Vision GS Test 26 Prelims 2024.pdf

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Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel VISIONIAS www.visionias.in Test Booklet Series TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2024 – Test – 4151 C Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted marks will be deducted. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO 1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 1. The World Bank was one of the first global 3. Which of the following provisions are voluntary provisions of the 73rd organizations to adopt the concept of Good Constitutional Amendment Act,1992? Governance. In this context, which of the 1. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. following is/are classified under the 8 2. Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers principles of Good Governance? and functions at the village level. 3. Determining the manner of election of 1. Consensus Oriented the chairperson of the village panchayat. 2. Transparency 4. Providing reservation of seats (both 3. Grievance Redressal members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any 4. Fast Service Delivery level. Select the correct answer using the code 5. Giving representation to the chairpersons of the intermediate given below. panchayats in the district panchayats. (a) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 4. With reference to the parliamentary 2. Consider the following pairs: privileges, consider the following Dam Country statements: 1. Originally, the Constitution expressly 1. Kariba : Russia mentioned two privileges, that is, 2. Aswan : Egypt freedom of speech in Parliament and the right of publication of its proceedings. 3. Tarbela : Pakistan 2. The president does not enjoy How many of the pairs given above are parliamentary privileges despite being a correctly matched? part of the parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only one correct? (b) Only two (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 5. Which of the following best describes the 9. Consider the following statements with term ‘Nematocysts’? respect to the President of India: (a) Feature of cnidarians used for prey 1. The office of the President of India was capture and defence. created in 1947 after independence. (b) A new species of salamander recently discovered. 2. The value of the vote of each member of (c) Human cell organelles necessary for Parliament is the same whereas the value respiration. of votes for the members of each (d) A phylum in kingdom animalia that legislative assembly varies. consists of roundworms. 3. Each candidate contesting for the post of 6. Which of the following river flows through President has to make a security deposit or forms the border of the most number of of ₹50,000. countries? 4. The Election Commission of India has (a) Volga the authority to try an election dispute (b) Danube regarding a Presidential election. (c) Amazon (d) Mekong How many statements given above are not correct? 7. What is the 'shoe-leather cost' associated (a) Only one with inflation? (b) Only two (a) The cost of luxury goods during (c) Only three inflation. (b) The cost of tracking commodity prices (d) All four as a leading indicator of inflation. (c) The costs that people incur to minimize 10. Consider the following statements: their cash holdings during times of high Statement-I: Laser land leveling increases inflation. crop yield and improves crop quality. (d) The cost of adapting to fashion trends during inflationary periods. Statement-II: Level land reduces water requirement for land preparation and also 8. Consider the following statements reduces weed problems. regarding Bharatiya Beej Sahakari Samiti Which one of the following is correct in Ltd (BBSSL): respect of the above statements? 1. BBSSL will undertake the production, procurement & distribution of quality (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are seeds under a single brand. correct and Statement-II is the correct 2. It was set up by the Ministry of explanation for Statement-I Agriculture under the Multi-State (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, correct and Statement-II is not the 2002. Which of the statements given above is/are correct explanation for Statement-I correct? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (a) 1 only incorrect (b) 2 only (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (c) Both 1 and 2 is correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 11. Arrange the following in ascending order: 15. Consider the following pairs: (a) Population < Community < Ecosystem < Political Party Founder Biome 1. Justice Party E. V Ramasamy (b) Community < Population < Biome < Ecosystem 2. Unionist Party Sir Fazli Husain (c) Biome < Community < Population < 3. Krishak Praja Party A.K Fazlul Huq Ecosystem How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) Ecosystem < Population < Community < matched? Biome (a) Only one (b) Only two 12. In the context of mineral resources of the world, Muruntau, Grasberg, Olimpiada are (c) All three the mines of: (d) None (a) Coal (b) Iron 16. Consider the following provisions: (c) Gold 1. Registration of political parties (d) Diamond 2. Allocation of seats in the House of the 13. It blosmmed once in every 12 years in People Western Ghat regions of Tamil Nadu, Kerala 3. Registration of electors and Karnataka at an altitude of 1300 to 2400 How many of the above are not provided for meters. Peak blooming season is between by the Representation of People Act, of August and October. Nilgiri hills got their 1950? name from these flowers. (a) Only one The above passage refers to which of the (b) Only two following flowers? (a) Karvi (c) All three (b) Brahma Kamal (d) None (c) Meadow Saffron (d) Neelakurinji 17. Consider the following statements with reference to the Real Estate Investment Trust 14. Consider the following provisions in the (REIT): Constitution which were added through the 1. REITs are only permitted to engage in Constitutional Amendment Acts: 1. Addition of Eleventh Schedule commercial real estate, not residential 2. Deletion of 'Right to Property' from the real estate. list of fundamental rights 2. Dividends obtained from REITs are 3. Extending reservations for promotions in completely taxable in the hands of the jobs for the Scheduled Castes and investor. Scheduled Tribes 3. In India, all REITs have to be 4. Increase of number of Lok sabha seats mandatorily listed on stock exchanges. from 525 to 545 Arrange the above provisions in the How many of the following statements is/are chronological sequence of their addition to correct? the Constitution of India. (a) Only one (a) 4-3-1-2 (b) Only two (b) 2-3-1-4 (c) All three (c) 4-2-1-3 (d) None (d) 2-1-4-3 4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 18. Organic evolution refers to the changes in 21. It was the premier Cholan port city in the genetic makeup of entities in a population. In early historic times. Classical accounts refer this context, consider the following to it as Khaberis or camara. It was an processes: important trading town famous for its 1. Mutation 2. Reproductive isolation bustling markets. Its references are found in 3. Genetic drift the ancient Tamil texts of Silappadikaram 4. Natural Selection and Manimekalai. It has been identified with Which of the above mentioned processes are modern-day Kaveripattinam, Tamil Nadu key processes involved in organic evolution? (a) 1 and 3 only coast, located at the point where the Kaveri (b) 2, 3 and 4 only river flows into the Bay of Bengal. (c) 1 and 4 only Which of the following historic cities has (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 been described by the passage given above? (a) Korkai 19. Consider the following statements with respect to the Parliamentary Committee on (b) Vanji Official Language: (c) Muziris 1. This committee consists of 30 members (d) Puhar of Parliament having equal representation of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. 22. Consider the following statements: 2. The chairman of the committee is Statement-I: A Minute on the necessity of nominated by the Speaker of the Lok town planning was penned by Lord Sabha. Wellesley, which emphasised the importance 3. The committee is required to submit its of Modern town planning in Calcutta. report along with its recommendations to the President. Statement-II: Lord Wellesley took concrete How many statements given above are action by establishing various committees, correct? including the setting up of a lottery (a) Only one committee. (b) Only two (c) All three Which one of the following is correct in (d) None respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 20. Consider the following pairs: correct and Statement-II is the correct Folk dance State explanation for Statement-I 1. Dhimsa : Andhra Pradesh (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Nati : Himachal Pradesh 3. Theyyam : Kerala correct and Statement-II is not the How many of the above pairs are correctly correct explanation for Statement-I matched? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (a) Only one incorrect. (b) Only two (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (c) All three (d) None is correct 5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 23. Consider the following pairs: 26. Consider the following statements: Pollutant Source 1. The Reserved and Protected forests are 1. Lead : Exhaust from automobiles declared by the Central Government 2. Beryllium : Ceramic Industry whereas the Conservation and 3. Nickel : Combustion of coal Community Reserves are declared by the Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? respective State Governments. (a) 1 only 2. The Reserved and Protected forests are (b) 1 and 3 only granted protection under the Indian (c) 2 and 3 only Forest Act,1927, whereas the (d) 1, 2 and 3 Conservation and Community Reserves are protected under the Wildlife 24. In the context of physical geography, the Protection Act, 1972. term 'thermokarst' is best defined as: (a) A more or less level land surface 3. Unlike the Reserved and Protected produced by erosion over a long period. forests, the rights of people living inside (b) A feature resulting from the melting of Conservation and Community Reserves ground ice in a region underlain by are not affected. permafrost. How many statements given above are (c) An underground geomorphological correct? feature of Karst topography. (a) Only one (d) An erosional feature of weathered rocks produces due to temperature differences. (b) Only two (c) All three 25. Consider the following statements: (d) None Statement I: Soils in the taiga climate are acidic. 27. With reference to energy derivation Statement II: Low temperatures and processes of ‘incineration’ and ‘pyrolysis’, anaerobiosis in taiga climate inhibit consider the following statements: decompositions. Which one of the following is correct in 1. Incineration is a thermal process, while respect of the above statements? pyrolysis is not. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Incineration requires oxygen, while correct and Statement-II is the correct pyrolysis occurs without oxygen in an explanation for Statement-I inert atmosphere. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which of the statements given above is/are correct and Statement-II is not the correct? correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is (a) 1 only incorrect (b) 2 only (d) Statement-I incorrect but Statement-II is (c) Both 1 and 2 correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 28. Consider the following pairs: 30. How many of the following are not Ashokan Main text patentable inventions under the Indian Patent Rock Edicts Act, 1970? 1. Major Rock : Prohibition of animal 1. Genetically modified plant varieties Edict I slaughter 2. Genetically modified animal varieties 2. Major Rock : Description of Kalinga 3. Genetically modified seed varieties Edict V War Select the correct answer using the code 3. Major Rock : Preference to given below. Edict IV Dhammaghosha over (a) Only one (b) Only two Bherighosha (c) All three How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) None matched? (a) Only one 31. With reference to the religious practices in (b) Only two India, consider the following sects: (c) All three 1. Sthanakvasi (d) None 2. Lonka Sa 3. Vishvapanthis 29. With reference to the United Nations How many of the above sects are related to Peacekeeping Forces, consider the following Jainism? statements: (a) Only one 1. United Nations Peacekeepers are often (b) Only two referred to as "Blue Helmets". (c) All three 2. Every Member State of the UN is legally (d) None obligated to pay their respective share towards peacekeeping. 32. It is a type of unemployment that is usually 3. Peacekeeping missions are deployed short-lived. It is also the least problematic only with the consent of the host from an economic standpoint. It occurs when country. people voluntarily change jobs. It is a natural 4. India is the largest contributor of troops result of the fact that market processes take to United Nations peacekeeping time and information can be costly. missions. Which of the following types of How many of the statements given above are unemployment has been described by the correct? passage given above? (a) Only one (a) Cyclical unemployment (b) Only two (b) Structural unemployment (c) Only three (c) Institutional unemployment (d) All four (d) Frictional unemployment 7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 33. Arrange the following environmental 35. Consider the following statements with protection activities in their order of respect to the judicial systems of India and United States of America (USA): occurrence: 1. In India, a single system of courts 1. Release of the first Global Environment enforces both Central laws as well as Outlook state laws whereas in the USA, the 2. Basel Convention on the movement and federal laws are enforced by the federal disposal of hazardous waste judiciary, and the state laws are enforced 3. Convention for the Prevention of by the state judiciary. Pollution from Ships 2. The Supreme Courts of both the USA 4. Convention on Long-range and India enjoy advisory jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are Transboundary Air Pollution correct? Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only given below. (b) 2 only (a) 1-3-2-4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 3-4-2-1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 3-2-1-4 36. With reference to the recent discovery of a new species of Pangolin, consider the following statements: 34. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Pangolins are the only mammals that are Dhokra Art, seen in the news recently: wholly covered in scales. 1. It is a non–ferrous metal casting art 2. The Indian Pangolin is protected under using the lost-wax casting technique. the Schedule I of the Wildlife 2. The dancing girl of Mohenjo-Daro is (Protection) Act, 1972. one of the earliest known dhokra 3. Indian pangolin is categorised as artefacts. Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red Which of the statements given above is/are List of threatened species. How many of the above statements are correct? correct? (a) 1 only (a) Only one (b) 2 only (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None 8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 37. Consider the following pairs: 40. Consider the following statements with Subject List reference to tiger reserves: 1. Veerangana Durgavati tiger reserve 1. Public health and : State list located in Madhya Pradesh encompasses sanitation Nauradehi and Veerangana Durgavati 2. Inter-state trade and : Concurrent list sanctuaries. commerce 2. Dholpur Karauli tiger reserve lies along the western bank of the Banas River. 3. Betting and gambling : Union list 3. At present, Maharashtra has the second- How many pairs given above are correctly highest number of tiger reserves in the matched? country. (a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Only two correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (c) All three (b) 2 and 3 only (d) None (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only 38. With reference to Goods and Services Tax (GST) Compensation Cess, consider the 41. With reference to Adaptation gap report 2023, consider the following statements: following statements: 1. It is released by the United Nations 1. It is levied on all products produced in Environment Programme (UNEP). the country. 2. The report looks at progress in planning, 2. Any unused money from the financing and implementing adaptation compensation fund will be credited to actions related to climate change. the Public Account of India. 3. As per the report, the Public multilateral Which of the statements given above is/are and bilateral adaptation finance flows to developing countries have steadily correct? increased in the last five years. (a) 1 only How many of the above statements are (b) 2 only correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None 39. Consider the following pairs: Hot Spring State 42. Consider the following gases: Location 1. Carbon dioxide 1. Manikaran : Uttarakhand 2. Water vapour 2. Yumthang : Sikkim 3. Oxygen 3. Panamik : Arunachal Pradesh 4. Nitrogen 5. Sulfur Dioxide How many of the pairs given above are The atmosphere of Venus is composed of correctly matched? which of the gases given above? (a) Only one (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Only two (b) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) All three (c) 3 and 4 only (d) None (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 43. With reference to Indian history, the 45. Consider the following statements with respect to preventive detention: commonality that leaders Kristodas Pal, 1. The Constitution of India provides for V.N. Mandlik and Rash Behari Ghosh had the detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. was: 2. Only the Parliament is empowered to (a) They all were Presidents of the Indian make laws under which preventive detention can be ordered. National Congress. 3. The orders for preventive detention are (b) They all were revolutionary leaders who usually issued by the District Magistrate and they shall not be delegated to the preached armed struggle. police. (c) They were part of the Bombay 4. The maximum period for which any person can be detained under preventive Association formed in 1852. detention is prescribed by the Supreme (d) They had been the members of Court. How many of the statements given above are Governor-General’s Executive Council. correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two 44. In the context of recently launched Animal (c) Only three Husbandry Statistics 2023, consider the (d) All four following statements: 46. Consider the following statements: 1. Appointments of officers and servants of 1. The highest milk-producing state during the Supreme Court are made by the 2022-23 was Gujarat. Chief Justice of India. 2. The Judges (Protection) Act, 1985, 2. Major contribution to the total egg prevents civil or criminal proceedings production comes from Andhra Pradesh. against a judge for anything done in the course of his/her judicial duty. 3. Major contribution to the total wool 3. Salaries of Supreme Court judges are production comes from Rajasthan. decided by the Supreme Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions of Service) Act How many of the above statements are whereas salaries of High Court judges correct? are decided by the state governor. How many statements given above are (a) Only one correct? (b) Only two (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three (d) None (d) None 10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 47. In the context of neo banks, consider the 50. This curve shows the quantity of one type of following statements: product that an agent will export for each 1. These are financial institutions with only quantity of another type of product that it an online presence and function imports. It is because of this reason that this curve is also known as reciprocal demand digitally. curve. 2. They cannot apply for a banking license The above paragraph best describes which of but provide all the services of a bank the following curves? online. (a) J curve Which of the statements given above (b) Beveridge curve statements is/are correct? (c) Rahn curve (a) 1 only (d) Offer curve (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 51. Consider the following statements with (d) Neither 1 nor 2 respect to the Monetary Policy Committee: 1. In 2007, the Percy Mistry Committee 48. The term ‘Zosurabalpin’, recently seen in the recommended its formation. news, is: 2. RBI determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index, once (a) A new class of antibiotics that can tackle every two years. drug-resistant bacterial strains. 3. RBI has to organize at least two (b) A fixed-dose combination (FDC) drug meetings of the MPC in a year. that aims to treat rabies in dogs. 4. The nominated members will hold office (c) A new treatment developed for last stage for four years and are eligible for re- cancer. appointment. (d) A herbicide banned due to its hazardous How many of the above statements are impacts on human brain. correct? (a) Only one 49. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Only two the International Labour Organization's (c) Only three (ILO) Convention 1: (d) All four 1. It sets the standard of 8 working hours a 52. Which of the following is most likely to day and 48 working hours a week. increase money supply in the economy? 2. India is yet to ratify the convention due 1. Increase in reserve requirements to the issues with the definition of 2. Increase in bank rates working hours by ILO. 3. Selling of G-Secs by the central Bank Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code correct? given below. (a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None 11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 53. Consider the following statements regarding 56. Consider the following pairs: the No Confidence Motion: Fort Location 1. The first No Confidence Motion was 1. Sindhudurg Fort : Maharashtra moved during the tenure of Jawaharlal 2. Gingee Fort : Tamil Nadu Nehru. 2. None of the No Confidence Motions 3. Vijaydurg Fort : Andhra Pradesh since independence have been How many of the above pairs are correctly successful. matched? 3. As per the rules of procedure of Lok (a) Only one Sabha, after the no-confidence motion is (b) Only two admitted, the President shall specify the (c) All three date on which the debate will begin. (d) None How many of the statements given above are correct? 57. The Saffir-Simpson scale is used to measure (a) Only one the intensity of: (b) Only two (a) Cyclones (c) All three (d) None (b) Earthquakes (c) Tornadoes 54. Consider the following statements regarding (d) Volcanoes the nanostructured hard-carbon florets or NCF recently seen in news: 58. Consider the following pairs: 1. NCFs have shown the highest solar- Wars Associated thermal conversion efficiency in the Governor General existing coating materials like 1. Second Anglo- : Lord Amherst Chromium. Burmese war 2. NCFs are expensive to produce and complex in usage making it a less 2. First Anglo-Sikh : Lord Hardinge attractive substitute at the current stage War of development. 2. First Anglo-Aghan : Lord Auckland Which of the statements given above is/are War correct? How many of the above pairs are correctly (a) 1 only matched? (b) 2 only (a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three 55. It is an instrument that a foreign (d) None company uses to access the Indian securities market for raising funds. It is denominated in 59. Recently ULLAS mobile application was in Indian Rupees in the form of a financial the news. It is related to harnessing the instrument created by a domestic depository potential of technology to facilitate the against the underlying equity of the issuing access to company. The financial instrument is (a) basic literacy (a) Participatory Note (b) women safety (b) Option Contract (c) road safety (c) Masala bonds (d) clean air (d) Indian Depository Receipt 12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 60. Consider the following statements regarding 63. Consider the following statements : light pollution: 1. Atlantic Ocean has the highest surface 1. Light pollution is a human-made water salinity among the oceans. alteration of outdoor light levels from 2. Indian Ocean is home to the deepest those occurring naturally. point on earth. 2. Light pollution impacts Indigenous 3. Arctic ocean is the smallest and communities who view the night sky as shallowest of oceans. How many of the statements given above are a vital part of their cultural identity. correct? 3. Recently Kanha Tiger Reserve attained (a) Only one the distinction of becoming India’s (b) Only two inaugural Dark Sky Park. (c) All three Which of the statements given above is/are (d) None correct? (a) 1 and 2 only 64. Consider the following statements about the (b) 2 only Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS): (c) 3 only 1. RATs work under the mandate of the (d) 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Security Council. 2. It has its own peacekeeping forces that 61. Consider the following countries: are deployed in conflict zones within 1. Israel member states. 2. North Korea 3. It is headquartered in New Delhi, India. 3. India How many of the statements given above are 4. China correct? 5. Pakistan (a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the above Nuclear Weapons States (c) All three have not signed and ratified the (d) None Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty? (a) 1 and 4 only 65. Consider the following statements: (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only Statement I: Pollution from the tyres of (c) 2, 3 and 5 only vehicles is on the rise on account of (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 increasing number of electric vehicles. Statement II: Extra weight of electric 62. With reference to Kyasanur Forest Disease vehicles, due to their batteries, leads to more (KFD), consider the following statements: abrasion releasing many toxic and 1. It is caused by the bites of fruit bats. carcinogenic chemicals such as 6PPD. 2. It has been localized only in the southern Which one of the following is correct in part of India. respect of the above statements? 3. There is no specific treatment for KFD. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are 4. KFD has shown the ability to be correct and Statement II is the correct transmitted from person to person. explanation for Statement I. How many of the statements given above are (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct? correct explanation for Statement I. (a) Only one (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (b) Only two incorrect (c) Only three (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II (d) All four is correct. 13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 66. Article 311 of the Constitution of India acts 68. Consider the following pairs: as a safeguard for civil servants so that they Indian Martial Arts State are not dismissed arbitrarily from service. In 1. Kathi Samu : Karnataka how many of the following circumstances, 2. Silambam : Kerala does a civil servant need not be given a 3. Gatka : Punjab reasonable opportunity to be heard? How many of the above pairs are correctly 1. Suspension of a government employee matched? 2. A person is dismissed on the grounds of (a) Only one (b) Only two conduct that led to his/her conviction on (c) All three a criminal charge (d) None 3. Compulsory retirement 4. If the person is a probationer 69. Recently, a rice variety 'PR23' is in news. Select the correct answer using the code Which of the following is the most given below. appropriate description of PR23? (a) Only one (a) It is India's first ever non-GM herbicide- (b) Only two tolerant rice variety. (c) Only three (b) It is a GI tag rice variety from Bihar (d) All four famous for its aroma and taste. (c) It need not to plant every year and can yield eight consecutive harvests across 67. With reference to the Santiago network, four years. consider the following statements: (d) It is a rice variety that require at least 30 1. Santiago network focuses on catalyzing percent low phosphorus. technical assistance from various organizations, bodies, networks, and 70. With reference to the biodiversity beyond experts to support developing countries national jurisdiction (BBNJ) treaty, consider in addressing loss and damage caused by the following statements: climate change. 1. The BBNJ treaty covers part of the 2. Santiago network was established during ocean that lies beyond the exclusive economic zone of a country. COP27 held in Sharm El Sheikh Egypt. 2. BBNJ treaty covers digital sequence 3. The UN Office for Disaster Risk information on marine genetic resources. Reduction (UNDRR) and the United 3. BBNJ mandates three months advance Nations Office for Project Services prior notification before carrying out any (UNOPS) will host the secretariat of the activity with respect to marine genetic Santiago Network. resources. How many statements given above are How many statements given above are correct? correct? (a) Only one (a) Only one (b) Only two (b) Only two (c) All three (c) All three (d) None (d) None 14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 71. How many of the following activities can 74. Consider the following pairs: use the Indian National Satellite (INSAT) Unemployment Description indicators system? 1. Weather forecasting 1. Worker : Percentage of 2. Search and Rescue operations Population Ratio employed persons in the labour force 3. Navigation 2. Labour Force : Percentage of persons 4. Television broadcasting Participation Rate working or seeking or Select the correct answer using the code available for work in given below. the population 3. Unemployment : Percentage of persons (a) Only one Rate unemployed among (b) Only two the persons in the (c) Only three population (d) All four How many of the pairs above are correctly matched? (a) Only one 72. Which of the following micro-organisms (b) Only two takes part in the process of composting and (c) All three bioremediation? (d) None 1. Bacteria 75. Many early Buddhist sculptors did not show 2. Fungi the Buddha in the human form - instead, 3. Virus they showed his presence through symbols. Select the correct answer using the codes In this context, which of the following is represented by the symbol of the empty seat given below. on the sculptor in Buddhism? (a) 1 only (a) Mahaparinibbana (b) 1 and 2 only (b) Meditation of Buddha (c) First sermon (c) 2 and 3 only (d) Mahabhinishkramana (d) 1, 2 and 3 76. Consider the following statements with 73. Various grants are made by the Parliament regard to the decennial census in India: 1. The decennial census is conducted by under extraordinary or special the Office of the Registrar General and circumstances. In this context, which of the Census Commissioner, Ministry of following grants is granted when funds to Statistics and Program Implementation. meet the proposed expenditure on a new 2. The census in India is conducted as an executive exercise and has no statutory service can be made available by backing. reappropriation? Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Supplementary grant correct? (a) 1 only (b) Exceptional grant (b) 2 only (c) Vote of credit (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Token grant (d) Neither 1 nor 2 15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 77. Which of the following countries are 80. In the context of medieval Indian history, the members of the East Asia Summit? term “Tarafs” referred to: 1. China 2. India (a) Territorial divisions 3. Russia 4. Taiwan (b) Coins 5. USA (c) Sufi poems Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) Weapons (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 3 and 4 only 81. Consider the following statements regarding (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 the Universal Declaration of Human Rights: 78. In the context of the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF), consider the following 1. The UDHR was adopted by the United statements: Nations General Assembly in 1948. 1. The IPEF is an India-led initiative to strengthen partnerships among countries 2. It is legally binding on member states of across the Indo-Pacific region. the United Nations. 2. India has joined all the pillars of IPEF, which is related to the Indo-Pacific 3. The right to seek asylum from region. 3. All ASEAN countries are founding persecution in other countries is a members of the IPEF. universal human right. How many of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are (a) Only one (b) Only two correct? (c) All three (a) 1 and 2 only (d) None (b) 1 and 3 only 79. Consider the following statements about the Bhakti saints of Maharashtra: (c) 2 and 3 only 1. Namdeva was the founder of the Bhakti (d) 1, 2 and 3 movement in Maharashtra. 2. Jnaneshwar or Jnanadeva wrote a commentary on Gita in Marathi. 82. "Moh Juj" which is recently celebrated after 3. The Dharakari Bhakti saints of Maharashtra are the followers of God 9 years in Assam is a Vitthala of Pandharpur. How many statements given above are (a) traditional buffalo fight correct? (b) cultural festival of colurs (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) tribal music and dance festival (c) All three (d) None (d) religious procession 16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 83. Consider the following statements: 85. Consider the following statements with Statement-I: National Asset Reconstruction respect to Government e-Marketplace (GeM) Company Limited (NARCL) is set up by recently seen in news: banks to aggregate and consolidate stressed 1. The nodal Ministry for GeM is Ministry assets for their subsequent resolution. of Finance. Statement-II: It capitalises funds through 2. It is based on Public-Private Partnership equity from banks and non-banking financial (PPP) model companies (NBFCs) but it can not issue new 3. All the purchase on GeM are done debt. through price comparison, bidding or Which of the following is correct in respect reverse auction. of the above statements? 4. The procurement by Ministries and (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Central Public Sector Enterprises correct and Statement-II is the correct (CPSEs) is mandatory for goods and explaination for Statement-I services which are available on GeM. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are How many statements given above are not correct and Statement-II is not the correct? correct explaination for Statement-I (a) Only one (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) Only two incorrect (c) Only three (d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II (d) All four is correct 86. With reference to Inflation-indexed Bonds 84. Consider the following statements regarding (IIBs), consider the following statements: Anti-cyclones : 1. They provide protection to both 1. They are associated with stable principal and interest payments. atmospheric conditions and light winds. 2. FIIs are eligible to invest in IIBs. 2. In the Southern Hemisphere, 3. IIBs are eligible for repo transactions. anticyclones rotate counterclockwise. Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above statements is/are correct? correct? (a) 1 only (a) Only one (b) 2 only (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None 17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 87. With reference to the capital adequacy ratio, 90. Consider the following statements in relation consider the following statements: to REWARD Project: 1. It is the ratio of a bank’s capital in 1. It is an Asian Development Bank relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. assisted multi-state project. 2. Indian scheduled commercial banks are 2. It is proposed as a decade long project to required to maintain a CAR of 8%. introduce modern watershed practices. 3. Tier-1 capital is less liquid than tier-2 Which of the statements given above is/are capital. How many of the above statements are correct? correct? (a) 1 only (a) Only one (b) 2 only (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three (d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2 88. Consider the following statements with 91. In 1920, he was appointed as a law member reference to the Ramsar Convention: of the Viceroy's Executive Council. His 1. It is an international treaty that provides a framework for the conservation and tenure saw significant contributions, notably sustainable use of wetlands. chairing the Press Committee in 1921, 2. India is a signatory to the Convention. tasked with evaluating press laws. As a 3. Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park are protected under the Ramsar result of the Committee's recommendations, convention. the Press Acts of 1908 and 1910 were How many of the statements given above repealed. Additionally, he played a pivotal are correct? role as a delegate during the three Round (a) Only one (b) Only two Table Conference sessions in London (c) All three (1930–32), which focused on the governance (d) None of India. Which of the following leaders was 89. The terms ‘Midjourney and 'DALL-E’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently discussed in the above paragraph? are related to: (a) Satyendhra Prasad Sinha (a) Satellites Constellation (b) Tej Bahadur Sapru (b) Crypto-currency (c) P. S. Sivaswami Iyer (c) Electric Vehicles (d) Artificial Intelligence (d) Bepin Behari Ghose 18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 92. Consider the following statements: 94. Consider the following statements regarding 1. The Constitution does not guarantee any Fakir Rebellion: immunity to the ministers for their 1. The Madari Fakirs trace their origin official acts. from the Sufi order initiated by Sha-i- 2. The ministers can be held liable in the Madar. courts for their official acts. 2. They enjoyed rent free tenures and 3. The Constitution confers personal retained armed followers during the immunity upon the civil servants for Mughal period. official contracts. 3. They fought against Dasnami Sanyasis for control over tenure free lands and 4. Although appointed by the respective trading routes. governors, the state civil servants hold How many of the above statements are office during the pleasure of the correct? President. (a) Only one How many of the statements given above are (b) Only two correct? (c) All three (a) Only one (d) None (b) Only two (c) Only three 95. Consider the following statements about a (d) All four personality from medieval India: 1. He allied with Yasodharman and 93. With reference to central bank digital defeated the Tibetans. currency (CBDC), consider the following 2. He was successful against the mountain statements: tribes on the north and north-western 1. A bank account is mandatory for frontier of his kingdom. utilizing CBDC. 3. His expedition against Yasodharman 2. CBDC does not have any intrinsic value. made him the master of Kanauj. 3. Like retail CBDC, wholesale CBDC is 4. The king of Gauda acknowledged his potentially available for use by all. suzerainty without a fight. How many of the statements given above are Which of the following rulers has been correct? described in the statements given above? (a) Only one (a) Mihir Bhoja (b) Only two (b) Harshvardhan (c) All three (c) Chandrapida (d) None (d) Lalitaditya 19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel 96. Consider the following statements with 99. In the context of interstate financial reference to Ecosan toilets: relations, under Article 282, the Union can 1. Unlike the leach pit toilet, the Ecosan make financial grants for toilet is a closed system which does not (a) subjects within its legislative need water. competence 2. It converts excreta into nutrients and (b) any public purpose thus acts as a valuable resource for (c) states in need of financial competence agriculture. (d) local bodies Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 100. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 only (b) 2 only the Union Public Service Commission (c) Both 1 and 2 (UPSC): (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Constitution, without specifying the strength of the Commission has left it to 97. If a person in Jaipur wants to visit the discretion of the Parliament. Doddabetta Mountain in Tamil Nadu, the 2. The UPSC presents, annually, to the minimum number of states that can be Parliament a report on its performance traversed by him are (other than the source which is laid before both the Houses of and destination states) Parliament. (a) Three Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Four correct? (c) Five (a) 1 only (d) Six (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 98. Consider the following statement with reference to the Chirala-Perala movement: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The residents of Chirala-Perala in Andhra refused to pay taxes and vacated the town. 2. The Chirala-Perala movement was led by Alluri Sita Rama Raju. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Copyright © by Vision IAS All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS. 20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel VISIONIAS www.visionias.in ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4151 (2024) Q 1.B In the 1990s, the World Bank became the first international institution to adopt the concept of good governance into lending arrangements for developing countries and introduce the idea to the general public. In its 1992 report entitled “Governance and Development”, the notion of good governance was written as the way in which power is used to regulate the economic and social resources of a country for development. The 8 principles of Good Governance are o Participation: Participation in the concept of good governance here is an opportunity for everyone to voice their opinions through institutions or representations. In addition, everyone, without exception, has the right to freedom of association and expression. o Rule of law: To implement good governance, the legal framework in the country must be enforced impartially, especially concerning human rights law. o Transparency: Transparency means that every policy taken and implemented by the government must be carried out under existing regulations. In addition, there must be a guarantee that any information related to the policy can be accessed by everyone, especially those who are directly affected by the policy. Hence option 2 is correct. o Responsiveness: Good governance needs institutions and processes to attempt to serve all stakeholders within a reasonable time. o Consensus oriented: This fifth principle is related to the decision-making process. When the decision-making process cannot accommodate everyone’s wishes, then at a minimum, the decision must be a decision that can be accepted by everyone and does not harm anyone. Hence option 1 is correct. o Equity and inclusiveness: Good governance ensures justice for the community. Everyone has the same opportunity to maintain and improve their welfare. o Effectiveness and efficiency: Every decision-making process and its institutions must be able to produce decisions that meet every community need. Community resources must also be utilised optimally by the government. o Accountability: All institutions involved in good governance have full responsibility to the public for the sake of improving the quality of society. Although 'Grievance Redressal' and 'Fast Service Delivery' are essential to the concept of Good Governance, these are subsumed under the 8 pillars of Good Governance and are not present among the 8 core principles defined above. Hence options 3 and 4 are not correct. Q 2.B Kariba Dam is a hydroelectric dam located on the Zambezi River, straddling the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa. It was completed in 1959 and is one of the largest dams in the world. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched. Aswan High Dam is a major dam located on the Nile River in Egypt. Completed in 1970, it plays a crucial role in controlling flooding, providing water for irrigation, and generating hydroelectric power for Egypt. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. Tarbela Dam is a large dam located on the Indus River in Pakistan. It is one of the largest earth-filled dams in the world and serves multiple purposes, including irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. Other dams of the world 1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel o Three Gorges Dam, China: Located on the Yangtze River, it's the world's largest hydroelectric dam by installed capacity. Completed in 2008, it has 22,500 MW capacity and generates enough electricity to power 40 million homes o Itaipu Dam, Brazil and Paraguay: Situated on the Paraná River, it's the second-largest hydroelectric dam by installed capacity (14,000 MW). Built jointly by Brazil and Paraguay, it provides energy to both countries. o Hoover Dam, United States: An iconic landmark on the Colorado River, it's renowned for its Art Deco design and engineering marvel. Completed in 1936, it generates 2,080 MW of electricity and provides water for irrigation and drinking. o Grand Coulee Dam, United States: Located on the Columbia River, it's the largest concrete gravity dam in the Western Hemisphere. Completed in 1942, it generates 6,809 MW of electricity and supports irrigation projects. o Toktogul Dam, Kyrgyzstan: Situated on the Naryn River, it's the second-highest dam in Central Asia. Finished in 1975, it has 1,200 MW capacity and plays a crucial role in regional energy security. Hence option (b) is the correct answer. Q 3.B The establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels is a compulsory provision under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, of 1992. Hence option 1 is not correct. Voluntary Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992: o Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level. o Determining the manner of election of the chairperson of the village panchayat. o Giving representation to the chairpersons of the village panchayats in the intermediate panchayats or in the case of a state not having intermediate panchayats, in the district panchayats. o Giving representation to the chairpersons of the intermediate panchayats in the district panchayats. o Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. o Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level. Hence options 2, 3, 4, and 5 are correct. Q 4.C Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees, and their members. They are necessary to secure the independence and effectiveness of their actions. Without these privileges, the Houses can neither maintain their authority, dignity, and honor nor can protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their parliamentary responsibilities. It must be clarified here that the parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two broad categories: o those that are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively, and o those that are enjoyed by the members individually. o Collective Privileges o The privileges belonging to each House of Parliament collectively are: ✓ It has the right to publish its reports, debates and proceedings and also the right to prohibit others from publishing the same. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restored the freedom of the press to publish true reports of parliamentary proceedings without prior permission of the House. But this is not applicable in the case of a secret sitting of the House. ✓ It can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings to discuss some important matters; etc, o Individual Privileges o The privileges belonging to the members individually are: ✓ They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases. ✓ They have freedom of speech in Parliament. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament. 2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS Join @cse_updates for more  Downloaded from @cse_updates Telegram Channel ✓ They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session. o Sources of Privileges ✓ Originally, the Co