set A PPSC JEE 08 Sept 2024.pdf

1 Looping occurs when a) vertical temperature gradient is super adiabatic b) temperature gradient is negative c) temperature gradient is positive d) all of the above 2 Ozone protects the earth from________ a) sound waves b) UV radiation c) visible radiation...

1 Looping occurs when a) vertical temperature gradient is super adiabatic b) temperature gradient is negative c) temperature gradient is positive d) all of the above 2 Ozone protects the earth from________ a) sound waves b) UV radiation c) visible radiation d) greenhouse effect 3 Acid rain is caused by the oxides of _________ a) phosphorus and carbon b) sulphur and nitrogen c) sulphur and phosphorus d) nitrogen and carbon 4 Electrostatic precipitator is used for control of a) sulphur dioxide b) particulate matter c) carbon monoxide d) nitrogen oxides 5 Food waste has typical moisture content of _____ % a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 80 6 Which among the following wastes has higher heat value when compared to the other wastes given below? a) food waste b) plastics c) paper d) garden waste 7 Which type of economy is best in terms of sustainability a) circular d) linear c) non-linear d) All of the above 8 Which method is suitable for hazardous solid waste management/treatment a) high temperature incineration b) composting c) biological treatment d) open dumping 9 Which among the following processes does not require oxygen supply? a) incineration b) gasification c) pyrolysis d) composting JEE-2024 A-2  10 Which is the correct hierarchy in MSW management (best to the least preferred) a) Waste prevention – recycling - waste processing – landfill b) Recycling- waste minimisation – waste reuse – waste processing- landfill c) Landfill – waste minimisation – waste recycling – waste processing d) Landfill – waste recycling – waste minimisation – waste processing 11 Eutrophication is a) improved quality of water in lakes b) a process in carbon cycle c) accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies d) accumulation of heavy metals in water bodies 12 50 g of moist municipal solid waste was dried in an oven and after drying, the residue was found to be 40 g. Moisture content of this solid waste is ____ % a) 80 b) 20 c) 40 d) 50 13 Groundwater is a) Free from suspended solids but contains dissolved solids b) Free from harmful bacteria but may contain harmless bacteria c) Free from floating impurities but may have suspended solids d) Free from dissolved solids but may have colloidal solids 14 The zone of aeration in ground profile does not include a) capillary zone b) soil water zone c) intermediate zone d) saturation zone 15 Dupuit’s assumptions are valid for a) artesian aquifer b) confined aquifer c) leaky aquifer d) unconfined aquifer 16 Which among the following multilateral convention seeks to protect the environment and human health from Persistent Organic Pollutants? a) Bonn Convention b) Stockholm Convention c) Rotterdam Convention d) Basel Convention 17 Tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels is known as: a) bioremediation b) biomagnification c) bioconcentration d) bioaccumulation JEE-2024 A-3  18 Which of the following UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) ensures availability of water and sanitation for all? a) SDG 1 b) SDG 4 c) SDG 6 d) SDG 10 19 The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a given environment is called: a) biotic potential b) carrying capacity c) environmental resistance d) population size 20 Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? a) natural gas b) oil c) petroleum d) coal 21 Exposure to excessive noise cannot cause a) hearing impairment b) respiratory disease c) rise in blood pressure d) insomnia 22 In stabilization ponds, the ineffective biological agent is a) Green algae b) Protozoans c) Fungi d) Virus 23 The most important type of species involved in the degradation of organic matter in the case of Biological Treatment Processes is a) Chemo-heterotrophs b) Photo-heterotrophs c) Photoautotrophs d) Chemo-autotrophs 24 Substrate dependent rate of growth is typically modeled using? a) First order kinetics b) Zero order kinetics c) Monod kinetics d) Second order 25 The correct sequence in anaerobic treatment process is: a) Acidogenesis→Acetogenesis→Methanogenesis→ Hydrolysis b) Hydrolysis→Acetogenesis→Acidogenesis→Methanogenesis c) Hydrolysis →Acidogenesis→Acetogenesis→Methanogenesis d) Acetogenesis→Acidogenesis→Methanogenesis→ Hydrolysis JEE-2024 A-4  26 In a batch system, declining bacterial growth rate is observed in a) Lag phase b) Stationary phase c) Decay phase d) Log phase 27 Coagulants used in water treatment function better when the raw water is a) Acidic b) Alkaline c) Neutral d) Both 'a' and 'c' 28 If the chlorine fed and chlorine demand of water is 1.5mg/l and 1.3mg/l respectively, theresidual chlorine in g/m³ is a) 0.2 b) 20 c) 2 d) 0.02 29 In Activated sludge process, the F/M ratio should range between a) 0.2 -0.4 b) 0.8-1.0 c) 0.6-0.8 d) 0.4-0.6 30 Hardness of water can be removed by boiling if it is due to a) Calcium sulfate b) Magnesium sulfate c) Calcium chloride d) Calcium bicarbonate 31 If pan-evaporation is denoted by Ep and actual evaporation by E, then a) Ep > E b) E > E p c) E = Ep d) E ≥ Ep 32 A rock formation that contains water but is not capable of transmitting it in significance amounts, is known as a) Isotropic b) Intrusive c) Aquitard d) Aquiclude 33 Under same conditions, which of the following shapes of surface water will give highest rate of evaporation a) Flat water surface b) Convex water surface c) Concave water surface d) Independent of shape of water surface JEE-2024 A-5  34 The coldest region of the atmosphere is a) Troposphere b) Thermosphere c) Stratosphere d) Mesosphere 35 The following is not a greenhouse gas a) Carbon dioxide b) Ozone c) Methane d) SO2 36 Ringelmann’s scale is used to measure a) Concentration of oxides of nitrogen b) Concentration of oxides of sulphur c) Smoke Density d) Smoke velocity 37 Methemoglobinemia disease is caused in children by: a) Conversion of nitrites to nitrates b) Conversion of nitrates to nitrites c) Reaction between haemoglobin and carbon dioxide d) Both 'a' & 'c' 38 Which of the following temperature is optimum for incinerators? a) 900-1100°C b) 100-110°C c) 90-110°C d) 100-11000°C 39 Collection system recommended at the areas with high generation rate is a) Curb service b) Stationary container system c) Haul container system d) Setout setback service 40 In Ecology study of a group of organisms is called: a) Autotrophic b) Synecology c) Autecology d) Heterotrophic 41 Biosphere is made of __________. a) Atmosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Lithosphere d) All of the above 42 The albedo of the earth (approximate) is a) 0.10 b) 0.50 c) 0.31 d) 0.60 JEE-2024 A-6  43 According to the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (Central Pollution Control Board, Government of India, notification 2009), which of the following pollutants does not have annual average standard? a) SO2 b) NO2 c) CO d) PM10 44 Which of the following methods is commonly used to measure Oxides of nitrogen? a) Chemiluminescence b) Non-dispersive infrared spectroscopy c) Ultraviolet Fluorescence d) Gravimetric 45 Which of the following technologies are NOT employed in industries to remove particulate matter? a) Cyclone separators b) Electrostatic precipitator c) Fabric filters d) Flue gas desulfurization devices 46 Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant? a) Carbon Monoxide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Ozone d) None of the above 47 Which of the following does not result in 'SMOG'? a) Smoke b) CO2 c) PM2.5 d) Ozone 48 Which of the following statements best describes the impact of cold-start emissions in internal combustion engines? a) Cold-start emissions are negligible and have no significant impact on overall vehicle emissions. b) During cold starts, the engine operates inefficiently, leading to higher emissions of carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, and nitrogen oxides before the catalytic converter reaches its optimal operating temperature. c) Cold-start emissions are primarily composed of water vapour and do not contribute to air pollution. d) Engines with larger displacements are always less affected by cold-start emissions. 49 How does a Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF) typically regenerate itself to avoid clogging? a) By releasing trapped particulates back into the atmosphere after a certain period. b) By heating the trapped soot to a high temperature, turning it into carbon dioxide and ash. c) By using a liquid solvent to dissolve the particulates. d) By mechanically shaking the filter to dislodge the soot particles. JEE-2024 A-7  50 Which alternative fuel can be produced through the process of electrolysis using renewable energy sources a) Biodiesel b) Compressed natural gas c) Ethanol d) Hydrogen 51 Which of the following statements is true? a) Radiation inversions occur only during the day, while subsidence inversions occur only at night b) Radiation inversions are found at only high altitudes, while subsidence inversions are near the surface. c) Radiation inversions occur only in winter, while subsidence inversions occur only in summer. d) Radiation inversions typically occur at night due to surface cooling, while subsidence inversions occur due to the sinking of air in high-pressure systems. 52 Which of the following is NOT a factor used to determine Pasquill stability classes? a) Wind speed b) Time of day c) Relative humidity d) Solar radiation 53 Which of the following is commonly used as a reductant in Selective Catalytic Reduction systems to reduce NOx emissions? a) Methane b) Carbon Sulphide c) Ammonia d) Carbon Monoxide 54 Which of the following methods is used to measure Sulphur dioxide? a) Improved West and Gaeke b) Tapered Oscillatory Microbalance c) Tapered Microbalance d) Gravimetric 55 Which of the following is not included in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards as per the 2009 notification by the Central Pollution Control Board, Government of India? a) Carbon Dioxide b) Carbon Monoxide c) Lead d) Nickel 56 Which of the following correctly ranks the main sources of Earth's freshwater from largest to smallest? a) Rivers and lakes, groundwater, glaciers and ice caps, atmospheric water vapour b) Glaciers and ice caps, groundwater, rivers and lakes, atmospheric water vapour c) Groundwater, glaciers and ice caps, atmospheric water vapour, rivers and lakes d) Atmospheric water vapour, glaciers and ice caps, groundwater, rivers and lakes JEE-2024 A-8  57 What is the primary component of natural gas a) Methane b) Octane c) Hexane d) Butane 58 Which of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India is NOT true? a) The NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, with the objective of providing a specialized forum for the effective and expeditious disposal of environmental cases. b) The NGT has the authority to hear cases related to the enforcement of environmental laws and the protection of the environment, but it does not have the power to award compensation for environmental damage. c) The NGT has a total of five places of sitting namely: Bhopal, Pune, New Delhi, Kolkata, and Chennai, amongst which, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting. d) NGT Act 2010 draws inspiration from the India's constitutional provision of Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment. 59 Which of the following steps is typically performed first in the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process? a) Screening b) Scoping c) Public consultation d) Mitigation measures 60 Which international treaty was established to address and mitigate the depletion of the ozone layer? a) The Kyoto Protocol b) The Paris Agreement c) The Montreal Protocol d) The Rio Declaration 61 Which of the following species is classified as Critically Endangered in India? a) Bengal Tiger b) Indian Elephant c) Great Indian Bustard d) Nilgiri Langur 62 According to Darcy's Law, if the hydraulic gradient increases while the hydraulic conductivity and cross-sectional area remain constant, what happens to the volumetric flow rate? a) It decreases b) It remains constant c) It increases d) It becomes zero 63 The distance between rain gauges in a network should be based on: a) The size of the area and its rainfall variability b) The population density c) The number of weather stations d) The average temperature of the area JEE-2024 A-9  64 If a rainfall frequency analysis shows that the 5-year return period rainfall is 140 mm and the 10-year return period rainfall is 170 mm, what is the average recurrence interval for 155 mm of rainfall assuming linear interpolation? a) 6 years b) 7.5 years c) 8 years d) 9 years 65 Given a total runoff of 500 m³ and a base flow contribution of 150 m³, what is the direct runoff volume? a) 150 m³ b) 250 m³ c) 350 m³ d) 500 m³ 66 Which method is commonly used to derive a synthetic unit hydrograph? a) Rational method b) Snyder's method c) Thiessen polygon method d) Isohyetal method 67 Which statistical test is used for checking the consistency of rainfall records? a) Chi-square test b) Student's t-test c) Double mass curve d) ANOVA 68 Which of the following factors can influence infiltration rates? a) Soil texture b) Vegetation cover c) Soil moisture content d) All of the above 69 What is the primary purpose of a lysimeter? a) To measure rainfall b) To measure soil moisture content c) To measure actual evapotranspiration d) To measure runoff 70 Consider an unconfined aquifer with a hydraulic conductivity of 25 m/day and a gradient of 0.005. The aquifer is 10 meters thick and 500 meters wide. Calculate the volumetric flow rate through the aquifer. a) 625 m³/day b) 1,250 m³/day c) 6,250 m³/day d) 12,500 m³/day 71 What is the purpose of the dead storage zone in a reservoir? a) To store water for irrigation b) To store water for power generation c) To collect sediment and debris d) To supply drinking water JEE-2024 A-10  72 What does a benefit-cost analysis in flood control evaluate? a) The engineering feasibility of a flood control project b) The environmental impact of a flood control project c) The economic efficiency of a flood control project d) The social acceptance of a flood control project 73 In a steady flow towards a fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer, what is the shape of the water table or piezometric surface? a) Linear b) Parabolic c) Hyperbolic d) Radial 74 Which type of pump is commonly used in tube wells to lift water from greater depths? a) Centrifugal pump b) Submersible pump c) Jet pump d) Diaphragm pump 75 If the potential evaporation from a lake is measured to be 5 mm/day, what is the total volume of water evaporated from a 1-hectare lake in one day? (1ha=10,000 m²) a) 500 m³ b) 50 m³ c) 5 m³ d) 1,000 m³ 76 A reservoir has a capacity of 10 million cubic meters and experiences a sedimentation rate of 0.1 million cubic meters per year. What will be the effective storage capacity after 50 years? a) 5 million m³ b) 7.5 million m³ c) 8 million m³ d) 10 million m³ 77 Which of the following is a key limitation of using the Rational Method for runoff estimation? a) It requires complex computational tools b) It is applicable only to large watersheds c) It assumes a uniform rainfall intensity over the entire watershed d) It does not account for land use changes 78 In semi-arid regions, which of the following methods for estimating evapotranspiration is most likely to introduce significant errors due to the method's sensitivity to local microclimatic variations? a) Penman-Monteith equation, which relies on detailed climate data including temperature, humidity, wind speed, and solar radiation b) Blaney-Criddle method, which is based on temperature and daylight hours c) Pan evaporation method, where a pan coefficient is applied to measured pan evaporation rates d) Thornthwaite method, which estimates ET based on temperature alone JEE-2024 A-11  79 Which of the following cannot be considered as a part of Integrated solid waste principles: a) Waste maximization at source b) Material recovery and recycling c) Volume reduction before disposal d) Database management 80 The proportionate hydraulic mean depth of circular channel is the ratio of a) area / proportional perimeter b) proportional perimeter/ area c) proportional area/ proportional perimeter d) proportional perimeter/ proportional area 81 Size reduction in municipal solid waste can be achieved by a) Shredders b) Glass Crushers c) Wood Grinders d) All of the above 82 Waste is classified by the USEPA as Hazardous waste if it exhibits the following characteristics: a) Corrosivity, Ignitability, Reactivity, Toxicity, Carcinogenicity b) Non-corrosive, Ignitability, Reactivity, Toxicity, Carcinogenicity c) Non-corrosive, Ignitability, Non-reactivity, Toxicity, Carcinogenicity d) Corrosivity, Ignitability, Reactivity, Non-toxic, Carcinogenicity 83 In the industrial waste, following statement is not true: a) Solid waste is generated from small and large industries b) It is highly heterogeneous in nature c) Both hazardous and non-hazardous components are found d) Only hazardous component is found in Industrial waste 84 The activated sludge process for wastewater treatment is a) an aerobic and biological treatment system b) an anaerobic and biological treatment system c) a chemical and biological treatment system d) a mechanical and biological treatment system 85 Find the correct statement for Upflow Anaerobic Sludge Blanket (USAB) reactor a) the wastewater is introduced at the top of the reactor b) the wastewater is introduced at the bottom of the reactor c) the wastewater is introduced at the left side of the reactor d) the wastewater is introduced at the right side of the reactor 86 The detection of radioactive wastes can be done by a) UV Visible Spectrophotometer b) Thermo luminescent dosimeter (TLD) c) Simple spectrophotometer d) None of the above JEE-2024 A-12  87 Peak factor for contributory population above 7,50,000 can be taken as: a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0 88 The permissible maximum velocity for concrete sewer pipe should be in the range of (m/sec.): a) 2.4-3.0 b) 3.4.-4.0 c) 4.4 -5.0 d) 5.4- 6.0 89 The typical COD characteristics of old leachate say after 25-30 years of closure of a landfill (mg/lt) is: a) 1000 b) 500 c) 250 d) 100 90 Microwaving is: a) mechanical process used for treatment of hospital wastes b) chemical process used for treatment of hospital wastes c) biochemical process used for treatment of hospital wastes d) thermal process used for treatment of hospital wastes 91 Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India refer to protection and improvement of the environment? a) Directive Principles of State Policy b) Fundamental Duties c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) Neither 'a' nor 'b' 92 What is INS Arighat? a) A stealth guided missile destroyer b) Air Craft Carrier c) Nuclear powered submarine d) Anti-submarine warfare corvette 93 With respect to environmental science and pollution, full form of SPM is: a) Suspended Partial Matter b) Suspended Particulate Matter c) Suspended Pollutant Matter d) None of these 94 In context of environment, the term “dirty dozen” refers to: a) 12 most harmful greenhouse gases b) 12 ozone depleting substances c) 12 persistent organic pollutants d) none of the above 95 Who among the following propounded the model of ‘Limits to Growth’ related to the relationship between global resources and population trend? a) United Nations b) Club of Rome c) Massachusetts Institute of Technology d) World Food Organization JEE-2024 A-13  96 What is the name of the border that separates India and Pakistan? a) Durand Line b) McMahon Line c) Line of control d) Radcliffe Line 97 Which of the following is true for All India States People Conference: 1. It was formed in 1927 2. Jawaharlal Nehru became its President in 1939 3. In 1938 Congress while defining its goal for Independence, also included Independence of Princely States 4. It was further endorsed in Congress session at Tripuri (1939) Select the correct answer from the given codes- a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4 98 “Parallel Government” during Quit India Movement was setup in a) Ballia b) Tamluk c) Satara d) All of these 99 Which of the following were the signatories to the Tripartite Treaty of 1838? I. Zaman Shah II. Ranjit Singh III. William Bentick IV. Shah Suja V. Lord Auckland a) II, IV, and V b) I, II and III c) II, III and IV d) I, II and IV 100 Carbon, diamond and graphite are together called: a) Allotropes b) Isomers c) Isomorphs d) Isotopes 101 A vendor sells a Machine at a profit of 20%. He had brought it at 10% more and sold it for ₹ 700 more, he would have earned a profit of 25%. Find the cost of the Machine. a) 3800 b) 4000 c) 4800 d) None of the above JEE-2024 A-14 102 Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents them. Statements: (i) All poets are dreamers. (ii) No poets are dreamers. (iii) Some poets are dreamers. (iv) Some poets are not dreamers. a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (iv) c) (i) and (ii) d) (ii) and (iv) 103 In a certain code 786 means “study very hard”, 958 means “hard work pays” and 645 means “study and work”. Which of the following is the code for very? a) 8 b) 7 c) 6 d) Cannot be determined Direction (Q. 104): The given table represents the exports (in ₹) of four items A, B, C and D over a period of six years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow: Items / years A B C D 2010 240 128 180 214 2011 250 134 244 282 2012 225 138 230 247 2013 370 169 340 224 2014 425 182 300 309 2015 400 209 306 275 What is the ratio of the total exports of item A in 2014 and 2015 to the total exports 104 of item C in 2011 and 2015? a) 5: 4 b) 3:2 c) 4: 3 d) 7: 5 105 Pointing to Dhina, Rohini said you are the son of Vinitha, who is my mother’s only Daughter-in-law. Rohini is a female, so how is Vinitha’s mother-in-law’s husband’s son related to Rohini? a) Brother b) Sister c) Niece d) Nephew 106 In a certain language, WINTER is written as XKQXJX, then how will be SUMMER written in that code? a)TVNNFS b)UWOOGT c)TWOKCP d)TWPQJX JEE-2024 A-15 107 A standard clock is showing time as 2:25. What will be the time in its mirror image? a) 9:15 b) 9:25 c) 9:35 d) 9:45 Directions (Questions 108 &109): The bar diagram below shows the data of a fruit processing industry which prepares packages of 3 types of fruits during five consecutive years. Study the diagram and answer the following questions: 108 The percentage drop in the of number of apple packages prepared from 2004 to 2005 is: a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) None of these 109 Total number of prepared packages of all the three types of fruits were least in the year: a) 2001 b) 2003 c) 2004 d) 2005 110 Rana Travels 10 Km North turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5 Km. He then turns to right hand side and travels another 4 Km. How far is he from the point of starting his journey? a) 15 km b) 4 km c) 5 km d) 10 km JEE-2024 A-16 111 ‘਷ੱ ਤ ਤ੃ ਵੀਸ ਖ੄ਰੀਂ ਸ੅ਣੀਆਂ’ ਮਸਾਵਰ੃ ਦਾ ਅਰਥ ਸ੄ : a) ਸਰ ਩ਾ਷੃ ਖੁਸ਼ਸਾਲੀ ਸ੅ਣੀ b) ਸਰ ਤਰਹਾਂ ਷ੁਖ ਷ਾਂਦ ਸ੅ਣੀ c) ਚਾਰ੃ ਩ਾ਷੃ ਖੁਸ਼ੀ ਦੀ ਲਹਸਰ d) ਚਾਰ੃ ਩ਾ਷੃ ਸ਼ਾਂਤੀ ਸ੅ਣੀ 112 “ਕਾ਷ ਮ੃ਰ੃ ਕ੅ਲ ਕਾੱਰ ਸੁੁੰ ਦੀ।” ਵਾਕ ਨੂੁੰ ਸ਼ੁੱ ਧ ਕਰਕ੃ ਹਲਖ੅ - a) ਕਾ਷ ਮ੃ਰ,੃ ਕ੅ਲ ਕਾਰ ਸੁੁੰ ਦੀ। b) ਕਾ਷, ਮ੃ਰ੃ ਕ੅ਲ ਕਾੱਰ ਸੁੁੰ ਦੀ। c) ਕਾਸ਼ ! ਮ੃ਰ੃ ਕ੅ਲ ਕਾਰ ਸੁੁੰ ਦੀ । d) ਕਾ਷ ਮ੃ਰ੃ ਕ੅ਲ,ਕਾੱਰ ਸੁੁੰ ਦੀ। 113 ‘ਦ੅-ਹਤੁੰ ਨ ਮੁੁੰ ਹਡਆਂ ਨੇ ਷੃ਬ ਖਾਧ੃’ ਵਾਕ ਹਵਚ ‘਷੃ਬ’ ਦਾ ਵਚਨ ਕੀ ਸ੄? a) ਬਸੁਵਚਨ b) ਦ੅ ਵਚਨ c) ਇਕ ਵਚਨ d) ਹਤੁੰ ਨ ਵਚਨ 114 ‘ਥ੅ੜਾ, ਬਸੁਤ, ਏਨਾ, ਹਕੁੰ ਨਾਂ, ਹਨਰਾ, ਬੜਾ ਸੀ’, ਸ਼ਬਦ ਹਕ਷ ਹਕ਷ਮ ਦ੃ ਹਕਹਰਆ ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ ਸਨ? a) ਩ਹਰਮਾਣਵਾਚਕ ਹਕਹਰਆ ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ b) ਩ਰਕਾਰਵਾਚਕ ਹਕਹਰਆ ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ c) ਹਨਰਨਾਵਾਚਕ ਹਕਹਰਆ ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ d) ਹਨਸ਼ਚ੃ਵਾਚਕ ਹਕਹਰਆ ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ 115 ‘਷ਾਰ’ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਦਾ ਷ਮਾਨਾਰਥਕ ਨਸੀਂ ਸ੄: a) ਷ੁੰ ਖ੃਩ b) ਤੱ ਤ c) ਷ਾਰਾ d) ਷ਾਰਾਂਸ਼ ਩੄ਰਹਾ ਩ੜਹ ਕ੃ ਸ੃ਠ ਹਲਖ੃ ਷ੁਆਲਾਂ ਦ੃ ਜੁਆਬ ਹਦਓ: ਮਨੁੱਖੀ ਹਦਮਾਗ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਹ ੁੰ ਦਗੀ ਦੀਆਂ ਷ੁੰ ਭਾਵਨਾਵਾਂ ਦੀ ਸਰ ਟ੅ਸ ਕੁਦਰਤ ਨੇ ਲੁਕਾਈ ਜਾ਩ਦੀ ਸ੄। ਮਨੁੱਖੀ ਹਦਮਾਗ ਦੀ ਩ੱ ਧਰ ਸੀ ਹ ੁੰ ਦਗੀ ਦੀ ਅਧੂਰਤਾ ਜਾਂ ਩ੂਰਨਤਾ, ਕ੅ਝ ਜਾਂ ਖੂਬ਷ੂਰਤੀ, ਷੆ੜ ਜਾਂ ਚ੆ੜ ਦੀ ਩ੱ ਧਰ ਸ੄। ਅਗਾਂਸ ਵਧ੃ ਜਾਣ ਤ੃ ਨਹਵਆਂ ਸੁੁੰ ਹਦਆਂ ਰਹਸਣ ਦੀ ਬੁਹਨਆਦੀ ਧੁਨ ਨੇ ਹਜੁੰ ਨੀ ਤਰੱ ਕੀ ਮਨੁੱਖੀ ਹਦਮਾਗ ਰਾਸੀਂ ਩ੁੰ ਜਾਸ ਸ ਾਰ ਷ਾਲਾਂ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਕੀਤੀ ਸ੄ ਏਨੀ ਏ਷ ਤੋਂ ਹਬਨਾਂ ਩ੁੰ ਜਾਸ ਕਰ੅ੜ ਷ਾਲਾਂ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਵੀ ਨਸੀਂ ਷ੀ ਕੀਤੀ। ਏ਷ ਤੋਂ ਇੱ ਕ ਵੱ ਡੀ ਸਕੀਕਤ ਉਜਲੀ ਸ੅ ਜਾਂਦੀ ਸ੄ ਹਕ ਹਜਸੜਾ ਢੁੰ ਗ ਮਨੁੱਖੀ ਹਦਮਾਗ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਅਗਾਂਸ ਵਧਣ ਤ੃ ਨਹਵਆਂ ਸ੅ਣ ਦੀ ਧੁਨ ਵਧ੃ਰ੃ ਚਮਕਾ ਷ਕਦਾ ਸ੄, ਉਸ ਢੁੰ ਗ ਹ ੁੰ ਦਗੀ ਦਾ ਅਹਤ ਚਾਹਸਆ ਢੁੰ ਗ ਸ੅ਵ੃ਗਾ। ਏ਷ ਕ਷੆ਟੀ ਉੱਤ੃ ਹ ੁੰ ਦਗੀ ਦ੃ ਷ਾਰ੃ ਢੁੰ ਗਾਂ, ਇਸਦੀਆਂ ਷ਾਰੀਆਂ ਜਾਚਾਂ ਨੂੁੰ ਅ਷ੀਂ ਩ਰਖ ਷ਕਦ੃ ਸਾਂ। ਷ਾਇੁੰ ਷, ਹ਷ਆ਷ਤ ਤ੃ ਷ਾਹਸਤ ਹ ੁੰ ਦਗੀ ਦੀਆਂ ਹਤੁੰ ਨ ਮੁਖ ਜਾਚਾਂ ਸਨ। ਇਹਤਸਾ਷, ਷ੁੰ ਗੀਤ, ਹਚਤਰਕਾਰੀ, ਹਸ਼ਲ਩ਕਾਰੀ ਆਹਦ ਉ਩ਰਲੀਆਂ ਜਾਚਾਂ ਦ੃ ਵਡਮੁਲ੃ ਅਮਲ ਸਨ। 116 ਩੄ਰਹ੃ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਆਏ ਸ਼ਬਦ ‘ਕ੅ਝ’ ਦਾ ਅਰਥ ਸ੄- a) ਕੁੜੱਤਣ b) ਕਮ ੅ਰੀ c) ਕਰੂ਩ਤਾ d) ਇਸਨਾ ਹਵੱ ਚੋਂ ਕ੅ਈ ਵੀ ਨਸੀਂ JEE-2024 A-17 117 ਩੄ਰਹ੃ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਆਏ ਸ਼ਬਦ ‘ਉਜਲੀ’ ਦਾ ਷ਸੀ ਹਵਰਧੀ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਹਕਸੜਾ ਸ੄? a) ਷ਾਫ਼ b) ਧੁੁੰ ਦਲੀ c) ਷਩ੱ ਸ਼ਟਤਾ d) ਚਮਕਦੀ 118 ਩੄ਰਹ੃ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਆਇਆ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਅਹਤ-ਚਾਹਸਆ ਕੀ ਸ੄? a) ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ b) ਨਾਂਵ c) ਹਕਹਰਆ d) ਕਾਰਕ 119 ਩੄ਰਹ੃ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਆਏ ਸ਼ਬਦਾਂ ਷ਾਇੁੰ ਷, ਹ਷ਆ਷ਤ ਅਤ੃ ਷ਾਹਸਤ ਦੀ ਸ਼ਰ੃ਣੀ ਹਕਸੜੀ ਸ੄? a) ਹਕਹਰਆ b) ਨਾਂਵ c) ਩ੜਨਾਂਵ d) ਹਵਸ਼੃ਸ਼ਣ 120 ਩੄ਰਹ੃ ਹਵੱ ਚ ਆਏ ਸ਼ਬਦ ਜੁੱ ਟ ਅਧੂਰਤਾ-਩ੂਰਨਤਾ, ਕ੅ਝ-ਖੂਬ਷ੂਰਤੀ ਅਤ੃ ਷੆ੜ-ਚ੆ੜ ਕੀ ਸਨ? a) ਷ਬੁੰ ਧਕ b) ਷ਮਾ਷ c) ਹਵਰ੅ਧੀ ਜੁੱ ਟ d) ਇਸਨਾਂ ਹਵੱ ਚੋਂ ਕ੅ਈ ਵੀ ਨਸੀਂ ****** JEE-2024 A-18