Unit-1_Introduction_to_Software_and_Software_Engineering.pdf

Unit -1 : Introduction to Software and Software Engineering 1. Which of the following is true about software? a) It is manufactured in the classical sense. b) It is supported over the long term. c) It is highly susceptible to environmental factors like dust. d) It can wear out like...

Unit -1 : Introduction to Software and Software Engineering 1. Which of the following is true about software? a) It is manufactured in the classical sense. b) It is supported over the long term. c) It is highly susceptible to environmental factors like dust. d) It can wear out like hardware. 2. Why is software considered different from hardware when it comes to failure? a) Software can be easily replaced by spare parts. b) Software wears out like hardware. c) Software failures indicate design or process errors. d) Hardware has fewer environmental maladies than software. 3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of software? a) Software is not manufactured in the classical sense. b) Software deteriorates over time but does not wear out. c) Software spare parts can be used to fix errors. d) Software is highly dependent on design quality. 4. What is a key distinction between hardware and software maintenance? a) Software has spare parts, hardware does not. b) Hardware maintenance is more complex than software maintenance.  c) Software maintenance involves more complexity due to design errors. d) Software failures are mostly due to environmental factors. 5. Which of the following best explains the concept of software reuse? a) Software components are used only in a single program. b) Software components are implemented to be reused in multiple programs. c) Software reuse is uncommon in modern software development. d) Hardware reuse is more common than software reuse. 6. What does the "idealized failure rate curve" for software suggest? a) Software fails due to environmental factors. b) Software failure rate increases as it wears out over time. c) Software failure is related to design errors, not wear and tear. d) Software failure rate remains consistent throughout its lifetime. 7. Which of the following is a key difference between a program and software? a) Programs are developed by teams, while software is created by a single developer. b) Programs are large in size, while software is small. c) Programs lack proper interfaces and documentation compared to software. d) Programs have a systematic development process, unlike software.. 8. What is the reality behind the management myth that having a book of standards and procedures is sufficient for building software? a) The book is always up-to-date and sufficient. b) It may exist, but is often not used or outdated. c) Software practitioners are always aware of it. d) Standards are not needed in modern software engineering. 9. What is the consequence of adding more programmers to a software project when it's behind schedule? a) It always helps catch up with the schedule. b) It reduces the time required for productive development. c) It immediately speeds up development. d) It has no effect on the existing team's productivity. 10. Why might outsourcing a software project not always lead to success? a) The third party is usually not skilled enough. b) The organization may struggle if it cannot manage projects internally. c) Outsourcing firms always work independently. d) It eliminates the need for any internal oversight. 11. What is the risk of starting software development with a general statement of objectives? a) It leads to faster project completion. b) It is sufficient for most projects. c) It can lead to a disaster due to ambiguity. d) It simplifies communication between the customer and developer. 12. How does the timing of requirements changes affect a software project? a) Changes are easy to implement at any stage. b) Early changes have a smaller cost impact. c) Later changes are always more cost-effective. d) The cost impact remains the same throughout the project. 13. What percentage of effort is usually expended on software after it is delivered to the customer for the first time?  a) 20-40% b) 50-60% c) 60-80% d) 80-100% 14. What is one of the most effective software quality assurance mechanisms that can be applied from the beginning of a project? a) Software testing b) Debugging c) Technical reviews d) Prototyping 15. What is the only deliverable work product according to a common practitioner’s myth? a) Working models b) A variety of work products c) A working program d) Documentation and plans 16. What is a key advantage of using software engineering practices in a project? a) It always increases documentation and slows down the project. b) It reduces the quality of the product. c) It focuses on creating a quality product that reduces rework and delivery time. d) It focuses mainly on creating voluminous documentation. 17. What is the definition of software engineering? a) The creation of software without any plan. b) A disciplined, quantifiable approach to software development, operation, and maintenance. c) Writing code without testing. d) Fixing bugs in software. 18. What is the foundation of software engineering? a) Technical skills. b) A focus on quality. c) Debugging tools. d) Speed of development. 19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of total quality management or Six Sigma? a) Continuous improvement culture. b) Increasingly effective software engineering approaches. c) Ignoring quality assurance. d) Commitment to quality. 20. What is the 'glue' that holds the software engineering layers together? a) Programming languages. b) The software engineering process. c) Testing. d) CASE tools. 21. What forms the basis for management control of software projects? a) Methods. b) Tools. c) Process. d) Code reviews. 22. What is the role of software engineering methods? a) Provide the technical aspects for building software. b) Focus only on testing. c) Eliminate the need for requirements analysis. d) Serve as the sole element of software engineering. 23. What do software engineering methods encompass? a) Coding only. b) Communication, requirements analysis, design, construction, testing, and support. c) Planning only. d) Debugging only. 24. What is the purpose of software engineering tools? a) Provide automated or semi-automated support for processes and methods. b) Replace human engineers. c) Simplify coding without a plan. d) Only manage documentation. 25. What is the system established by integrating software engineering tools called? a) Debugging system. b) CASE (computer-aided software engineering). c) Process model. d) Technical review. 26. What defines the activities, actions, and tasks performed during software development? a) Software process. b) Testing phase. c) Bug fixing.  d) Requirement specification. 27. What does a task set in a software engineering action identify? a) Work tasks, work products, quality assurance points, and milestones. b) Only the code to be written. c) Testing steps. d) Deployment plan. 28. What are the five framework activities defined in a generic process framework for software engineering? a) Coding, debugging, testing, deploying, and maintenance. b) Communication, planning, modeling, construction, and deployment. c) Design, development, testing, implementation, and review. d) Planning, analyzing, implementing, testing, and supporting. 29. Which of the following is NOT an umbrella activity in software engineering? a) Coding. b) Risk management. c) Documentation. d) Quality assurance. 30. What role do modeling activities play in software engineering methods? a) They help in programming only. b) They provide descriptive techniques for understanding and designing software systems. c) They are optional steps in software design. d) They eliminate the need for communication with the customer. 31. How are software engineering tools designed to function within the development process? a) They are independent and don't interact with each other. b) They are integrated to allow information flow between tools.  c) They focus only on testing. d) They are optional and rarely used. 32. Which process flow executes each framework activity in sequence, starting with communication and ending with deployment? a) Iterative process flow b) Linear process flow c) Evolutionary process flow d) Parallel process flow 33. What is the key characteristic of an iterative process flow? a) It completes all activities in a single sequence. b) It repeats one or more activities before moving to the next. c) It executes activities in a circular manner. d) It executes multiple activities in parallel. 34. Which process flow is described as executing activities in a circular manner, leading to more complete software after each cycle? a) Parallel process flow b) Linear process flow c) Evolutionary process flow d) Iterative process flow 35. Which of the following is NOT an umbrella activity in software engineering? a) Software project tracking and control b) Software quality assurance c) Communication d) Risk management 36. What does software configuration management primarily deal with? a) Managing project progress  b) Ensuring product quality c) Managing the effects of change throughout the software process d) Defining criteria for work product reuse 37. Which prescriptive process model is known for being a systematic, sequential approach starting from customer requirements and ending with deployment? a) RAD Model b) Spiral Model c) Waterfall Model d) Prototype Model 38. Which process model allows for the parallel execution of one or more activities? a) Linear process flow b) Iterative process flow c) Evolutionary process flow d) Parallel process flow 39. What is another name for the Waterfall Process Model? a) Spiral Model b) Incremental Model c) Classic life cycle d) Evolutionary Model 40. In which order does the Waterfall Model progress? a) Randomly moving between different stages b) Starting from deployment and moving to construction c) Beginning with customer specification and ending with deployment d) Constantly repeating all stages 41. Which of the following is a key limitation of the Waterfall Model? a) It allows customers to use the product after each stage.  b) Requirements are assumed to be constant during development. c) It is designed for short, flexible projects. d) It easily adapts to changing customer needs. 42. When is it most appropriate to use the Waterfall Model? a) When the requirements are likely to change frequently. b) When the product definition is stable and requirements are fixed. c) For projects where rapid prototyping is needed. d) For projects with evolving technology. 43. What is one major consequence of the Waterfall Model’s sequential nature? a) Teams can work on all stages in parallel. b) Customers can immediately see and use partial systems. c) Surprises at the end can be expensive to resolve. d) The model allows for easy backtracking to previous stages. 44. Which limitation of the Waterfall Model leads to the issue of some teams sitting idle? a) The sequential nature of stages b) Lack of testing at early stages c) Complex changes in requirements d) Continuous customer involvement 45. What is NOT an ideal scenario for using the Waterfall Model? a) When the project is short b) When requirements are ambiguous c) When ample resources with required expertise are available d) When technology is well-understood 46. What does the Waterfall Model imply once the product is finished? a) Further changes can be easily implemented. b) Everything beyond completion is considered maintenance. c) The product must go through another round of development. d) Teams can continue working on new features. 47. What does the incremental model combine? a) Linear and evolutionary process flows b) Linear and parallel process flows c) Iterative and parallel process flows d) Linear and spiral process flows 48. How are deliverable “increments” produced in the incremental model? a) Through a single continuous development cycle b) By applying parallel sequences only c) By applying linear sequences in a staggered manner d) By evolving requirements during the final stage 49. Which of the following is an advantage of the incremental process model? a) Delivers a working version of the software early in the lifecycle b) Requires less testing and debugging c) Reduces the need for risk management d) Reduces the initial delivery cost significantly 50. Which of these is a disadvantage of the incremental model? a) It generates high initial delivery costs b) It requires minimal planning and design c) Total cost is higher than the Waterfall model  d) It cannot handle high-risk features and goals 51. When is the incremental model best suited? a) When requirements are ambiguous and evolving b) When the system requirements are clearly defined c) When the customer needs a complete system from the start d) When testing and debugging are minimal concerns 52. Which of the following is a key characteristic of the incremental model regarding customer feedback? a) The customer gives feedback only at the final stage b) The customer responds to each built increment c) The customer must wait until the entire system is complete d) Customer feedback is not a priority in this model 53. Why might the total cost of the incremental model be higher than the Waterfall model? a) Because it requires continuous customer feedback b) Due to frequent changes in scope and requirements c) Because it involves testing only at the final stage d) Due to the need for good planning and design upfront 54. What type of process model is the RAD model? a) Waterfall model b) Incremental model c) Spiral model d) Evolutionary model 55. How are components or functions developed in the RAD model? a) Sequentially, one after the other b) In parallel, like mini projects  c) After a full system design is complete d) Only after the customer provides feedback 56. What is one of the main advantages of the RAD model? a) It reduces customer feedback b) It increases reusability of components c) It extends development time d) It minimizes initial integration 57. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the RAD model? a) It requires minimal human resources for large projects b) It is suitable for high technical risk projects c) It requires a high level of commitment from both developers and customers d) It is best suited for long development timelines 58. When is the RAD model not appropriate? a) When customer feedback is not available b) When system components can be modularized c) When technical risks are high d) When rapid development is not required 59. When should the RAD model be used? a) When the system can be modularized and developed within 2-3 months b) When there are no automated code-generating tools available c) When there are limited human resources d) When the project cannot be completed in less than 6 months 60. What is required for successful use of the RAD model? a) High technical risks and use of new technology  b) Limited customer involvement c) Availability of designers for modeling and automated tools d) A project with minimal business knowledge requirements 61. What is the primary goal of building a prototype in the prototype process model? a) To finalize the design before coding b) To freeze requirements before coding starts c) To provide a system with overall functionality and understand the requirements d) To build a complete system 62. When is the prototype built in the prototype model? a) After the final system is designed b) After the system is coded c) Based on the currently known requirements d) After user feedback is collected 63. What is one of the key advantages of the prototype model? a) Users are passively involved in the development b) Errors can be detected much later in the process c) Quicker user feedback leads to better solutions d) It is only suitable for small systems 64. Why is prototyping attractive for large and complicated systems? a) Because it minimizes user interaction b) Because it does not require a manual process or existing system to determine requirements c) Because it eliminates the need for coding d) Because it provides the final product immediately 65. What is a disadvantage of the prototype model? a) It simplifies the system design  b) It can increase the complexity of the system as scope may expand beyond original plans c) It ensures that no functionality is missing d) It reduces user involvement in development 66. In what situation is the prototype model most suitable? a) When there is no interaction needed with end users b) When the desired system needs a lot of interaction with end users c) When the system can be developed without feedback d) When the requirements are frozen at the beginning 67. What is the role of user feedback in the prototype model? a) It is ignored in the final design b) It is collected only after the system is fully developed c) It is constantly incorporated into the prototype to result in a usable system d) It is only considered during deployment 68. Which types of systems are best suited for the prototype model? a) Systems with minimal interaction with end users b) Offline systems with minimal user feedback c) Online systems and web interfaces with a high amount of interaction with end users d) Systems that do not require human-computer interfaces with end users 69. Who originally proposed the Spiral Process Model? a) Barry Boehm b) Fred Brooks c) Alan Turing d) Ken Thompson 70. Which two models are combined in the Spiral Process Model?  a) Waterfall and Incremental models b) Waterfall and Prototyping models c) Agile and Waterfall models d) Incremental and Prototyping models 71. What is the Spiral Process Model mainly driven by? a) User feedback b) Project deadlines c) Risk analysis d) System complexity 72. What is the primary purpose of each pass through the spiral? a) To complete the entire system b) To adjust the project plan c) To finalize the system requirements d) To reduce project costs 73. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the Spiral Process Model? a) A linear approach to development b) A cyclic approach for incrementally growing a system’s definition and decreasing risk c) No interaction with stakeholders d) Complete software delivery in one iteration 74. What happens at the anchor point milestones in the Spiral Process Model? a) Code is delivered to the customer b) Stakeholder commitment to system solutions is ensured c) The project is terminated if risks are too high d) New features are added 75. How does the Spiral Process Model handle cost and schedule adjustments? a) Based on customer feedback after delivery b) Fixed throughout the development process c) Adjusted by project managers before the project starts d) Adjusted only at the end of the project 76. What kind of projects is the Spiral Process Model most suitable for? a) Small projects b) Large and mission-critical projects c) Projects with no risk d) Projects with very short deadlines 77. What is one of the main disadvantages of the Spiral Process Model? a) It is unsuitable for large projects b) It does not involve risk analysis c) It can be costly and requires highly specific expertise d) It does not allow changes during development 78. When should the Spiral Process Model be used? a) For small, low-risk projects b) When long-term project commitment is risky due to potential changes in priorities c) When the project scope is fixed and well-understood d) When the project is very short and simple 79. Which of the following is a key advantage of the Spiral Process Model? a) Low cost b) Strong approval and documentation control c) No need for user involvement  d) Works well for small projects 80. Which situation is not ideal for using the Spiral Process Model? a) Users are unsure of their needs b) Significant changes are expected c) The project has high technical risk d) The project is small with low complexity 81. What does the Concurrent Process Model allow the software team to represent? a) Linear elements of the process b) Iterative and concurrent elements of any process models c) Sequential elements of the waterfall model d) Complete system at the beginning 82. Which of the following is an example of an activity in the concurrent model? a) Coding b) Modeling c) Final deployment d) Product launch 83. In the Concurrent Process Model, what can happen to the state of activities, actions, or tasks? a) They occur only once in the development b) They exist concurrently but reside in different states c) They cannot change until the project is complete d) They are frozen after each iteration 84. What does COTS stand for in the context of component-based development? a) Component-oriented software systems b) Commercial off-the-shelf c) Customized open-source technology  d) Customer-oriented technical systems 85. What is a key characteristic of the component-based development model? a) It uses custom-built software components only b) It is linear in nature c) It incorporates many characteristics of the spiral model d) It avoids software reuse 86. Which of the following is a step in the component-based development model? a) Custom coding for all components b) Researching and evaluating available component-based products c) Skipping the integration phase d) Testing before integration 87. What is one benefit of the component-based development model? a) Decreased reusability b) Increased software reuse c) Fewer components to choose from d) Reduces the need for architecture design 88. What is a key focus of the testing phase in component-based development? a) Testing individual components separately b) Testing for visual design c) Comprehensive testing to ensure proper functionality of the integrated system d) Testing unrelated modules 89. What is the primary focus of Agile SDLC models? a) Strict adherence to initial requirements b) Rapid delivery of working software c) Minimal customer interaction  d) Complex design and long development cycles 90. How does Agile handle changes in requirements? a) Ignores them once development starts b) Welcomes them, even if they come late in the development process c) Rejects them after the design phase d) Delays addressing them until the next version 91. Which of the following is an advantage of the Agile Process Model? a) Minimal customer involvement b) Close, daily cooperation between business people and developers c) Long intervals between deliveries d) Little attention to technical excellence 92. What is a disadvantage of the Agile Process Model? a) Customers are not allowed to provide feedback b) Only senior programmers are capable of taking decisions c) Design and documentation are the primary focus d) It is not adaptable to changing circumstances 93. In Agile, who is constantly interacting with each other during the process? a) Only customers and testers b) Customers, developers, and testers c) Only developers d) Business owners and marketers 94. What happens if the process in software development is weak?  a) The end product will likely suffer b) The product will be enhanced c) The process will become more efficient d) The product will be faster to deliver 95. What is a danger of overreliance on the software development process? a) It speeds up delivery b) It makes the product more reliable c) It can hinder creativity d) It leads to innovation 96. What is one aspect that keeps creative people engaged in software engineering? a) Focusing only on the end product b) Deriving satisfaction from both the process and the end product c) Avoiding the process and focusing on outcomes d) Relying heavily on automation tools