Unique address o D) Execution order o Answer: B) Time quantum 8. Which CPU scheduling algorithm is most appropriate for real-time systems where tasks must be completed within a strict time frame? o A) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) o B) Shortest Job Next (SJN) o C) Rate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS) o D) Round Robin o Answer: C) Rate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS) 9. In multiple processor scheduling, what is the primary goal? o A) Maximize CPU utilization o B) Minimize process starvation o C) Balance load across processors o D) Improve disk access time o Answer: C) Balance load across processors 10. Which of the following is not a type of CPU scheduling algorithm? o A) Priority Scheduling o B) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) o C) Shortest Job First (SJF) o D) Banker's Algorithm o Answer: D) Banker's Algorithm Deadlocks: Deadlock Characterization, Methods for Handling Deadlocks, Deadlock Prevention, Avoidance and Detection; Recovery from Deadlock 11. Deadlock occurs when: o A) All processes finish execution o B) Processes are waiting for resources held by others, causing a cyclic dependency o C) Processes are running in parallel without synchronization o D) Processes are suspended to avoid system crashes o Answer: B) Processes are waiting for resources held by others, causing a cyclic dependency 12. Which of the following is a method used to handle deadlocks? o A) Deadlock detection o B) Deadlock prevention o C) Deadlock recovery o D) All of the above o Answer: D) All of the above 13. Which condition is necessary for deadlock to occur? o A) Mutual Exclusion o B) Resource Allocation o C) Circular Wait o D) All of the above o Answer: D) All of the above 14. Which of the following is a technique used in deadlock prevention? o A) Preempt resources o B) Wait for all resources at once o C) Apply a strict priority rule o D) Ignore the problem o Answer: A) Preempt resources 15. Which algorithm is used for detecting deadlocks in systems with resource allocation graphs? o A) Banker's Algorithm o B) Wait-for Graph Algorithm o C) Round Robin Algorithm o D) Dijkstra's Algorithm o Answer: B) Wait-for Graph Algorithm 16. In the context of deadlock recovery, which of the following is a common approach? o A) Abort all processes o B) Rollback processes to a safe state o C) Preempt resources from processes o D) All of the above o Answer: D) All of the above 17. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of the Banker's algorithm? o A) It does not consider resource allocation graphs o B) It requires knowing in advance the maximum resource needs of processes o C) It leads to system inefficiency  o D) It does not allow for process starvation o Answer: B) It requires knowing in advance the maximum resource needs of processes 18. Which approach is used in deadlock avoidance to ensure that a system will never enter a deadlock state? o A) Resource Allocation Graph o B) Wait-for Graph o C) Banker's Algorithm o D) None of the above o Answer: C) Banker's Algorithm Memory Management: 1. What is the primary goal of Contiguous Memory Allocation? o A) To allocate memory in non-contiguous blocks o B) To allocate memory in a single continuous block for the entire program o C) To reduce the fragmentation of memory o D) To provide memory protection for each process Answer: B) To allocate memory in a single continuous block for the entire program 2. Which of the following is an advantage of swapping in memory management? o A) Reduces the need for physical memory o B) Increases the overall memory usage o C) Allows the system to run larger programs than physical memory can accommodate o D) Eliminates all forms of fragmentation Answer: C) Allows the system to run larger programs than physical memory can accommodate 3. What does Paging in memory management help to prevent? o A) Internal fragmentation o B) External fragmentation o C) Memory leaks o D) Cache misses Answer: B) External fragmentation 4. Which of the following is true about Demand Paging? o A) Pages are loaded into memory only when they are referenced by the process o B) All pages are loaded into memory at the start of the program's execution o C) The page size is fixed o D) It eliminates the need for page replacement algorithms Answer: A) Pages are loaded into memory only when they are referenced by the process  5. Which of the following page replacement algorithms is used to replace the page that will not be used for the longest period of time? o A) FIFO o B) LRU o C) Optimal o D) LFU Answer: C) Optimal 6. What is Thrashing in the context of memory management? o A) A situation where the CPU is not being used at all o B) When the system spends more time swapping than executing processes o C) The efficient allocation of memory frames o D) The process of freeing up memory pages Answer: B) When the system spends more time swapping than executing processes 7. What is the purpose of memory-mapped files? o A) To improve the speed of data transfers between I/O devices o B) To allocate memory for file buffers dynamically o C) To allow files to be accessed directly in memory o D) To increase the physical memory available for processes Answer: C) To allow files to be accessed directly in memory Storage Management: 8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Mass-Storage Structure? o A) Large capacity o B) High-speed access o C) Non-volatile storage o D) Sequential access Answer: B) High-speed access 9. Which type of disk structure is used to organize data for easy access by the operating system? o A) Logical Structure o B) Physical Structure o C) Access Structure o D) Queue Structure Answer: B) Physical Structure  10. In RAID 5, data is distributed across multiple disks along with parity information. What is the primary advantage of this structure? o A) Increased storage capacity o B) Improved performance and fault tolerance o C) Simplified management o D) Increased cost per GB Answer: B) Improved performance and fault tolerance 11. Which disk scheduling algorithm selects the disk request that is closest to the current head position? o A) FCFS o B) SSTF o C) SCAN o D) LOOK Answer: B) SSTF File and Input/Output Systems: 12. Which of the following is an example of an access method for files? o A) Sequential Access o B) Random Access o C) Indexed Access o D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above 13. Which of the following is true about file-system mounting? o A) It is used to create new files in the system o B) It involves attaching a file system to a directory for access o C) It involves partitioning the hard disk into different file systems o D) It helps in managing files in networked systems Answer: B) It involves attaching a file system to a directory for access 14. Which file allocation method minimizes disk fragmentation? o A) Contiguous Allocation o B) Linked Allocation o C) Indexed Allocation o D) Hybrid Allocation Answer: C) Indexed Allocation  15. What is the primary role of the kernel I/O subsystem? o A) To manage memory allocation o B) To manage the interface between user applications and hardware devices o C) To ensure that files are accessed sequentially o D) To handle network communication Answer: B) To manage the interface between user applications and hardware devices 16. Which of the following is a characteristic of the free-space management method in file systems? o A) It tracks the available free space on the storage medium o B) It allocates space to files without fragmentation o C) It maintains the directory structure of the file system o D) It handles file access requests in real-time Answer: A) It tracks the available free space on the storage medium 17. Which of the following is a key objective of file-system recovery? o A) To ensure the correct deletion of files o B) To restore the file system to a consistent state after a failure o C) To improve the speed of file access o D) To monitor disk usage patterns Answer: B) To restore the file system to a consistent state after a failure 18. How does the Application I/O Interface improve system performance? o A) By directly controlling the hardware o B) By providing a standardized way for applications to access hardware devices o C) By managing memory allocation for files o D) By reducing the number of I/O requests sent to the hardware Answer: B) By providing a standardized way for applications to access hardware devices Security 1. What is an Access Matrix in computer security? o a) A method for scheduling processes o b) A method for managing memory o c) A framework for defining access rights for each subject-object pair o d) A method for encrypting user data Answer: c) A framework for defining access rights for each subject-object pair 2. Which of the following is NOT a common method of user authentication? o a) Password-based authentication o b) Biometric authentication  o c) Access Control List (ACL) o d) Token-based authentication Answer: c) Access Control List (ACL) 3. In the context of security, what does the term 'revocation of access rights' refer to? o a) The process of encrypting user data o b) The removal of permissions from a user o c) The process of assigning roles to users o d) The creation of access control policies Answer: b) The removal of permissions from a user 4. Which of the following is an example of a program threat? o a) Malware infections o b) Unauthorized data access o c) Denial of Service (DoS) attacks o d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 5. What is the main purpose of cryptography in computer security? o a) To authenticate users o b) To protect data confidentiality and integrity o c) To monitor network traffic o d) To create firewalls Answer: b) To protect data confidentiality and integrity Virtual Machines 6. Which of the following is a type of virtual machine? o a) Type 1 hypervisor (bare-metal) o b) Type 2 hypervisor (hosted) o c) Both a and b o d) Neither a nor b Answer: c) Both a and b 7. What is virtualization in the context of computing? o a) Running multiple programs simultaneously o b) A method of simulating hardware to run multiple operating systems on one machine o c) Protecting data through encryption o d) None of the above  Answer: b) A method of simulating hardware to run multiple operating systems on one machine Linux Operating Systems 8. Which of the following is responsible for managing processes in the Linux operating system? o a) Kernel o b) File system o c) User Interface o d) Scheduler Answer: a) Kernel 9. In Linux, what is a 'kernel module'? o a) A user-space program that interacts with the hardware o b) A part of the operating system that can be loaded and unloaded dynamically o c) A tool for managing file permissions o d) A process that is always running in the background Answer: b) A part of the operating system that can be loaded and unloaded dynamically 10. Which of the following Linux components is responsible for scheduling processes? o a) Kernel o b) Scheduler o c) File System o d) Memory Management Answer: b) Scheduler 11. Which of the following is NOT a memory management technique used by Linux? o a) Paging o b) Segmentation o c) Swapping o d) Scheduling Answer: d) Scheduling 12. Which of the following Linux commands is used to view the kernel log? o a) lsmod o b) dmesg o c) top o d) ps Answer: b) dmesg  13. Which Linux file system is designed for large-scale enterprise use? o a) ext4 o b) btrfs o c) NTFS o d) fat32 Answer: b) btrfs 14. Which of the following is used for interprocess communication (IPC) in Linux? o a) Pipes o b) Shared Memory o c) Message Queues o d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above 15. In Linux, what is the primary function of the 'init' process? o a) To schedule processes o b) To manage system memory o c) To manage system startup and shut down o d) To perform file operations Answer: c) To manage system startup and shut down Windows Operating Systems: Design Principles, System Components, Terminal Services, and Fast User Switching; File System, Networking 1. Which of the following is NOT a design principle of Windows Operating Systems? o a) Modularization o b) Layered Architecture o c) Uniformity of Interfaces o d) Complete Dependency Answer: d) Complete Dependency 2. Which component of Windows OS manages hardware resources and allows software applications to interact with the hardware? o a) User Mode o b) Kernel Mode o c) File System o d) Device Driver Answer: b) Kernel Mode 3. Terminal Services in Windows allows users to: o a) Access a remote computer via graphical interface o b) Switch between users without logging off o c) Share files between different operating systems o d) Prevent unauthorized access to the system Answer: a) Access a remote computer via graphical interface  4. In Windows, what feature allows users to switch between different accounts without logging off? o a) Task Manager o b) Fast User Switching o c) Remote Desktop o d) Task Scheduler Answer: b) Fast User Switching 5. Which of the following file systems is used by Windows? o a) ext4 o b) HFS+ o c) NTFS o d) FAT32 Answer: c) NTFS 6. Which of the following is NOT a common Windows networking protocol? o a) TCP/IP o b) NetBIOS o c) NFS o d) SMB Answer: c) NFS Distributed Systems: Types of Network-Based Operating Systems, Network Structure, Communication Structure, and Protocols; Robustness, Design Issues, Distributed File Systems 7. Which of the following is an example of a network-based operating system? o a) Unix o b) Microsoft Windows o c) VMS o d) Andrew File System (AFS) Answer: d) Andrew File System (AFS) 8. What does the "network structure" in a distributed system primarily refer to? o a) The layout and design of the software components o b) The physical connections between different nodes o c) The data consistency mechanisms used o d) The application-level protocols Answer: b) The physical connections between different nodes 9. Which of the following protocols is commonly used for communication in distributed systems? o a) SMTP o b) HTTP o c) RDP o d) RPC (Remote Procedure Call) Answer: d) RPC (Remote Procedure Call) 10. In a distributed system, robustness refers to:  o a) The system's ability to recover from faults and failures o b) The speed at which the system performs computations o c) The number of users supported by the system o d) The physical security of the system Answer: a) The system's ability to recover from faults and failures 11. Which of the following is a key design issue in distributed systems? o a) Centralized Control o b) Synchronization o c) Single-point failure o d) Non-replication of data Answer: b) Synchronization 12. Which of the following is a common feature of Distributed File Systems (DFS)? o a) Data is stored on a single machine o b) Data is partitioned across multiple machines o c) Users cannot access files remotely o d) Files are stored in a cloud-based database Answer: b) Data is partitioned across multiple machines 13. Which of the following Distributed File Systems is developed by Sun Microsystems? o a) NFS (Network File System) o b) AFS (Andrew File System) o c) HDFS (Hadoop Distributed File System) o d) CIFS (Common Internet File System) Answer: a) NFS (Network File System) 14. Which of the following is a major challenge in designing distributed systems? o a) Ensuring scalability and load balancing o b) Handling large volumes of data on a single server o c) Limiting user access o d) Minimizing network bandwidth Answer: a) Ensuring scalability and load balancing Database System Concepts and Architecture 1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Database Management System (DBMS)? o a) Provides centralized data storage o b) Manages hardware resources o c) Only allows read access to data o d) Stores data in physical files Answer: a) Provides centralized data storage 2. Which of the following is true about Three-Schema Architecture? o a) It ensures data redundancy. o b) It allows for separation of data from applications. o c) It focuses only on physical data storage. o d) It is used to improve hardware performance.  Answer: b) It allows for separation of data from applications. 3. Which of the following data models is based on tables, rows, and columns? o a) Hierarchical Model o b) Network Model o c) Relational Model o d) Object-Oriented Model Answer: c) Relational Model 4. Which architecture does a DBMS follow in a centralized system? o a) Client/Server o b) Peer-to-Peer o c) Centralized o d) Distributed Answer: c) Centralized 5. What type of independence is achieved when changes in schema at one level do not affect the schema at other levels? o a) Physical Data Independence o b) Logical Data Independence o c) Conceptual Data Independence o d) View Data Independence Answer: b) Logical Data Independence Data Modeling 6. What is the primary purpose of an Entity-Relationship (ER) Diagram? o a) To describe the relational model o b) To visualize database architecture o c) To define data types o d) To enforce data constraints Answer: b) To visualize database architecture 7. Which of the following constraints ensures that the value of a foreign key matches a value in the primary key of the referenced table? o a) Domain Constraint o b) Referential Integrity Constraint o c) Entity Integrity Constraint o d) Check Constraint Answer: b) Referential Integrity Constraint  8. Which of the following is a feature of relational algebra? o a) It is used to query data in an object-oriented database. o b) It allows manipulation of data using set operations. o c) It uses SQL for querying data. o d) It defines relationships between attributes in a database. Answer: b) It allows manipulation of data using set operations. 9. Which of Codd's rules for relational databases requires that each attribute must contain only atomic values? o a) Rule 1: Information Rule o b) Rule 2: Guaranteed Access Rule o c) Rule 5: Power Rule o d) Rule 8: Independent Access Rule Answer: a) Rule 1: Information Rule SQL 10. Which SQL statement is used to retrieve data from a database? o a) INSERT o b) DELETE o c) UPDATE o d) SELECT Answer: d) SELECT 11. Which of the following SQL commands is used to define a new table in a database? o a) CREATE TABLE o b) ALTER TABLE o c) INSERT INTO o d) DROP TABLE Answer: a) CREATE TABLE 12. Which SQL clause is used to specify a condition in a query? o a) FROM o b) WHERE o c) SELECT o d) GROUP BY Answer: b) WHERE 13. What does the SQL statement UPDATE tablename SET column1 = value1 WHERE condition; do? o a) Inserts data into the table  o b) Modifies existing data in the table o c) Deletes data from the table o d) Defines the structure of the table Answer: b) Modifies existing data in the table 14. Which of the following is a method of preventing SQL injection attacks? o a) Using wildcards in queries o b) Validating and sanitizing user inputs o c) Using only SELECT queries o d) Using only numeric data in queries Answer: b) Validating and sanitizing user inputs 15. What is the purpose of a SQL trigger? o a) To automatically execute a query based on certain events o b) To optimize query performance o c) To define user roles and permissions o d) To provide user authentication Answer: a) To automatically execute a query based on certain events 16. Which SQL command is used to delete a table from a database? o a) REMOVE TABLE o b) DELETE TABLE o c) DROP TABLE o d) TRUNCATE TABLE Answer: c) DROP TABLE 17. Which SQL command is used to prevent changes to data from unauthorized users? o a) REVOKE o b) GRANT o c) COMMIT o d) ROLLBACK Answer: a) REVOKE 18. Which of the following is a type of constraint that ensures no duplicate values in a column? o a) UNIQUE o b) PRIMARY KEY o c) FOREIGN KEY o d) CHECK Answer: a) UNIQUE  19. Which data type in SQL is used to store text data? o a) INT o b) VARCHAR o c) DATE o d) BOOLEAN Answer: b) VARCHAR 20. What is a view in SQL? o a) A temporary table that stores query results o b) A table with read-only access o c) A permanent table with a defined schema o d) A command to fetch data from multiple tables Answer: a) A temporary table that stores query results 1. Functional Dependencies and Normalization in Relational Databases: Q1. Which of the following best describes a functional dependency in a relational database? a) A relationship between two relations where one determines the other. b) A constraint between two attributes where one attribute uniquely determines the value of another. c) A type of key that is used to identify a record uniquely in a table. d) A rule that defines how records are linked in a database. Answer: b) A constraint between two attributes where one attribute uniquely determines the value of another. Q2. What is the primary purpose of database normalization? a) To remove redundancy and improve data consistency. b) To make queries faster. c) To reduce the size of the database. d) To increase the number of tables in the database. Answer: a) To remove redundancy and improve data consistency. 2. Algorithms for Query Processing and Optimization: Q3. Which of the following is the primary objective of query optimization in databases? a) To speed up the query execution by choosing the most efficient query plan. b) To ensure that queries are executed in the correct order. c) To simplify the structure of the query.  d) To ensure that the query syntax is correct. Answer: a) To speed up the query execution by choosing the most efficient query plan. Q4. Which of the following algorithms is commonly used in query optimization for joins in relational databases? a) Merge sort algorithm b) Nested loop join algorithm c) Dynamic programming algorithm d) Quick sort algorithm Answer: b) Nested loop join algorithm. 3. Transaction Processing and Concurrency Control Techniques: Q5. What does the term 'ACID' stand for in the context of database transactions? a) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability b) Accuracy, Consistency, Isolation, Durability c) Atomicity, Communication, Integrity, Durability d) Aggregation, Consistency, Isolation, Durability Answer: a) Atomicity, Co