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Test Questions / Study 1. The most common problem in using a bag valve resuscitator is: a) The inability to squeeze the bag effectively. b) Maintaining the proper ventilation rate. c) Premature recycling into the negative pressure phase d) Maint...

Test Questions / Study 1. The most common problem in using a bag valve resuscitator is: a) The inability to squeeze the bag effectively. b) Maintaining the proper ventilation rate. c) Premature recycling into the negative pressure phase d) Maintaining an adequate seal around the nose and mouth 2. You respond to a call for a "possible suicide." A 16-year-old female is locked in the basement. The patient's mother does not know if the patient has a weapon. Your first action should be to: a) Await law enforcement b) Accompany the mother into the basement c) Enter the basement and assess the patient d) Force open the door and restrain the patient 3. The term 'apneic' means: a) Absence of spontaneous breathing b) Difficulty in breathing c) Paralyzed in all four extremities d) Absence of pulse 4. What is the oxygen delivery device of choice for use by the EMT on a hypoxic C.O.P.D. patient? a) Nasal Cannula b) Nebulizer Mask c) Venturi Mask d) Non-Rebreather Mask 5. Syncope is: a) Absence of electric impulses in the heart. b) Fainting c) Irregular pulse. d) Ineffective cardiac function. 6. Communicable Diseases can be transmitted by: a) Direct Contact b) Indirect Contact c) Inhalation d) All of the Above 7. The major artery leaving the left ventricle of the heart is: a) Vena-Cava Artery. b) Carotid Artery c) Pulmonary Artery d) Aorta 8. According to standards of practice, you should only suction a patient: a) only while inserting the catheter. b) only while retracting the catheter. c) when inserting or retracting the catheter. d) only if the catheter has been lubricated with a water-soluble lubricant.  9. A victim of a C.V.A. should be transported: a) Supine b) Prone c) Semi-Fowler's Position d) Lateral Recumbent on the paralyzed side 10. The curve of an OPA is first inserted upside down, then rotated 180 degrees until the flange rests on the patient's lips or teeth. This is to: a) prevent the tongue from being pushed into the airway. b) prevent a gag-reflex in semi-conscious patients. c) prevent damaging the patient's teeth. d) All of the above. 11. The term bradycardia refers to: a) a pulse below 60. b) a pulse above 100. c) a cardiac standstill. d) an irregular pulse. 12. Oxygenated blood is carried to the myocardium by the: a) carotid arteries. b) coronary arteries. c) pulmonary arteries. d) carotid veins. 13. Which of the following is true regarding a MOLST form: a) It only precludes providing CPR and ventilations, but not other life sustaining measures. b) A MOLST is not valid in the pre-hospital setting (must have a NYS Pre-hospital DNR) c) The MOLST must be reviewed by a physician every 30 days to be valid. d) The form is strongly suggested to be on bright pink paper. 14. You are performing triage at the scene of an MCI. Which of the following patients would you treat first? a) 35 year old with severe chest pain, weak pulse, and shallow breathing. b) 10 year old female, left leg spurting bright red blood. c) 39 year old in the first phase of labor. d) Ambulatory patient with 2nd degree burns on both legs. 15. You arrive on the scene to find an overturned tanker spilling clear liquid onto the pavement. A passenger car is trapped under the cab of the truck. The placards are not visible. You should: a) Triage all patients and request additional resources. b) Call the HAZMAT scene and remain outside the perimeter of the incident. c) Attempt to approach the truck to locate the placards if you feel it is safe to do so. d) Taste a small sample of the liquid (manufacturers usually put something in toxic chemicals to make them taste bad).  16. You are administering CPR to a patient in a facility when a staff member tells you they have an active DNR. You should: a) Stop CPR. b) Continue CPR until the document can be validated. c) Continue CPR only if it was a witnessed arrest (in presence of RN or EMT) d) Continue CPR until directed by physician on scene or at the hospital pronounces the patient dead. 17. An injury to the forearm would be considered: a) proximal to the elbow. b) distal to the elbow. c) inferior to the elbow. d) lateral to the elbow. 18. If you break your elbow, what bone have you broken? a) Radius b) Ulna c) Humerus d) Carpal 19. You arrive at the scene of a medical emergency to find an unconscious patient surrounded by their family. You should: a) Ask the family to leave so you and your partner can work on the patient without HIPAA concerns. b) Ask the family to assist in transporting the patient. c) Get a medical history. d) Ask for consent to treat the patient. 20. Which of the following would you consider to be a contraindication for placing a nasopharyngeal airway? a) Conscious b) Intact Gag Reflex c) Cerebrospinal Fluid draining from the nose and mouth d) All of the Above 21. How many respirations per minute would you administer while giving ventilations with a pocket mask? a) 6 - 8 breaths / minute b) 10 - 12 breaths / minute c) 14 - 16 breaths / minute d) 18 - 20 breaths / minute 22. The superior aspect of the lung is called the: a) Apex b) Base c) Alveoli d) Trachea 23. How long should you suction a breathing patient for: a) 0-5 Seconds b) 10-15 Seconds c) 15-25 Seconds d) 25-35 Seconds  24. Your patient is a 52-year-old female experiencing diffuse epigastric pain. She is confused & disoriented, B/P: 86/40, Pulse: 100 weak, respirations 22 shallow, lungs show basilar rales. She has nitroglycerin prescribed for chest pain. Treatment of this patient would include: a) High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask b) Assist in the self-administration of nitroglycerin c) Albuterol via nebulizer d) All of the above 25. Substernal chest pain that subsides with rest or vasodilators is probably caused from: a) Transischemic Attack b) Angina Pectoris c) Myocardial Infarction d) Cerebrovascular Accident 26. What is the odor associated with cyanide? a) Sweet b) Almonds c) Rotten Eggs d) There is no odor 27. NYS law specifying EMS Certification requirements is: a) Part 800. b) EMT Act of 1973 c) Public Health Law d) Emergency Services Code 28. How many bones are in the human body? a) 106 b) 206 c) 306 d) 506 29. Which of the following conditions could render a Capillary Refill test ineffective? a) Heat Exhaustion b) Internal Hemorrhage c) Cold Weather d) Cardiogenic shock 30. The knee is said to be _______ to the ankle. a) proximal b) distal c) medial d) lateral  31. You are assessing a patient who seems unresponsive but responds to a sternal rub. This patient would be classified on the AVPU scale as: a) "A" b) "V" c) "P" d) "U" 32. Treatment of a patient in asystole would include: a) High Flow Oxygen b) Self-administration of Nitroglycerin. c) Transport in Position of Comfort d) C.P.R. 33. You are called to a skid-row area of town for a 'man-down'. You suspect a narcotic drug overdose. This type of patient most often dies of: a) stroke b) circulatory collapse c) respiratory arrest d) vasodilation 34. The role of the EMS Provider is to do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Perform Primary Assessment b) Provide initial resuscitation c) Provide definitive diagnosis d) Arrange for patient transportation 35. Which of the following conditions does not cause distended neck veins? a) Tension Pneumothorax b) Congestive Heart Failure c) Acute Myocardial Infarction d) Pericardial Tamponade 36. Leaving a patient before completing care or transferring care to a person with less training is called: a) Negligence b) Abandonment c) Ineffective Transference d) Malpractice 37. The face is said to be: a) anterior. b) posterior. c) inferior. d) superior. 38. When do you treat life-threatening injuries found in the primary survey? a) After you make a transport decision. b) During the secondary assessment. c) As soon as you find them. d) Prior to transport. 39. When a conscious, alert adult gives you permission to render care after having their condition and consequences of refusal explained, you have been given: a) Informed Consent. b) Actual Consent. c) Implied Consent. d) Validated Consent. 40. Pulmonary edema, pink frothy sputum, distended neck veins, and peripheral edema are signs of: a) myocardial infarction. b) congestive heart failure. c) cerebrovascular accident d) All of the above 41. A 52-year-old patient is complaining of substernal chest pain. She claims that the pain became worse after she had taken a new brand of aspirin for sudden onset of indigestion pain an hour ago. Her pulse is 110 weak, B/P: 96/40, she is diaphoretic and pale, respirations are 20 and normal. She is also complaining of nausea and diffuse pain in the neck and shoulder area. You should treat for: a) anaphylactic shock b) ingested poisoning c) acute myocardial infarction d) gastrointestinal distress 42. Sudden dilation of the blood vessels causing the blood pressure to fall is called: a) Hypovolemic shock b) Metabolic shock c) Distributive shock d) Cardiogenic shock 43. The disease characterized by buildup of calcium deposits on the arterial walls is: a) arteriosclerosis b) atherosclerosis c) atelectasis d) anisocoria 44. You are responding to a 'man-down' call. You approach a controlled intersection and are faced with a red light in your direction and need to pass traffic and turn right onto the cross street. You should: a) call dispatch and report a delayed response. b) pull into the right lane with your warning devices on and wait for the traffic to clear. c) use your siren and air horn to push the traffic in the lane in front of you through the intersection so you can safely navigate through. d) carefully pass traffic on the left, have your partner use hand signals to hold traffic on your right, and turn right in front of stopped traffic. 45. On which of the following patients can you assume implied consent? a) Verbally responsive adult. b) Patient with down syndrome. c) 17 Year-old in the presence of his coach. d) All of the Above 46. Another name for the left-lateral position is the: a) Semi-fowler's b) Recovery position c) Trendelenberg d) Dorsal recumbent position 47. The patient who makes a crowing noise (stridor) while attempting to inhale has a: a) severe airway obstruction with poor air exchange b) mild airway obstruction with acceptable air exchange c) mild airway obstruction with poor air exchange d) severe airway obstruction with no air exchange 48. All of the following signs are found in a person in cardiac arrest except that: a) no sound can be heard over the heart. b) the pulse cannot be felt in the neck or the groin. c) the pupils of the eyes are constricted. d) the person is not breathing. 49. All of the following are contraindications for administration of nitroglycerine except: a) dose of nitroglycerine administered in the past (5) minutes b) systolic blood pressure < 120 mmHg c) patient’s heart rate is less than 60 d) two doses have already been administered 50. During the movement that results from pushing the range of a joint beyond its normal limits, ligaments may be torn. What is the name for this type of injury? a) Fracture b) Strain c) Dislocation d) Sprain 51. What is the EMT’s best defense in the event of a lawsuit? a) Proficiency b) Current Certification c) Complete knowledge of all laws. d) Proper documentation of all assessments and treatments. 52. You arrive on the scene of an auto accident to find a car had hit a telephone pole. The pole broke in half and live electrical wires are on the car. You should first: a) Set up flares. b) Call the utility company to shut off the power. c) Remove wires with a non-conductive instrument (wooden stick). d) Instruct passengers to stay in the vehicle and not to touch anything metal. 53. After immobilizing a painful, swollen, deformed collarbone, your NEXT priority would be to: a) Check to see that the bone ends are approximated b) Ask the patient if the splint is comfortable c) Check the radial Pulse d) Check the airway 54. You are called to a rural home by the mother of a 4-year-old girl. Upon arrival, you begin to treat for a severe dog bite wound on the girl’s arm when her father comes into the house and demands you discontinue treatment and leave. The mother asks you to continue care. Faced with this situation, you should: a) continue care of the girl in her mother’s presence. b) immediately cease care as per the father’s direction c) separate the parents and try to come to consensus on the girl’s treatment d) call child protective services for emergent permission to treat the child. 55. You are ventilating a patient using a bag-valve-mask. They show no obvious signs of injury. You would classify this patient on a C.U.P.S. scale as a: a) "C" b) "U" c) "P" d) "S" 56. The spleen lies primarily in what quadrant? a) Upper right b) Upper left c) Lower right d) Lower left 57. How many vertebrae comprise the spinal column? a) 12 b) 24 c) 33 d) 36 58. Which of the following structures is found in all of the abdominal quadrants? a) Liver b) Stomach c) Bladder d) Colon 59. Polyuria, polydipsia, and altered mental status are all indicators of: a) Epilepsy b) Diabetes Mellitus c) Melena d) Cancer 60. Contraindications of administering aspirin to a suspected myocardial infarction patient include: a) took four aspirin for this incident b) gastrointestinal bleeding c) NSAID Allergy d) All of the Above 61. Constricted pupils are indicative of: a) Hypovolemia b) Alcohol Abuse c) Narcotic Abuse d) Cerebrovascular Accident 62. You are treating a two-year-old patient who has been sick for several days. She presents with a high fever, muffled voice, and drooling. Your first action should be to: a) insert an oropharyngeal airway. b) suction saliva from the oropharynx. c) administer high flow oxygen using the blow-by method. d) open and inspect the child’s mouth and assess for swelling of the child’s mouth and airway. 63. What is the immediate reaction of administering glucose to a hyperglycemia patient? a) Their symptoms will exacerbate. b) It will eliminate their symptoms. c) The patient will suddenly "wake-up". d) There is no immediate reaction. 64. As the head of a newborn emerges in a normal cephalic birth, the EMT should: a) exert gentle pressure on the head. b) insert a gloved hand relieve vaginal pressure on the baby’s head. c) tell mom to push hard to expel the baby. d) pull gently on the head and rotate the baby. 65. The indicators of heat stroke include: a) flushed face and hot, dry skin. b) unconscious, weak pulse, and diaphoresis. c) abdominal cramps, bounding pulse, and normal skin temperature. d) pale, moist skin, weak pulse. 66. The first objective in the care of any burn is to: a) prevent infection. b) prevent hypothermia. c) stop the burning process. d) relieve pain. 67. According to NYS Protocol: when caring for an amputation you should: a) wrap the amputated part in saline moistened dressing and cover the stump with a dry dressing. b) wrap the amputated part in a dry dressing and cover the stump with a saline moistened dressing. c) wrap the amputated part in a dry dressing and cover the stump with a dry dressing. d) wrap the amputated part in a saline moistened dressing and cover the stump with a saline moistened dressing. 68. You are treating an isolated laceration of the lower leg that cannot be controlled by direct pressure, pressure bandage and elevation. According to NYS Protocol, you should: a) place a tourniquet 2-3" distal to the wound. b) place a tourniquet 2-3" proximal to the wound. c) place a tourniquet high on the limb. d) place a tourniquet above and below the wound. 69. You would insert a gloved hand into the vagina of a patient who is suffering: a) Limb presentation b) Prolapsed cord c) Both A & B are true d) None of the above. 70. If resistance is met while inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, you should first: a) remove and reattempt in the other nostril. b) apply gentle, even pressure until the flange rests on the nostril. c) remove excess lubricant and reattempt in the same nostril. d) select a nasopharyngeal airway at least two sizes smaller the first. 71. Kussmaul respirations (air hunger) results from: a) the body trying to lower the blood glucose level. b) the body trying to increase the blood oxygen level. c) the body trying to increase the systemic carbon dioxide level. d) the body trying to decrease the systemic carbon dioxide level. 72. Shock due to fluid or blood loss: a) Cariogenic shock b) Metabolic Shock c) Hypovolemic Shock d) Septic Shock 73. Which of the following is a sign of a skull fracture? a) Hypoperfusion (shock) b) Cerebrospinal fluid leaking from the ears c) Decreasing blood pressure d) Neurogenic shock 74. Which areas of the spinal column are most susceptible to injury? a) Cervical & Thoracic b) Thoracic & Lumbar c) Lumbar & Cervical d) Lumbar & Sacral 75. One rescuer CPR should be conducted: a) 30 compressions to 2 breaths at the rate of 80-100 per minute. b) 30 compressions to 2 breaths at the rate of at least 100 per minute. c) 15 compressions to 2 breaths at the rate of 80-100 per minute. d) 15 compressions to 2 breaths at the rate of at least 100 per minute. 76. You are treating an 18-year-old male who was injured on the football field. When you arrive, he presents with bright red frothing from the mouth. He is most likely suffering from: a) Ruptured Spleen. b) GI Bleeding c) Lung Damage d) Ruptured Liver 77. You are treating a patient with 3rd-degree burns over most of their chest, abdomen, groin, and the front of the left thigh. You would estimate the percentage of body surface area burned to be: a) 18% b) 24% c) 28% d) 32% 78. You are required to straighten an injured limb under which of the following circumstances? a) Angulated long-bone fracture, where there is no distal pulse. b) Joint injury, where there is a lack of sensation in the limb. c) Both A & B are true. d) You must always splint in the position found. 79. You arrive on the scene to find a 48-year-old man who fell 22' from a ladder. He is complaining of head, neck, and back pain. You should: a) conduct a secondary assessment on scene and transport when injuries are stabilized. b) conduct a secondary assessment on scene and provide treatments en-route. c) immediately initiate transport without assessment, complete all assessments and treatments while en-route. d) assess and address life-threatening injuries on-scene and complete the secondary assessment and other treatments en-route. 80. A late sign of shock includes: a) Tachycardia b) Diaphoresis c) Altered Mental Status d) Nausea 81. You are dispatched to an attempted suicide. Upon arrival, you find a 19-year-old patient, obviously distraught, with superficial wounds to both wrists. You should: a) advise the patient that suicide is illegal and he may be arrested. b) ask the patient why he attempted suicide and offer alternative ways to deal with his problems. c) encourage the patient to vent their feelings to you. d) treat injuries and reassure the patient while transporting.  82. After a normal delivery, you notice excessive bleeding from the birth canal. You should: a) pack sterile gauze into the vaginal opening to tamponade the bleeding. b) elevate the mother's legs and massage the uterine fundus. c) Elevate the mother's head and shoulders, transport immediately. d) place towels down and transport as soon as is practical. 83. According to NYS Protocol, it is acceptable to administer fluids by mouth to the conscious victims of: a) altered mental status b) heat exhaustion c) A & B are both true d) You are not permitted to administer fluids without contacting medical control. 84. As per NYS Protocol, which of the following medications can an EMT administer as a standing order? a) Albuterol b) Glucose c) Epinephrine d) All of the above 85. The "Disability" section of the expanded primary survey is actually a check for? a) muscular function b) neurological function c) osteopathic function d) parasympathetic function 86. Which of the following is FALSE regarding postictal patients? a) Postictal patients are prone to anatomical airway obstructions. b) Postictal patients should be assessed for injuries sustained during the seizure. c) Postictal patients should be administered sublingual glucose as the seizure is likely diabetic related. d) Postictal patients should receive oxygen whether or not they demonstrate signs and symptoms of hypoxia. 87. In which order should an EMT provide respiratory resuscitation to an apneic neonate with an airway obstruction following delivery? (Use common sense!) a) Stimulate, suction, positive pressure resuscitation. b) Suction, stimulate, positive pressure resuscitation. c) Suction, cut cord, stimulate, positive pressure resuscitation. d) Positive pressure resuscitation, stimulate, cut cord. 88. What type of shock is associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy? a) Septic Shock b) Hypovolemic Shock c) Metabolic Shock d) Prenatal Shock 89. Hyperglycemia is often mistaken for: a) Epilepsy b) Anaphylaxis c) Myocardial Infarction d) Excessive Alcohol Intake  90. What kind of seizure involved only one part of the body? a) Focal Motor Seizures b) Grand Mal Seizures c) Tonic Clonic Seizures d) Status Epilepticus 91. Adults should perform cardiac compressions at the rate of: a) 60-80 per minute b) 80-100 per minute c) 100-120 per minute d) 120-140 per minute 92. Narrowing pulse pressure in the trauma patient indicates: a) hypotension b) hypertension c) bradycardia d) pericardial tamponade 93. Battles sign is indicative of: a) Stroke b) Concussion c) Basilar skull fracture d) Cervical spine injury 94. The average adult has ___ liters of blood. a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12 95. A consequence of aspirating vomitus in the semiconscious, unconscious, or drunken patient is: a) laryngospasm b) pulmonary abscess c) destruction of lung tissue from gastric tissue d) All of the above 96. When providing 2-person CPR, you should reassess for pulse and breathing: a) every 30 seconds b) every minute c) every time you switch positions with your partner d) you should not reassess pulse and breathing 97. Select the correct statement regarding abdominal aortic aneurysms: a) Onset of pain will be gradual and will come and go. b) Peripheral pulses / blood pressures may be different c) Abdominal aneurysms are often mistaken for indigestion. d) Nitroglycerine will alleviate symptoms in the short term. 98. Loss of voice, severe airway obstruction, and air leakage into the soft tissue of the neck can result from an injury to the: a) Epiglottis b) Nasopharynx c) Esophagus d) Trachea 99. A young female was filling the gas tank on her lawnmower when it burst into flames. Upon your arrival, you find her conscious and alert. She has a hoarse voice and burns and blisters on her face and both arms. You would consider her burns to be: a) minor b) moderate c) critical d) chemical 100.Immediately after providing a shock you should: a) analyze the heart to see if it worked b) provide (2) breaths c) provide compressions d) perform a foreign body check 101.The recommended depth for adult chest compressions should be: a) at least 1.5 inches. b) at least 2 inches. c) at least 3 inches. d) half the depth of the chest. 102.You are treating an 8-year-old child with a partial airway obstruction. According to NYS Protocol, you should: a) place the child on a non-rebreather mask at 12-15 lpm. b) obtain a baseline set of vital signs (BP, pulse, O2 saturation, etc.) including lung sounds. c) perform the Heimlich maneuver. d) avoid upsetting the child. 103.You respond to a motor vehicle crash where a 25-year-old male crashed his vehicle into a bridge abutment. Your patient is restrained, however, the passenger was unrestrained and died upon impact. He is complaining of upper right quadrant pain radiating up to his right shoulder. Vital signs are: B/P: 96/60, Pulse: 110 weak, and respirations 26 shallow. He is likely suffering from a: a) Lacerated Liver b) Contused Kidney c) Ruptured Spleen d) Hemothorax 104.Two-person CPR on an infant should be performed at a ratio of: a) 5:1 b) 15:1 c) 15:2 d) 30:2 105.You are treating a patient who presents with a sucking chest wound and frothy bright red blood at the mouth. About 10 minutes after sealing the chest wall, you notice that the patient's breathing difficulty becomes much worse. At this point you should: a) immediately place the patient on the uninjured side. b) lift the corner of the dressing c) administer positive pressure ventilation immediately d) administer pure oxygen to aid respiration. 106.A 'crackling' sensation directly under the skin found upon palpation of the chest wall in a chest trauma patient indicates: a) hemothorax b) pericardial tamponade c) subcutaneous emphysema d) flail chest 107.Which type of burn is characterized by the least amount of pain? a) First degree b) Second degree c) Third degree d) Any sunburn 108.Which of the following vital signs indicates the development of intracranial pressure following a head trauma? a) Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse rate b) Increased blood pressure, and pulse rate c) Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse rate d) Decreased blood pressure and pulse rate 109.A pulse check for an unresponsive patient should last for no more than ____ seconds. a) 3 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20 110. As per NYS Protocol, burns over 10% of the body should be dressed with: a) moist sterile dressings b) dry sterile dressings c) tightly to reduce swelling d) should not be dressed to allow them to breathe