BIO2600 Winter 2024 Review Questions Unit III Key PDF

BIO2600 Winter 2024 Review Questions Unit III Key 1. List five anatomical differences between tetrapods and other sarcopterygians No median fins Elongated snout No operculum Cervical (neck) vertebrae are present Simple lungs and a short trachea Ribs expand to support the body Zygapophyses One sacra...

BIO2600 Winter 2024 Review Questions Unit III Key 1. List five anatomical differences between tetrapods and other sarcopterygians No median fins Elongated snout No operculum Cervical (neck) vertebrae are present Simple lungs and a short trachea Ribs expand to support the body Zygapophyses One sacral vertebra connecting the vertebral column and the pelvis Stout limbs with digits Simple hock joint Epaxial muscles connect many vertebrae Hypaxial muscles are differentiated into five groups Kidneys extend the length of the trunk Urinary bladder Lateral line present only in aquatic species and aquatic larvae Ear drum in adult frogs Stapes in adult frogs 2. What are the five groups of tetrapod hypaxial muscles and where on the body are they located? Subvertebralis – immediately ventral to the vertebrae (forms the “roof” of the thoracic and abdominal cavities) Transversus abdominis – most medial layer of the lateral muscles Internal oblique – middle layer of the lateral muscles External oblique – most lateral layer of the lateral muscles Rectus abdominis – most ventral muscle (form the “floor” of the thoracic and abdominal cavities) 3. How does the ancestral locomotor system of tetrapods interfere with respiration? Basal tetrapods use trunk muscles to laterally bend the body for locomotion (think about anguilliform movement). Lateral bending is produced by contracting the muscles on only one side of the body, whereas exhalation requires simultaneous contraction of the trunk muscles on both sides of the body. 4. Define “appendicular skeleton” The fins/limbs and their support structures 5. Define “pectoral girdle” and list its bones The structures supporting the front fins/limbs Clavicle Coracoid Scapula 6. What is the importance of the glenoid fossa? The glenoid fossa is where the bones of the pectoral girdle interact with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint 7. Define “pelvic girdle” and list its bones The structures supporting the back fins/limbs Ilium Ischium Pubis 8. What is the importance of the acetabulum? The acetabulum is where the head of the femur interacts with the pelvis to form the hip joint 9. What is the importance of the obturator foramen? The obturator foramen allows for passage of blood vessels and nerves 10. Define “proximal” Close to the body 11. Define “distal” Farthest away from the body 12. List the bones of the pectoral limb in order from proximal to distal Humerus Radius and ulna Carpals Metacarpals Phalanges 13. On which bone is the olecranon located and what is its importance? The olecranon is the most proximal part of the ulna. The anconeal process of the olecranon fits into the olecranon fossa of the humerus to form the elbow joint. 14. List the bones of the pelvic limb in order from proximal to distal Femur Patella Tibia and fibula Tarsals Metatarsals Phalanges 15. Which group of bones includes the calcaneus? Why is the calcaneus important? The calcaneus is a tarsal bone. As part of the hock joint, the calcaneus is where the tendon that extends the joint attaches. 16. Define “palmar” Palmar refers to the bottom surface of the front paw 17. Define “plantar” Plantar refers to the bottom surface of the back paw 18. Which type of muscle is most involved with the appendicular skeleton? Skeletal muscle 19. Define “muscle belly” The concentration of muscle cells and fibers that provide contractile force 20. List the four groups of muscles that support the pectoral girdle and give an example of each group. Branchiomeric muscles – the trapezius Axial muscles – the serratus ventralis Dorsal muscles – the latissimus dorsi Ventral muscles – the pectoralis 21. The tarsus and the elbow can both be considered as levers applying force. The size of the input arm relates to the amount of force and velocity generated by the output arm. If given a diagram of different joints, be able to identify the input arm, the output arm, and whether the output force or the output velocity will be more significant. In this example of a forelimb, the tendon of the triceps brachii pulls on the olecranon of the ulna to extend the elbow joint. Because the olecranon (input lever arm) is larger in the digger, the fulcrum point is closer to center and the digits and this allows for greater output force. In the runner, the olecranon is smaller and the fulcrum point is farther from the center and the digits (long output arm). This increases the speed with which the extension motion occurs. 22. Which structures do tendons connect? Tendons connect muscles and bones 23. Which structures do ligaments connect? Ligaments connect bones and/or cartilages 24. Define “flexion” Bringing the bones of a joint closer together 25. Define “extension” Bringing the bones of a joint further apart 26. Define “adduction” Drawing a limb closer to the center of the body 27. Define “abduction” Drawing a limb away from the center of the body 28. In a drawing of the pectoral limb, be able to identify the position of the muscles that flex and extend: a. The elbow b. The carpus 29. Give an example of one of the muscles that flexes the elbow The biceps brachii and the brachialis flex the elbow 30. Give an example of one of the muscles that extends the elbow The triceps brachii extends the elbow 31. Identify the function of the gluteal muscle group The gluteal muscles extend the hip 32. Identify the functions of the tensor fascia lata The tensor fascia lata flexes the hip and extends the stifle 33. In a drawing of the pelvic limb, be able to identify the position of the muscles that flex and extend: a. The stifle b. The hock or tarsus 34. Identify one of the muscles that flexes the stifle The biceps femoris 35. Identify the muscle that extends the stifle The quadriceps 36. Identify the main extensor of the tarsus The gastrocnemius 37. Identify the bone where the main extensor of the tarsus inserts The calcaneus 38. Define Lissamphibia. What are two important characteristics of Lissamphibia? Lissamphibia are the living amphibians and all of their extinct ancestors. Lissamphibians have smooth skin – no scales Lissamphibians are the only tetrapods with an aquatic larval stage 39. List the glands present in the skin of amphibians and their functions: Mucus glands produce mucus that protects the skin and makes cutaneous respiration more efficient Granular glands (also called poison glands) produce toxin to protect the amphibian 40. Define “cutaneous respiration” Gas exchange through the skin 41. List the three groups of living amphibians: Caecilians Salamanders Anurans (frogs and toads) 42. List three amphibian adaptations not related to the skin: The papilla amphibiorum The levator bulbi muscles Green rods in the retina 2.5 to 3 chambered heart 43. What is the importance of the green rods in the retina? Green rods may help amphibians to see the skin patterns of other amphibians in low light 44. Define “lingual feeding” Protracting and retracting the tongue to capture prey 45. What is one specialized characteristic of caecilians? Caecilians have a tentacle present between the eye and the nostril 46. What is one specialized characteristic of anurans? Loss of the tail Fusion of the pelvis to form a structure called the urostyle The presence of a tympanum (ear drum) 47. Define Reptiliomorpha The clade containing amniotes and extinct organisms that share a more recent ancestor with amniotes than amphibians. 48. List and define the functions of the four extraembryonic membranes of the amniote egg: Amnion – Protects the embryo from mechanical damage Chorion – Allows for gas exchange in conjunction with the allantois Allantois – Stores nitrogenous wastes and in conjunction with the chorion allows for gas exchange Yolk sac – Stores and transports nutrients to the developing embryo 49. What challenge(s) of life on land does the amniote egg provide a solution for? The amniote egg protects the embryo against dehydration, mechanical injury, and infection. 50. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure in which amniotic fluid is withdrawn from the amniotic cavity. Prior to insertion of the needle, clinicians use ultrasound imaging to select the safest spot for insertion since it is important to avoid the fetus, placenta, and umbilical cord. Which two extraembryonic membranes will the needle necessarily pass through? Amnion Chorion 51. List four anatomical differences between amniotes and other tetrapods besides the amniote egg: Elongated neck Elongated trachea with cartilage rings Lungs divided into alveoli Ribs become longer and aid in ventilation Well-developed zygapophyses At least two sacral vertebrae Limbs are slender Mesotarsal joint in the hock Epaxial muscles are differentiated into three groups Hypaxial groups are more specialized to aid in ventilation Kidneys are compacted Lateral line is absent Eardrum is present in all Stapes in present in all 52. Describe the difference between a simple hock joint (as in basal tetrapods) and a hock joint with a mesotarsal joint In a simple hock joint, there is no distinct joint allowing motion between the tarsal bones. In a mesotarsal joint, there is fusion between small tarsal bones to create two proximal tarsal bones – the astragulus and the calcaneus. These bones interact with the tibia and fibula, but also interact with the more distal tarsals forming a distinct joint between the tarsal bones (the mesotarsal joint) which allows greater movement of the hock. Greater hock movement allows stronger force to be generated by the hind limb. 53. Explain why internal fertilization is a requirement for amniotes. The ovum must be fertilized before the protective membranes form. As these are formed within the mother’s body, external fertilization would not be successful because the sperm could not penetrate the protective membranes. 54. What is the function of the stapes in amniotes? The stapes transmits vibrations from the tympanum to the inner ear 55. How does the trachea of amniotes differ from that of basal tetrapods and amphibians? The trachea of amniotes is supported by cartilage rings. 56. Define “fenestra”/ “fenestrae” A small hole or opening in the skull 57. Define “anapsid” Organisms do not have any openings in the skull, just a solid covering over the roof and sides. 58. Define “synapsid” Organisms have one pair of holes (lateral fenestrae) in the skull 59. Define “diapsid” Organisms having two pairs of holes (lateral fenestrae) in the skull 60. Define “sauropsid” A subgroups of diapsids with modified fenestrae 61. Define “ventilation” The active process of moving water or gas across the respiratory surface 62. List the muscles involved in respiration Intercostal muscles (muscles between the ribs), the diaphragm where it is present 63. Define costal ventilation/the costal pump In costal ventilation, the muscles between the ribs (the intercostal muscles) move them to create negative pressure in the thorax and expand the lungs 64. Describe the aspiration pump and specify what anatomical structure is needed for an aspiration pump to be used in respiration In animals that utilize an aspiration pump, the intercostal muscles and the diaphragm increase the size of the thoracic cavity. As the thoracic cavity increases, the lungs expand, creating suction which pulls air in for gas exchange. After air is brought in, the intercostal muscles, the diaphragm , and sometimes the abdominal muscles compress the thoracic cavity. The lungs compress and air is exhaled. A diaphragm is necessary for an aspiration pump. 65. Describe the differences in lung structure between sauropsids and synapsids Sauropsids have faveolar lungs which are rigid and have tube like structures (faveolae) lining the airways. In faveolar lungs air moves in only one direction over the faveolae. Synapsids have alveolar lungs which compress and expand, and gas exchange occurs in sac- like chambers at the end of branching airways (alveoli). In alveolar lungs, air is moving in and of the alveoli through the same passage. 66. List the functions of a circulatory system Enables internal respiration Distributes nutrients and hormones Distributes immune cells and antibodies Temperature regulation  67. Describe the differences between single and dual circulatory systems In a single circulatory system, blood only passes through the heart once in a complete circuit. In a dual circulatory system, blood passes through the heart twice in a complete circuit. 68. Identify the location where the electrical impulse for each heartbeat begins in amniotes? The sinoatrial node 69. Diagram the path of blood flow in a two-chambered heart, a three-chambered heart, and a four-chambered heart Two chambers Three chambers Left Right Atrium Atrium Atrium Lung Body Ventricle Body Ventricle Gills Four chambers Right Lung Atrium Left Atrium Right Ventricle Left Ventricle Body 70. How would you explain to your roommate that the heart of a turtle is not inferior to that of a human? Remember that every species that exists today is well adapted to its ecological niche – every extant species is an evolutionary winner. Because of the partial division in the ventricle of the turtle, there is mixing of the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. However, as noted in the text, turtles can shift blood between the systemic and pulmonary circuits to meet the immediate needs of the animal—e.g., warming in the sun or diving under water – and this can also lead to separation between oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. 71. List the functions of blood Transportation of oxygen and nutrients Carrying components of the immune system Bringing waste products to the liver and kidneys Regulating body temperature Forming clots to prevent blood loss 72. Define “artery” A vessel that carries blood away from the heart 73. Define “vein” A vessel that carries blood toward the heart 74. Define “capillary” The smallest blood vessels that connect arteries to veins. Diffusion occurs in the capillaries. 75. Identify which of the nitrogenous waste products is most commonly excreted by sauropsids and which is most commonly excreted by synapsids. Sauropsids most commonly excrete uric acid while synapsids most commonly excrete urea