Rajasthan Mo Papers PDF

Q.1 The appearance of sleep spindle and K complex in EEG is correlated with ____ part of sleep. Ans 1. NREM stage 1 2. REM 3. NREM Stage 3 4. NREM stage 2 Q.2 “ASHA” worker measured SPO2 with pulse-oximeter and inform the same to Medical Officer. Whic...

Q.1 The appearance of sleep spindle and K complex in EEG is correlated with ____ part of sleep. Ans 1. NREM stage 1 2. REM 3. NREM Stage 3 4. NREM stage 2 Q.2 “ASHA” worker measured SPO2 with pulse-oximeter and inform the same to Medical Officer. Which principles of Primary Health Care are followed in given details? Ans 1. Appropriate Technology and Community Participation 2. Community Participation and Intersectoral Coordination 3. Equitable distribution and Community Participation 4. Intersectoral Coordination and Appropriate Technology Q.3 All are true about acute rheumatic fever except: Ans 1. develops after streptococcal pharyngitis 2. common in poor socioeconomic group 3. communicable disease 4. seen in children of 5-15 years of age Q.4 Attic retraction or pars flaccid perforation is usually seen in Ans 1. Secretary otitis media 2. Mucosal Chronic Otitis Media 3. Otosclerosis 4. Squamous Chronic Otitis Media Q.5 Which one of the following is a cause of euvolemic hyponatremia? Ans 1. Nephrotic syndrome 2. Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) 3. Cerebral salt wasting 4. Diuretic use Q.6 Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in all the following EXCEPT Ans 1. Renal tubular acidosis Type II 2. Renal tubular acidosis Type I 3. Renal Tubular acidosis Type IV 4. Uremia of Renal failure Q.7 Bilirubin in urine will be found in the following condition: Ans 1. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome 2. Criggler-Najjar Syndrome 3. Gilbert’s Syndrome 4. Sickle cell disease Q.8 Which vitamin participates in beta oxidation proper as well as synthesis of fatty acids? Ans 1. Pyridoxine 2. Biotin 3. Riboflavin 4. Pantothenic acid Q.9 The energy requirements (Kcal/day) as proposed by ICMR 2020 guidelines for boys aged 13-15 years is: Ans 1. 2220 2. 2400 3. 2860 4. 3320 Q.10 Clot retraction process at the end of clot formation is done by Ans 1. Thrombin 2. Fibrinogen 3. Fibrin stabilizing factor 4. Platelets Q.11 The arthropod responsible for transmission of Kyasanur forest disease is: Ans 1. Reduviid bug 2. Hard Tick 3. Rat Flea 4. T. mite Q.12 Who recommendation for daily iodine intake in breastfeeding women is Ans 1. 290 MCG 2. 250 MCG 3. 190 MCG 4. 200 MCG Q.13 Cover test is not useful for diagnosis of Ans 1. manifest squint 2. refractive amblyopia 3. Latent squint 4. microtropia Q.14 The Comparison of costs of different interventions that are assumed to provide equivalent benefits is representation of Ans 1. Cost Minimization Analysis 2. Cost Effectiveness Analysis 3. Cost Benefit Analysis 4. Cost Utility Analysis Q.15 Burger’s disease is characterized by Ans 1. Occlusive disease of large size arteries 2. Occlusive disease of small and medium sized vessels 3. Occlusive disease of large size vessels 4. Occlusive disease of small and medium sized arteries Q.16 Salt & Pepper’s erosion of skull is typically seen in: Ans 1. Primary Hyperthyroidism 2. Metastatic Prostatic carcinoma 3. Metastatic follicular carcinoma thyroid 4. Primary hype pararthyroidism Q.17 Tripple assessment of suspected malignancy of Breast Includes: Ans 1. USG Breast, Mammography, PET CT scan 2. Clinical assessment, Sonomammography of Breast, Core needle biopsy 3. USG breast, MRI Breast, PET CT scan 4. USG Breast, Mammography, MRI Breast Q.18 Earliest sign of diabetic neuropathy is: Ans 1. gastroparesis 2. erectile dysfunction 3. distal sensory loss 4. anhidrosis of the lower extremities Q.19 Major neurotransmitter released at end organ effectors of the sympathic division of the autonomic nervous system is: Ans 1. Dopamine 2. Noradrenaline 3. Acetylcholine 4. Adrenaline Q.20 Get Above swelling sign is possible in all except: Ans 1. Epididymal cyst 2. Primary tunica vaginal hydrocele 3. Indirect Inguinal Hernia 4. Testicular tumor Q.21 Avascular necrosis of femur is common with: Ans 1. aplastic anaemia 2. Haemolytic anaemia 3. Nutritional anaemia 4. Iron deficiency anaemia Q.22 According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the top of pyramid for same is represented by Ans 1. Physiological needs 2. Social needs 3. Self-actualization needs 4. Safety needs Q.23 Select the drug which has been found to be a strong human teratogen Ans 1. Propylthiouracil 2. Hydralazine 3. Isoniazid 4. Isotretinoin Q.24 The epidemic of vector-borne diseases is usually presented as Ans 1. Slow epidemic 2. Continuous epidemic 3. Point source epidemic 4. Propagated epidemic Q.25 Avulsion fracture of 5th metatarsal base is known as Ans 1. Jone’s fracture 2. Boxer’s fracture 3. Bennet’s fracture 4. March fracture Q.26 Which of the following statements is FALSE about Measles vaccine? Ans 1. Route of administration is intramuscular 2. Can lead to immunosuppression 3. It is a live attenuated vaccine 4. Dose is 0.5 ml Q.27 Which of the following drugs is an antagonist to diazepam? Ans 1. Domperidone 2. Naloxone 3. Bromocriptine 4. Flumazenil Q.28 Characteristic symptoms of asthma are Ans 1. fever , chest pain , wheeze 2. wheezing , dyspnea, coughing 3. chest pain , altered sensorium, fever 4. productive cough , fever , dyspnea Q.29 Which of the following factor is Not included in Haddon matrix Ans 1. Socioeconomic environment 2. Vehicles & Equipments 3. Rehabilitation 4. Physical environment Q.30 Which is the uncommon symptom of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis? Ans 1. Forcible and projectile vomiting 2. Weight loss 3. Vomiting after 2 weeks of birth 4. Bile stained vomiting Q.31 False about Ewing’s Postulates: Ans 1. Undeniable and adequate trauma must be proved 2. Evidence of previous integrity of the injured part 3. There must be a proof of reasonable time interval between injury and appearance of tumor 4. The nature of tumor must not be proved. Q.32 The Medical Officer at one PHC observed sudden reporting of 70 cases in OPD within a short duration with similar symptoms namely sudden onset of vomiting, diarrhoea with abdominal cramps and a few also reported blood and mucus in the stool. None of them had fever or any other significant clinical presentations. All the affected had taken lunch before 4-5 hours in a social gathering at village where consumption of milk based sweet was common factor reported. All patients recovered with symptomatic treatment. The most probable cause of food poisoning is: Ans 1. Salmonella 2. Clostridium perfringens 3. Staphylococcus aureus 4. Clostridium botulinum Q.33 A pregnant lady with history of recurrent abortions is now diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome. What would be the best mode of treatment for her? Ans 1. Aspirin only 2. Aspirin + Heparin 3. Aspirin + Steroids 4. Aspirin + Heparin + Steroids Q.34 Oxygenation of haemoglobin lowers its affinity for carbon dioxide is called Ans 1. Bohr Effect 2. Bain bridge reflex 3. Haldane effect 4. Hering Breuer reflex Q.35 Which of the following investigation is recommended for diagnosis of enteric fever at the 4th day of onset of fever? Ans 1. Stool culture 2. Blood culture 3. Widal test 4. Urine culture Q.36 Contents of MALA-N are: Ans 1. Levonorgestrel and Ethinyl Estradiol 2. Cyproterone Acetate and Ethinyl Estradiol 3. Desogestrel and Ethinyl Estradiol 4. Levonorgestrel and Estriol Q.37 Treatment of choledochal cyst is: Ans 1. Choledochoduodenostomy 2. ERCP, Stenting & Decompression 3. Radical Excision of cyst with biliary reconstruction Roux-en-Y jejunal loop 4. Choledochojejunostomy Q.38 Which type of thyroid carcinoma is associated with ret mutation? Ans 1. follicular carcinoma 2. papillary carcinoma 3. thyroid lymphoma 4. medullary carcinoma Q.39 S A node generates the impulses at the highest rate as compared to other autorhythmic tissue because : Ans 1. Its RMP is close to threshold 2. Of larger diameter of its fibers 3. Of better autonomic neural control 4. Activation of fast voltage gated Na+ channels Q.40 Cone of light is seen in which quadrant of the tympanic membrane Ans 1. Antero inferior 2. Postero inferior 3. Antero superior 4. Postero superior Q.41 Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine? Ans 1. DPT vaccine 2. BCG Vaccine 3. Pneumococcal vaccine 4. Hepatitis B vaccine Q.42 The index for evaluation of impact for Family Planning Services can be best represented by Ans 1. Current status of maternal mortality 2. Desired number of additional children 3. Changes in motivation & behaviours of beneficiaries 4. Number of new acceptors of family planning Q.43 The diuretic of choice for rapid relief of congestive symptoms in a patient of CHF is: Ans 1. Metolazone 2. Furosemide 3. Hydrochlorothiazide 4. Amiloride Q.44 Microcephaly is defined as an occipitofrontal circumference more than: Ans 1. 0 Standard deviations (SD) below the mean for given age, sex and gestation 2. 1 Standard deviations (SD) below the mean for given age, sex and gestation 3. 2 Standard deviations (SD) below the mean for given age, sex and gestation 4. 3 Standard deviations (SD) below the mean for given age, sex and gestation Q.45 A 35 yr old G2P1L1 at 38 weeks of gestation came to the labor room with complaints of decreased foetal movements. Non stress test was performed and late decelerations were noted. What does this indicate? Ans 1. Foetal Hypoxia 2. Breech Presentation 3. Head Compression 4. Cord Compression Q.46 Which nerve carries sensation of pain due to pericarditis? Ans 1. Vagus nerve 2. Superficial cardiac plexus 3. Deep cardiac plexus 4. Phrenic nerve Q.47 Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because: Ans 1. It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin 2. It retards renal excretion of amoxicillin 3. It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin 4. It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin Q.48 The preferred duration for replacement and periodic examination for workers involved with painting of luminous dials for watches shall be: Ans 1. 4 months 2. 2 months 3. 6 months 4. 12 months Q.49 Which of the following is not a cause of sudden painful loss of Vision Ans 1. Alkali burns 2. Acute bacterial endophthalmitis 3. Vitreous haemorrage in proliferative diabetic retinopathy 4. Cavernous sinus thrombosis Q.50 Which is not a topodiagnostic test for facial nerve Ans 1. Schirmer test 2. Submandibular salivary flow test 3. Fistula test 4. Stapedial reflex test Q.51 All of followings are contents of adductor canal except Ans 1. Femoral nerve 2. Nerve to vastus medialis 3. Femoral vein 4. Femoral artery Q.52 All are cardinal signs of inflammation except: Ans 1. Cyanosis 2. Pain 3. Redness 4. Swelling Q.53 Swallow tail appearance of the wound is seen in: Ans 1. Lacerated wound 2. Abrasion 3. Stab Wound 4. Incised wound Q.54 Following is not a diagnostic criterion for Behçet's disease Ans 1. Granulomatous anterior uveitis 2. Positive pathergy test 3. Retinal vasculitis 4. Recurrent oral ulceration Q.55 The commonly found species of anopheles mosquito in the coastal region is: Ans 1. An. Sundaicus 2. An. Minimus 3. An. Culicifacies 4. An. fluviatilis Q.56 Most commonly injured nerve in Supracondylar Humerus fracture in children is Ans 1. Axillary Nerve 2. Median Nerve 3. Ulnar Nerve 4. Radial Nerve Q.57 Direction of Incision for I&D of Breast abscess in a lactating mother is: Ans 1. Intramammary 2. Circumareolar 3. Radial 4. Transverse Q.58 Treatment of tension pneumothorax is: Ans 1. Pleural tapping in 2nd intercostal space 2. Immediate decompression by rapid insertion of a large bore cannula (needle) into 2nd intercostal space followed by ICD insertion 3. Video assisted thoracoscopy & draining 4. Immediate intercostal draining tube insertion (ICD) Q.59 A 35 year old male develops atrial fibrillation. His pulse likely to be : Ans 1. irregular in rate as well as irregular in volume. 2. collapsing. 3. regularly irregular. 4. irregular in rate but regular in volume. Q.60 The “Million Death Study” in India was undertaken by Ans 1. District Level Household Survey 2. Census 3. Sample Registration System 4. National Family Health Survey Q.61 Early aggressive immunosupressive therapy is indicated in SLE patients with: Ans 1. antiphospholipid syndrome 2. pleuritis 3. shrinking lung syndrome 4. thrombocytopenia Q.62 Which of the following should not be done in case of exhumation? Ans 1. The grave site should be positively identified. 2. It should be conducted in natural light. 3. The body is exhumed only when, there is written order from the Executive Magistrate. 4. Use disinfectants to disinfect the body. Q.63 Neck femur fracture classification, having predictive value due to inclination of fracture line is known as Ans 1. Garden’s classification 2. AO/OTA classification 3. Powel’s classification 4. Taylor’s classification Q.64 Core needle biopsy of thyroid neoplasm is indicated in: Ans 1. Grave’s disease 2. Papillary Ca. Thyroid 3. Medullary Ca. Thyroid 4. Lymphoma of Thyroid Q.65 For oesophageal lesion, the choice of investigation is: Ans 1. Barium stomach and duodenum 2. Barium follow-up study 3. Barium swallow 4. Barium enema Q.66 Frequency of most commonly used Tuning fork in ENT is Ans 1. 128 hz 2. 512 Hz 3. 256 Hz 4. 1024 Hz Q.67 In hypothermia, cause of death is: Ans 1. Pulmonary embolism 2. Stroke 3. Cardiac arrest 4. Anoxia Q.68 Failure of mineralization of bone and excess of osteoid formation in 25 yrs male is known as Ans 1. Osteoporosis 2. Rickets 3. Osteomalacia 4. Osteodystrophy Q.69 To define twin discordance , the difference of twins should be Ans 1. 10% with the smaller twin as index 2. 20% with the larger twin as index 3. 15% with the larger twin as index 4. 15% with the smaller twin as index Q.70 A fasting blood sample would be required in the estimation of all of the following EXCEPT Ans 1. Thyroxine 2. Glucose 3. Iron 4. Triglyceride Q.71 A man comes with complaint of loss of abduction up to 90°. Which nerve is affected in this case? Ans 1. Median nerve 2. Ulnar nerve 3. Musculocutaneous nerve 4. Axillary nerve Q.72 Which species of malaria has ability to cause relapse? Ans 1. plasmodium ovale 2. plasmodium knowlesi 3. plasmodium falciparum 4. plasmodium malariae Q.73 A 40 year old male develops sudden onset excruciating headache with worsening consiousness. His bp is 210/100 mm of hg, he is afebrile but has positive signs of meningial irritation. Most likely diagnosis would be: Ans 1. attack of migrain. 2. sub-arachnoid haemorrhage. 3. sub-dural hematoma. 4. brain tumor. Q.74 Which of the following is drug of choice to treat pneumocystis pneumonia? Ans 1. Cotrimoxazole 2. Fluconazole 3. Voriconazole 4. Amphotericin B Q.75 Savlon is a combination of Ans 1. Chloroxylenol and Hibitane 2. Phenol and Hexachlorphane 3. Cetrimide and Chlorhexidine 4. Cresol and Cetavlon Q.76 If one strand of a piece of DNA contains 20Adenine (A), 25 Guanine (G), 30 Cytosine (C) and 22 Thymine (T), how many of each base is found in the complete double stranded molecule? Ans 1. A=20, G=25, C=30, T=20 2. A=42, G=55, C=55, T=42 3. A=44, G=60, C=50, T=40 4. A=40, G=50, C=60, T=44 Q.77 The work of Rockefeller foundation in India began with a scheme for assist in Ans 1. Family Planning Programme 2. Provision of nutrition supplementation to children 3. Services of National Blindness Control Programme 4. Control of hookworm disease Q.78 Which of the following chelating agents cannot be given through intravenous route? Ans 1. EDTA 2. Penicillamine 3. DMPS 4.. BAL Q.79 All the following diseases are related to collagen EXCEPT Ans 1. Marfan syndrome 2. Alport’s syndrome 3. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 4. Osteogenesis imperfecta Q.80 Hand- Foot and mouth disease is caused by: Ans 1. Coxsackie virus 2. Herpes simplex virus 3. Chickenpox 4. Rabies virus Q.81 Which of the following is TRUE for cephalhematoma? Ans 1. Fluid accumulation in subcutaneous tissue 2. Crosses suture line 3. Maximum size at birth 4. Located commonly over parietal bones, between skull and periosteum Q.82 What is the counterpart of seminoma in females? Ans 1. Dysgerminoma 2. Yolk Sac Tumour 3. Embryonal Carcinoma 4. Endodermal Sinus Tumour Q.83 Ewing’s sarcoma is common in which age group Ans 1. 31-34 years 2. 61-64 years 3. 11-14 years 4. 0-4 years Q.84 In adults extracellular fluid differs from intracellular fluid in that its Ans 1. Anions are mainly inorganic. 2. pH is lower 3. Volume is greater. 4. Tonicity is lower. Q.85 Paralysis of 3rd, 4th and 6th nerve with involvement of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve is seen in lesion of which of following? Ans 1. Medulla oblongata 2. Apex of orbit 3. Cavernous sinus 4. Pons Q.86 Curschmann spirals are seen in Ans 1. Pneumonia 2. Emphysema 3. Subacute bacterial endocarditis 4. Bronchial asthma Q.87 Which of the following is the example of definitive test for developmental assessment? Ans 1. Bayley scale for infant development II 2. Language evaluation scale Trivandrum 3. Denver development screening test 4. Trivandrum development screening test Q.88 Translocation seen in CML is : Ans 1. t8:14 2. t9:22 3. t4:18 4. t11:14 Q.89 Estrogens are responsible for following foetal malformation? Ans 1. Hydrocephalus 2. Cleft palate 3. Spinal defect 4. Cardiac Defect Q.90 Most common indication of tonsillectomy is Ans 1. Malignancy of the tonsil 2. Recurrent acute episodes of tonsillitis 3. Enlarged styloid process 4. Abscess formation in the tonsil Q.91 Greater sac and lesser sac communicate through which of the following? Ans 1. Foramen of Winslow 2. Foramen of Megendie 3. Foramen of Langer 4. Foramen of Monro Q.92 Berlin's edema may follow Ans 1. Cataract surgery 2. Blunt trauma 3. Corneal abrasion 4. Diabetic maculopathy Q.93 Diagnosis of testicular tumor is made by: Ans 1. Testicular core biopsy 2. High Inguinal orchidectomy 3. Orchidectomy by scrotal route 4. FNAC of testis Q.94 Coffee bean sign on X-ray abdomen is diagnostic of: Ans 1. Carcinoma Rectosigmoid junction 2. Diverticulitis of colon 3. Ulcerative colitis 4. Sigmoid volvulus Q.95 Hookworm infection occurs by : Ans 1. By playing with dogs 2. Ingestion of eggs containing food and water 3. Eating Beef 4. Penetration of skin by infective larvae Q.96 A 46 year old female presents with pruritus and jaundice. She has xanthelasmas bilaterally. Her bilirubin is 15 mg/dl, ast 122 i.u., alt 150 i.u. alkaline phosphatase 1110 i.u. antimitochondrial AB- positive. Most likely diagnosis would be: Ans 1. gall stone. 2. primary biliary cirrhosis. 3. hemochromatosis. 4. carcinoma head of pancreas. Q.97 Which of the following category of disease is most suitable for “Dracunculiasis”? Ans 1. Water Washed disease 2. Water Based disease 3. Water Borne disease 4. Water Related disease Q.98 Symblepharon should be ruled out in which ophthalmic emergency Ans 1. Stevens Johnson syndrome 2. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis 3. Acute anterior uveitis 4. Acute angle closure glaucoma Q.99 Hyperplasia is characterized by: Ans 1. Increase in number of cells 2. Decrease in number of cells 3. Increase in size of cells 4. Decrease in size of cells Q.100 Which is the first organ to develop after conception? Ans 1. Extremity 2. Heart 3. Abdomen 4. Cranium  Medical Officer (Medical) Direct Recruitment Examination - 2020 Question Paper Q. No. 1 Regarding Cubital fossa, All are true except: 0012001 Option A Medially- Lateral border of Pronator Teres Option B Laterally- Medial border of Brachioradialis Option C Median Nerve lies medial to the Brachial Artery Option D Radial nerve lies medial to the Brachial Artery Correct Option D Q. No. 2 In structurally and functionally normal heart, anterior(sternocostal) surface of Heart 0012002 is formed by all of them except: Option A Right Atrium Option B Left Atrium Option C Right Ventricle Option D Left Ventricle Correct Option B Q. No. 3 All are branches of Coeliac Trunk except: 0012003 Option A Left Gastric Artery Option B Hepatic Artery Option C Inferior Pancreaticoduodenal Artery Option D Splenic Artery Correct Option C Q. No. 4 All are true regarding blood supply of thyroid gland except: 0012004 Option A Superior Thyroid branch of the Internal Carotid Artery Option B Inferior Thyroid branch of the Thyrocervical Trunk Option C Superior Thyroid vein drains the upper part of the Thyroid gland Option D Middle Thyroid vein drains the lower part of the Thyroid gland Correct Option A Q. No. 5 Carotid Sheath encloses all of the following structures except: 0012005 Option A Common Carotid Artery Option B External Carotid Artery Option C Internal Carotid Artery Option D Vagus Nerve Correct Option B Q. No. 6 Which of the following is thought to be a cause of hyperemesis gravidarum? 0012006 Option A High levels of circulating HCG Option B Underlying infection Option C Reflux esophagitis Option D High level of progesterone Correct Option A Q. No. 7 What is the most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage? 0012007 Option A Trauma to vagina, and vulva Option B Uterine atony Option C Retained placenta Option D Uterine inversion Correct Option B Q. No. 8 Primary amenorrhea is defined as: 0012008 Option A The absence of menarche (the first menstrual period) by age 16 years. Option B The absence of menarche (the first menstrual period) by age 18 years. Option C Absence of menstruation at any age. Option D Failure to menstruate for six months in a female who was previously menstruating. Correct Option A Q. No. 9 Commonest site of ureteric injury in gynaecological surgery is: 0012009 Option A At the level of uterosacral ligament Option B Near uterine artery Option C At the level of round ligament Option D At the Pelvic brim Correct Option D Q. No. 10 Most common cancer in females worldwide is 0012010 Option A Ovarian Option B Cervical Option C Breast Option D Oral cavity Correct Option C Q. No. 11 All are true statements regarding Metaplasia except: 0012011 Metaplasia is an irreversible change in which one differentiated cell type (epithelial or Option A mesenchymal) is replaced by another cell type. The most common epithelial metaplasia is columnar to squamous, as occurs in the respiratory Option B tract in response to chronic irritation. A deficiency of vitamin A (retinoic acid) induces squamous metaplasia in the respiratory Option C epithelium. The influences that predispose to metaplasia, if persistent, can initiate malignant transformation Option D in metaplastic epithelium. Correct Option A Q. No. 12 Chronic inflammation is characterized by all of them except: 0012012 Option A Infiltration with mononuclear cells, which include macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells. Option B Tissue destruction, induced by the persistent offending agent or by the inflammatory cells. Attempts at healing by connective tissue replacement of damaged tissue, accomplished by Option C angiogenesis (proliferation of small blood vessels) and, in particular, fibrosis. Option D Blood leukocytes, principally neutrophils, accumulate along the vascular endothelium. Correct Option D Q. No. 13 All are true about Inflammatory Bowel Disease except: 0012013 Ulcerative colitis is limited to the colon and rectum and extends only into the mucosa and Option A submucosa. Option B Crohn's disease may involve any area of the GI tract and is typically transmural. Most investigators believe that IBD results from the combined effects of alterations in host Option C interactions with intestinal microbiota, intestinal epithelial dysfunction, aberrant mucosal immune responses, and altered composition of the gut microbiome. The presence of multiple, separate, sharply delineated areas of disease, resultingin skip lesions, Option D is characteristic of Ulcerative colitis. Correct Option D Q. No. 14 Pathologic Responses of the Glomerulus to Injury include, all of them except: 0012014 Option A Hypercellularity. Option B Basement Membrane Thickening. Option C Hypocellularity. Option D Hyalinosis and Sclerosis. Correct Option C Q. No. 15 Characteristic histologic findings of asthma, collectively called "airway remodeling" 0012015 are all of them, except: Option A Thickening of airway wall. Option B Subbasement membrane fibrosis due to deposition of type I and III collagen. Option C Decrease in the size of the submucosal glands and number of airway goblet cells. Option D Hypertrophy and/or hyperplasia of the bronchial wall muscle. Correct Option C Q. No. 16 All of the following account to Criminal negligence except: 0012016 Option A Operation on wrong patient. Option B An error in diagnosis or treatment. Option C Operation of wrong limb/amputation. Option D Leaving instrument or sponges in the abdomen or any other part of the body. Correct Option B Q. No. 17 All are advantages of Finger Printing system except: 0012017 Option A Finger print of Identical twins are usually similar. Option B It is applicable to persons of all ages. Option C Absolute identification is possible. Option D Prints can often be obtained even from putrefied bodies. Correct Option A Q. No. 18 All are clinical signs and symptoms of Organophosphorus poisoning except: 0012018 Option A Increased sweating Option B Increased lacrimation Option C Sinus Tachycardia Option D Miosis Correct Option C Q. No. 19 All are clinical signsand symptoms of Dhatura poisoning except: 0012019 Option A Dry hot skin Option B Increased Salivation Option C Dilated pupils Option D Delirium Correct Option B Q. No. 20 Regarding estimation of body surface area after burns, All are true except: 0012020 Option A Groin area equals to 5% of body surface area. Option B In adult we worked out with "Rule of Nines". Option C "Rule of palm"- The palm amounts to 1% of body surface area. Option D In children estimation of burnt out area is calculated by using "Lund and Browder" chart. Correct Option A Q. No. 21 All are true statements regarding Lipids except: 0012021 Option A Carbohydrates may be linked to lipids to form glycoconjugates, known as glycolipids. Option B Lipids are hydrophilic compounds, commonly containing fatty acids esterified to glycerol. Option C Fatty acids are long-chain alkanoic acids. Option D Triglycerides (triacylglycerols) are the storage form of lipids in adipose tissue. Correct Option B Q. No. 22 Regarding Amino Acids, all statements are true except: 0012022 Option A Amino acids are the building blocks of Lipids. There are about 300 amino acids present in various animal, plant, and microbial systems, but Option B only 20 amino acids are coded by DNA to appear in proteins. All amino acids in proteins are of the l -configuration because proteins are biosynthesized by Option C enzymes that insert only l -amino acids into the peptide chains. The aromatic amino acids are responsible for the ultraviolet absorption of most proteins, which Option D have absorption maxima ~280 nm. Correct Option A Q. No. 23 All are true about the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) except: 0012023 Option A DNA is composed of nucleotides containing the sugar deoxyribose. The chains of DNA are polymerized through a phosphodiester linkage from the 3'-hydroxyl of Option B one ribose to the 5'-hydroxyl of the next ribose. Option C DNA is an antiparallel dimer of nucleic acid strands. Option D Each base pair is held together by Nitrogen bonding between a purine and a pyrimidine. Correct Option D Q. No. 24 Regarding Ribozymes, all statements are true except: 0012024 Option A Catalytic RNAs are known as ribozymes. Recombinant ribozymes are being considered as possible therapeutic agents for diseases such Option B as muscular dystrophy, Alzheimer's, Huntington's, and Parkinson's. Ribozyme is a catalyst that cleaves its substrate (RNA) at a specific site and then releases it, Option C and itself being consumed in the reaction. The substrate specificity of a ribozyme is determined by nucleotide base pairing between Option D complementary sequences contained within the enzyme and the RNA substrate that it cleaves. Correct Option C Q. No. 25 All are true for Plasma Albumin except: 0012025 Option A Albumin accounts for approximately 80% of protein in human plasma. Option B It has no known enzymatic or hormonal activity. Option C It is also critical for maintaining the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma. Option D Its half-life is about 20 days. Correct Option A Q. No. 26 All are true about Tocilizumab except: 0012026 Tocilizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the membrane and soluble Option A forms of the IL-6 receptor. Option B It has been shown to decrease LDL cholesterol. Tocilizumab has been associated with an increased risk of infection, neutropenia, and Option C Thrombocytopenia. Option D The hematologic abnormalities appear to be reversible upon stopping the drug. Correct Option B Q. No. 27 All are true regarding Hydroxychloroquine except: 0012027 Option A Hydroxychloroquine should be avoided if QTc> 500ms. Option B An ECG should ideally be done before prescribing the drug to measure QTc interval. Option C It is also tried for treatment of COVID-19 infection. Option D Hydroxychloroquine is also useful for treatment of psoriasis. Correct Option D Q. No. 28 Use of Remdesivir should be avoided in all of them except: 0012028 Option A AST/ALT > 5 times Upper limit of normal (ULN). Option B Severe renal impairment (i.e., eGFR < 30ml/min/m2 or need for hemodialysis). Option C Pregnancy or lactating females. Option D Old Age (> 60 years of age). Correct Option D Q. No. 29 Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first 0012029 pass metabolism. Option A Oral Option B Rectal Option C Subcutaneous Option D Sublingual Correct Option A Q. No. 30 "Red Man Syndrome" has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the 0012030 following antibiotic: Option A Clindamycin Option B Vancomycin Option C Cefoperazone Option D Piperacillin Correct Option B Q. No. 31 Distribution of Water in the Body Fluid Compartments, all are true except: 0012031 Option A The ICF is contained within the cells and is two-thirds of total body water. Option B ECF is outside the cells and is one-third of total body water. Option C Total body water, which accounts for 40% to 50% of body weight. Option D In general, total body water correlates inversely with body fat. Correct Option C Q. No. 32 All are true for blood vessels except: 0012032 The arteries are thick-walled structures with extensive development of elastic tissue, smooth Option A muscle, and connective tissue. Option B Arterioles are the site of least resistance to blood flow. The capillaries are thin-walled structures lined with a single layer of endothelial cells, which is Option C surrounded by a basal lamina. Option D The volume of blood contained in the veins is called the unstressed volume. Correct Option B Q. No. 33 All statements are true except: 0012033 Option A Type I pneumocytes synthesize pulmonary surfactant. Option B Type II pneumocytes have regenerative capacity for the both type I and type II pneumocytes. Option C The alveoli contain phagocytic cells called alveolar macrophages. Alveolar macrophages keep the alveoli free of dust and debris because the alveoli have no cilia Option D to perform this function. Correct Option A Q. No. 34 All statements are true except: 0012034 Option A The cortex is the outer region, located just under the kidney capsule. Option B The medulla is a central region, divided into an outer medulla and an inner medulla. The papilla is the innermost tip of the inner medulla and empties into pouches called minor and Option C major calyces. The glomeruli of the juxtamedullary nephrons are smaller than those of the superficial cortical Option D nephrons and, accordingly, have lower glomerular filtration rates (GFRs). Correct Option D Q. No. 35 Hormones secreted by Anterior Pituitary are all except : 0012035 Option A Growth hormone Option B Prolactin Option C Vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Option D Luteinizing hormone (LH) Correct Option C Q. No. 36 All are true for Mycobacteria except : 0012036 Option A All mycobacteria are obligate anaerobes. On subculture, human tubercle bacilli usually produce visible growth on L J medium in 2-4 Option B weeks, although on primary isolation from clinical material colonies may take up to 8 weeks to appear. Option C Tubercle bacilli survive in milk and other organic materials. Option D They are also heat sensitive and are destroyed by pasteurisation. Correct Option A Q. No. 37 All are true for Coronaviruses except: 0012037 Option A Coronaviruses are large group of viruses that cause illness in humans and animals. The outbreak of Novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) was initially noticed in a seafood market Option B in Wuhan city in Hubei Province of China in mid-December, 2019. Current available evidence for COVID-19 suggests that the causative virus (SARS-CoV-2) has a Option C zoonotic source closely related to bat-origin SARS-like coronavirus. Option D SARS-CoV-2 is an enveloped DNA virus. Correct Option D Q. No. 38 All are true for Coronaviruses (SARS-CoV-2) except: 0012038 Option A The median incubation period is 5.1 days (range 2-14 days). Most patients with COVID-19 predominantly have a respiratory tract infection associated with Option B SARS-CoV-2 infection. Option C Older Age( more than 60 years) is a not a risk factor. Virus has been shown to use the angiotensin-converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) receptor for cell Option D entry. Correct Option C Q. No. 39 All are true for Malaria parasites except: 0012039 Option A P. knowlesi is now recognised as the fifth Plasmodium species that causes human malaria. Option B Plasmodium ovale Malaria is responsible for most fatalities. Option C P. vivax and P. ovale , both of which cause benign tertian malaria. Individuals who are heterozygous for the sickle cell and thalassaemia genes have much-reduced Option D susceptibility to infection with P. falciparum. Correct Option B Q. No. 40 All are true for Dengue Except: 0012040 Dengue is caused by four genetically and serologically related flaviviruses called dengue-1, -2, Option A -3 and 4. Option B If dengue shock syndrome develops, mortality rates can reach 40%. Option C The incubation period is 14-21 days. Option D Dengue virus is the most common insect-transmitted virus in the world. Correct Option C Q. No. 41 All are true regarding Cornea except: 0012041 The surface of the cornea (air-tissue interface) and associated tear film is responsible for most Option A of the refraction of the eye. Option B The cornea is composed of five layers. Option C The transparency of the cornea is its most important property. Option D The corneal epithelium is a stratified squamous keratinized epithelium. Correct Option D Q. No. 42 The resolving power of the eye depends on all of them except: 0012042 Option A The distance between two objects. Option B The extent of the dendritic connections between the Rods and neurons. Option C The background illumination. Option D The degree of light and dark adaptation. Correct Option B Q. No. 43 All are true for Tear substitutes Or Artificial tears except: 0012043 Option A Hyaluronic acid has much greater retention times than celluloses or polyvinyl alcohols. Artificial tears or ocular lubricants are generally formulated as solutions consisting of inorganic Option B ions (0.9% NaCl) and polymers to increase wettability and retention time. Polyacrylic acid (carbomer) is a gel that is hydrophilic, helping it to form a stable tear film, Option C andincreases retention time. Option D Commonly used polymers include polyvinyl alcohol and semisynthetic celluloses. Correct Option A Q. No. 44 All are true for Contact lenses except: 0012044 Option A Contact lenses are a major risk factor for microbial keratitis. Contact lens use is the most common risk factor for corneal infections in the industrialized Option B world. Option C Long-term contact lens wear inhibits epithelial cell proliferation and migration and suppresses  limbal stem cell production of basal corneal epithelial cells. Option D Soft contact lenses, do not alter the microenvironment of the ocular surface. Correct Option D Q. No. 45 All of them are Signs and symptoms of Simple episcleritis except: 0012045 Option A Redness may be sectoral or diffuse. Option B Grittiness in eye. Option C Loss of Visual acuity. Option D Photophobia. Correct Option C Q. No. 46 All are true about Pathological Fractures except: 0012046 Option A A trivial or no force may be required to cause such a fracture. Option B Most fractures seen in day to day practice fall into this catogary. Option C A fracture through a bone weakened by metastasis. Option D Pathological fractures often go into non-union. Correct Option B Q. No. 47 All are true regarding Splinting of fractured bone except: 0012047 Option A Increases complications such as fat embolism and hypovolaemic shock. Option B It relives pain by preventing movement at the fracture. It prevents further damage to skin, soft tissues and neurovascular bundle of the injured Option C Extremity. Option D Transportation of the patient made easier. Correct Option A Q. No. 48 All are true regarding dislocation of the Shoulder joint except: 0012048 Option A This is the commonest joint in the human body to dislocate. Option B Anterior dislocation is much more common than posterior dislocation. Option C The normal round contour of the shoulder joint is lost, and it becomes flattened. Option D It occurs more commonly in children than adults. Correct Option D Q. No. 49 All are true regarding dislocations of the Hip except: 0012049 Option A The anterior dislocation is the commonest type of dislocation. Option B In posterior dislocation deformity is flexion, adduction and internal rotation of limb occurs. Option C In anterior dislocation true lengthening of limb occurs. Option D In posterior dislocation shortening of the leg occurs. Correct Option A Q. No. 50 All are true regarding classical Club foot (Primary CTEV) except: 0012050 Option A Bilateral foot deformity in 60% cases. Option B Size of the foot smaller in unilateral cases. Option C Heel is larger in size. Option D Foot is in equines, varus and adduction. Correct Option C Q. No. 51 Which is not true about enteric fever? 0012051 Following ingestion of contaminated food or water, the organism colonises the Peyer's patches Option A in the terminal ileum, causing hyperplasia of the lymphoid follicles followed by necrosis and ulceration. Option B The microscopic picture shows erythrophagocytosis with histiocytic proliferation. Option C Commonest site of perforation is the terminal Jejunum. When a typhoid perforation occurs within the first week of illness, the prognosis is better than if Option D it occurs after the second or third week. Correct Option C Q. No. 52 All are false statements for ambulatory surgery except: 0012052 Option A Outpatient surgery: not admitted to a ward facility. Option B Procedure room surgery: surgery requiring full sterile theatre facilities. Option C Day or same-day surgery: 23-hour admission with early morning discharge. Option D Short-stay surgery: admitted and discharged within the 12-hour day. Correct Option A Q. No. 53 All are true about necrotising fasciitis except: 0012053 Option A This is a polymicrobial synergistic infection. Option B This is not a surgical emergency. Option C In 80% of cases it is associated with history of previous trauma or infection. Option D It leads to mortality 30-50%. Correct Option B Q. No. 54 All are examples of exudative ascites except: 0012054 Option A Peritoneal malignancy Option B Tuberculous peritonitis Option C Pancreatic ascites Option D Congestive cardiac failure Correct Option D Q. No. 55 All are true about lymphatic drainage of gallbladder except: 0012055 The lymphatic vessels of the gallbladder (subserosal and submucosal) drain into the cystic Option A lymph node of Lund. Option B Cystic lymph node is known as the sentinel lymph node. Option C Efferent vessels from cystic lymph node drain to the coeliac lymph nodes. Option D Efferent vessels from the cystic lymph node never go to the hilum of the liver. Correct Option D Q. No. 56 All are true about Ranson scoring system for predicting severity of acute pancreatitis 0012056 on admission Except: Option A Age > 55 years Option B WBC count > 12 x 109 / L Option C Blood glucose > 200 mg/dl Option D AST > 250 units/L Correct Option B Q. No. 57 All are true for stapled haemorrhoidopexy (Longo) technique except: 0012057 This procedure excises a strip of mucosa and submucosa (together with the vessels travelling Option A within them) circumferentially well above the dentate line. Option B After excision of haemorrhoidal tissue it require suture closure of defect. This procedure is quick to perform, and controlled trials suggest that it is less painful and less Option C traumatic than conventional haemorrhoidectomy. Evidence is emerging that the technique is associated with higher recurrence rates than Option D following conventional haemorrhoidectomy, and associated with more additional surgery. Correct Option B Q. No. 58 All are true about horseshoe kidney except: 0012058 In a horseshoe kidney the two renal units are low lying and the upper poles fuse to form an Option A isthmus. Option B Further ascent of the fused kidneys is prevented by the inferior mesenteric artery. Option C This condition is detected in 1 in 1000 autopsies and has a male preponderance (2:1). Option D Horseshoe kidneys are prone to reflux, obstruction and stone formation. Correct Option A Q. No. 59 All are true about undescended testes except: 0012059 Option A Testes that are absent from the scrotum after 6 months of age are unlikely to descend. Option B Histological changes in the testes can be seen from 1 year of age. Option C An incompletely descended testes tends to atrophy as puberty approaches. Boys with undescended testes are at greater risk of infertility, testicular malignancy, hernia and Option D testicular torsion. Correct Option A Q. No. 60 Which is not associated with increased risk for invasive breast cancer? 0012060 Option A Moderate hyperplasia Option B Squamous metaplasia Option C Atypical hyperplasia Option D Papilloma with hypervascular core Correct Option B Q. No. 61 A 18 months of child will be able to perform all of the following except: 0012061 Option A Knows three body parts. Option B Does things for attention and looks for reaction. Option C Can climb onto and down the furniture with assistance. Option D Can undress himself and unties his shoes. Correct Option D Q. No. 62 The following are the common causes of meningitis in newborns except: 0012062 Option A Listeria Monocytogenes Option B E. coli Option C Pneumococcus Option D Group B Streptococci Correct Option C Q. No. 63 The following are the common causes of short stature in children except: 0012063 Option A Hypothyroidism Option B Familial short stature Option C Isolated Cyanotic congenital heart disease Option D Celiac disease Correct Option C Q. No. 64 The following are known to be associated with cerebral palsy except: 0012064 Option A Severe birth asphyxia Option B Neonatal meningitis Option C Foetal stroke Option D Gestational diabetes in mother Correct Option D Q. No. 65 The following are known to be associated with sensory-neural hearing loss except: 0012065 Option A Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Option B Pendred syndrome Option C Waarrdenburg syndrome Option D VACTERL/VATER anomalies Correct Option D Q. No. 66 Regarding Malignant otitis externa, All are true except: 0012066 Option A It is a malignancy of external Ear. Option B It is a fulminating severe form of otitis externa caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Option C Occurs more commonly in immune-compromised/or Diabetic patients. Option D It is an invasive bacterial infection that involves the external auditory canal and skull base. Correct Option A Q. No. 67 Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) characterized by all of them except: 0012067 Option A Discharge Option B Deafness Option C Severe ear pain Option D Perforation of tympanic membrane Correct Option C Q. No. 68 All are true for Epistaxis except: 0012068 Option A Spontaneous epistaxis common in children and young adults. Option B Hypertensive epistaxis usually arises from Little's area. Option C Hypertensive epistaxis affects an older age group. Option D Sponteneous epistaxis may be precipitated by infection or minor trauma. Correct Option B Q. No. 69 All are true for antrochoanal polyps except: 0012069 Option A Usually unilateral. Option B Mostly Single mass and trilobed. Option C Origin from mucus membrane of maxillary sinus. Option D Recurrence common after surgical removal. Correct Option D Q. No. 70 Karatagener's syndrome is characterized by each of the following, except; 0012070 Option A Mental retardation. Option B Dextrocardia. Option C Bronchiectasis. Option D Sinusitis. Correct Option A Q. No. 71 All are chest X-ray findings of Pulmonary Embolism except: 0012071 Option A Westermark's sign. Option B Hampton's hump. Option C McConnell's sign. Option D Palla's sign. Correct Option C Q. No. 72 All are true about Basic tissue densities visible on plain X-rays except: 0012072 Option A Air is black or very dark. Option B Fat is generally gray and darker than muscle or blood. Option C Bone and calcium appear almost white. Option D Items that contain metal (such as prosthetic hips) and contrast agents appear black. Correct Option D Q. No. 73 All are true about Computed Tomography except: 0012073 Option A Compared with plain X-rays, CT uses about 10 to 100 times more radiation. Option B The Hounsfield density of water is zero. Option C The Hounsfield density of Air is 100. Option D The Hounsfield density of Fat is -90 to -120. Correct Option C Q. No. 74 All are true about Magnetic Resonance Imaging except: 0012074 Option A T1 images show fat as a white or bright signal, whereas water or CSF is dark. Option B On a T2 image, fat is dark, and blood, edema, and CSF appear white. Option C An intravenous contrast agent (gadolinium) is often used in conjunction with MRI. Option D Calcium appear almost white. Correct Option D Q. No. 75 All are true about Ultrasound Imaging except: 0012075 Option A It uses ionizing radiations. Option B Uses high-frequency sound waves to make images. The image is made by sending high-frequency sounds into the patient and assessing the Option C magnitude and time of returning echoes. Ultrasound images can be quite dependent on operator-set parameters, and the field of view Option D within the patient. Correct Option A Q. No. 76 All of them are associated with Massive Splenomegaly, except: 0012076 Option A Gaucher's disease. Option B Chronic myeloid leukemia. Option C Polycythemia vera. Option D Tuberculosis. Correct Option D Q. No. 77 All are true for splenectomy except: 0012077 Option A Perhaps the only contraindication to splenectomy is the presence of marrow failure. Option B In the immediate postsplenectomy period, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia may develop. The most serious consequence of splenectomy is increased susceptibility to bacterial infections, Option C particularly those with capsules such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,and some gram-negative enteric organisms. The chronic manifestations of splenectomy are anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and the presence of Option D Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, basophilic stippling, and an occasional nucleated erythrocyte in the peripheral blood. Correct Option B Q. No. 78 Features Common to Most Patients with a Haemolytic Disorders except: 0012078 Option A Reticulocytes- Usually Decreases. Option B Bilirubin- Almost always increased (mostly unconjugated). Option C Haptoglobin- Reduced to absent if hemolysis is at least in part intravascular. Option D LDH-Increased with intravascular hemolysis. Correct Option A Q. No. 79 Artemisinin Derivatives, all are true except: 0012079 Option A They are second-line agents for the treatment of severe falciparum malaria. These drugs have highly selective toxicity against malaria is that parasitized erythrocytes Option B concentrate artemisinin and its derivatives to concentrations 100-fold higher than those in uninfected erythrocytes. The artemisinin compounds are rapidly effective against the asexual blood forms of Plasmodium Option C species but are not active against intrahepatic forms. The antimalarial effect of these agents results primarily from the active metabolite Option D Dihydroartemisinin. Correct Option A Q. No. 80 According to "Revision of the Jones Criteria for the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever 0012080 in the era of Doppler echocardiography", All are Minor Jones Criteria in Moderate and high-risk populations except: Option A Monoarthralgia. Option B Fever ( 380C). Option C Polyarthralgia. Option D ESR 30 mm/h and/or CRP 3.0 mg/dL. Correct Option C Q. No. 81 All are Criteria for the Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus except: 0012081 Option A Symptoms of diabetes plus random blood glucose concentration 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL). Option B Hemoglobin A1c 7.5%. Option C Fasting plasma glucose 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). Option D 2-h plasma glucose 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) during an oral glucose tolerance test. Correct Option B Q. No. 82 All are absolute contraindications to the use of fibrinolytic agents except: 0012082 Option A History of cerebrovascular hemorrhage at any time. Option B Non-hemorrhagic stroke or other cerebrovascular event within the past year. Option C Suspicion of aortic dissection. Option D Pregnancy. Correct Option D Q. No. 83 All are true for Crackles and Rhonchi except: 0012083 Option A Crackles are sign of alveolar disease. Option B Processes that fill the alveoli with fluid may result in crackles. Option C Crackles in pulmonary edema are generally more prominent at the lung apex. Option D Rhonchi are a manifestation of obstruction of medium-sized airways. Correct Option C Q. No. 84 All are true for Gilbert's Syndrome except: 0012084 Option A This syndrome is characterized by unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Option B Liver enzymes(AST/ALT) are usually elevated. Option C Serum bilirubin concentrations are most often 39oC Option B One oral temperature 38.5oC Option C A sustained oral temperature >38oC for more than 1 hour Option D Both (Axillary temperature>39oC) and (A sustained oral temperature >38oC for more than 1 hour) Correct Option B Q. No. 84 True about atrial premature beats: 0012084 Option A Associated with abnormal P wave Option B All P waves are normal in morphology Option C Each P wave is followed by S complex Option D Shows saw-tooth pattern in lead II Correct Option A Q. No. 85 In comparison to obstructive lung disease, restrictive lung disease on pulmonary 0012085 function test, shows decrease of: Option A FEV1 Option B Forced residual capacity (FRC) Option C FEV1/FVC Option D None of the above Correct Option B Page 15 of 18 Q. No. 86 Which of the following is/are not true about Kaposi's sarcoma: 0012086 Option A African form mainly occurs in older men Option B IFN-alpha is used for treatment Option C HIV associated Kaposi's Sarcoma regresses with antiretroviral therapy Option D Caused by HHV-8 Correct Option A Q. No. 87 True statement(s) about management of acute pancreatitis except: 0012087 Option A Aggressive fluid resuscitation Option B Early enteric feeding within 2-3 days Option C Prophylactic antibiotic is not necessary Option D Pancreatic pseudocysts can be treated by drainage into the stomach, duodenum or jejunum Correct Option D Q. No. 88 Cause(s) of fever following blood transfusion: 0012088 Option A Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) Option B Septicemia Option C Transfusion related CMV infection Option D All of the above Correct Option D Q. No. 89 Diagnostic criteria for severe aplastic anemia include(s) all except: 0012089 Option A Absolute neutrophil count 10 mm [d] Q 69. Syphilis was first identified by a. Fraenkel b. Nicolaicu c. Schaudinn& Hoffman d. Ogston [c] Q 70. Which is an enveloped virus a. Dengue virus b. Norwalk virus c. Hepatitis A virus d. Adenovirus [a] Q 71. All open into hiatus semilunaris except a. Posterior ethmoidal sinus b. Anterior ethmoidal sinus c. Frontal sinus d. Maxillary sinus [a] Q 72. Which intervention is best in patients operated for bilateral acoustic neuroma for hearing rehabilitation a. Brainstem hearing implant b. Bilateral cochlear implant c. Unilateral cochlear implant d. Myringoplasty [a] Q 73. Otitis media with effusion is also known as all except a. Serous otitis media b. Suppurative otitis media c. Mucoid otitis media d. Secretory otitis media [b] Q 74. In an one year old child intubation is done using a. Straight blade with uncuffed tube b. Curved blade with uncuffed tube c. Straight blade with cuffed tube d. Curved blade with cuffed tube [a] Q 75. Phelp’s sign is seen in a. Glomus jugulare b. Vestibular schawannoma c. Maniere’s disease d. Neurofibromatosis [a] Q 76. Vital ICD is reviewed once in every a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 8 years d. 10 years [d] Q 77. Father of Evidence based Medicine is a. Sackett b. Da vinci c. Hippocrates d. Tolstoy [a] Q 78. Post exposure vaccination is given in a. Typhoid b. Rabies c. Mumps d. Rubella [b] Q 79. Specificity of a screening test is the ability of a test to detect a. True positives b. False positives c. False negatives d. True negatives [d] Q 80. Current cancer patients in India reported annually a. 0.5 million b. 1 million c. 5 millions d. 10 millions [b] Q 81. Diagnostic power of a test is reflected by a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Predictive value d. Population attributable risk [c] Q 82. DOTS criteria for TB is positive if a. 1 out of 2 sputum positive b. 2 out of 3 sputum positive c. CxR positive d. Mantoux positive [a] Q 83. Which of the following is not used as an emergency contraceptive a. LNG-Intrauterine device b. Oral LNG c. CuT-Intrauterine device d. Oral Mifepristone [a] Q 84. “Secret of national health lies in the homes of people” statement was given by a. Indira Gandhi b. Abraham Lincoln c. Joseph Bhore d. Florence Nightingale [d] Q 85. Which of the following is not used in testing for adequate pasteurization of milk a. Phosphatase test b. Coliform count c. Standard plate count d. Methylene blue reduction test [d] Q 86.Accultration is a. Triage b. Cultural change due to socialization c. Attitude d. Belief [b] Q 87. A daily water supply considered adequate to meet the need for all urban domestic purposes is a. 10 liters per capita b. 20 liters per capita c. 40-60 liters per capita d. 150-200 liters per capita [d] Q 88. According to “Factory Act, 1948” maximum permissible working hours per week are a. 48 b. 60 c. 72 d. 54 [a] Q 89. Diseases under International surveillance includes all except a. Louse borne typhus fever b. Relapsing fever c. Paralytic polio d. Yellow fever [d] Q 90. Late pregnancy calorie requirement is a. 2800 b. 3000 c. 1500 d. 2300 [d] Q 91. Best parameter for estimation of fetal age by ultrasound in 3rd trimester is a. Femur length b. BPD c. Abdominal circumference d. Intra-occular distance [a] Q 92. True labour pain includes all except a. Painful uterine contraction b. Short vagina c. Cervical dilatation d. Progressive descent of presenting part [b] Q 93. A 26 years old lady with history of recurrent abortion, which of the following investigations you will do to confirm the diagnosis a. PT b. BT c. Anti-Russel viper venom antibodies d. Clot solubility test [c] Q 94. Commonly used grading for abruption placenta a. Page b. Johnson c. Macafee d. Apt [a] Q 95. Which of the following is not a part of HELLP syndrome a. Hemolysis b. Elevated liver enzymes c. Thrombocytopenia d. Retroplacental hemorrhage [d] Q 96. Anterior fontanelle closes at a. 2-3 months b. 4-7 months c. 12-20 months d. 24-30 months [c] Q 97. For which vitamin, RDA is determined according to protein intake a. Thiamine b. Niacin c. Pyridoxine d. Vitamin B12 [c] Q 98. Most sensitive test to identify metabolic disease in a newborn a. Tandem mass spectrometry b. Arterial blood gas c. Complete hemogram d. Liver function test [a] Q 99. Which is not a major criteria of Jones in Rheumatic fever a. Pancarditis b. Arthritis c. Chorea d. Elevated ESR [d] Q 100. NESTROFT test is a screening test for : a. B Thalassemia b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia [a]  RUHS Medical Officer 2016-17 Question Paper Q. No. 1 The dangerous area of scalp is - 0011001 Option A Loose subaponeurotic tissue Option B Dense subcutaneous tissue Option C Pericranium Option D Apponeurotica Correct A Option Q. No. 2 Which of the following statement is TRUE about coronary artery - 0011002 Option A Anatomically end arteries Option B Anatomically end arteries & physiologically not end arteries. Option C Anatomically not end arteries but physiologically end arteries Option D Anatomically & physiologically end arteries Correct C Option Q. No. 3 Spinal cord ends at what level - 0011003 Option A Upper border of L1 Option B Lower border of L1 Option C Lower border of L2 Option D Lower border of T12 Correct B Option Q. No. 4 'Foot drop' occur because of - 0011004 Option A Injury to tibial nerve Option B Injury to sciatic nerve Option C Injury to common peronial nerve Option D Injury to superior gluteal nerve Correct C Option Q. No. 5 The nerve supply of deltoid muscle is - 0011005 Option A Radial nerve Option B Axillary nerve Option C Ulnar nerve Option D Musculocutaneous nerve Correct B Option Q. No. 6 Mechanism of action of an intrauterine contraceptive device is - 0011006 Option A Inhibits ovulation Page 1 of 18 Option B Prevents implantation in endometrium Option C Blocks entry of sperms in female genital tract Option D Spermicidal action Correct B Option Q. No. 7 What is normal value for glomerular filtration rate - 0011007 Option A 100 L/day Option B 120 L/day Option C 180 L/day Option D 220 L/day Correct C Option Q. No. 8 Hormones secreted from pancreas are - 0011008 Option A Insulin & glucagon Option B Insulin, glucagon & somatomedin Option C Insulin, calcitonin & thyrocin Option D Insulin, glucagon & somatostatin Correct D Option Q. No. 9 Which of the following is NOT a feature of Parkinson's disease - 0011009 Option A Intention tremors Option B Rigidity Option C Mask like face Option D Festinant gait Correct A Option Q. No. 10 In normal ECG "T" wave is negative in - 0011010 Option A Lead II Option B Lead III Option C V4 Option D aVR Correct D Option Q. No. 11 Which of the following drug is preferred for the treatment of a case of 0011011 organophosphate poisoning? Option A Glycopyrrolate Option B Atropine Option C Hyoscine Option D Pirenzepine Correct B Option Page 2 of 18 Q. No. 12 Which of the following drugs is safe and preferred for treatment of hypertension in a 0011012 pregnant woman? Option A Hydrochlorthiazide Option B Lisinopril Option C Alpha methyldopa Option D Losartan Correct C Option Q. No. 13 Which of the following adverse effect is caused by ethambutol? 0011013 Option A Peripheral neuropathy Option B Hepatitis Option C Impairing visual acuity Option D Reddish discoloration of body secretions Correct C Option Q. No. 14 All of the following oral antidiabetic drugs cause hypoglycaemia in overdose EXCEPT 0011014 Option A Metformin Option B Nateglinide Option C Repaglinide Option D Glibenclamide Correct A Option Q. No. 15 A child aged 6 years is suffering from absence seizure. Which of the following drug is 0011015 suitable for treatment? Option A Phenytoin Option B Phenobarbitone Option C Carbamazepine Option D Ethosuximide Correct D Option Q. No. 16 Which ONE of them is a malignant tumor? 0011016 Option A Lipoma Option B Meningioma Option C Seminoma Option D Leiomyoma Correct C Option Q. No. 17 The confirmatory test for Sickle cell disease is: 0011017 Option A Osmotic fragility test Option B Haemoglobin electrophoresis Option C Erythrocyte sedimentation rate Option D Haemoglobin estimation Page 3 of 18 Correct B Option Q. No. 18 All are Acute phase reactants EXCEPT: 0011018 Option A C-reactive protein Option B Fibrinogen Option C Serum Ferritin Option D Serum Bilirubin Correct D Option Q. No. 19 Which enzyme deficiency results in Panacinar Emphysema? 0011019 Option A Alpha-1- antitrypsin Option B Glucose-6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase Option C Pyruvate kinase Option D Alkaline phosphatase Correct A Option Q. No. 20 Type-1 Diabetes mellitus is characterised by 0011020 Option A Adult & obese Option B Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues. Option C Circulating islet autoantibodies Option D Non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma Correct C Option Q. No. 21 A 30 year old male patient complaining of painless penile ulcer since 2 weeks, what 0011021 will be the appropriate action: Option A Perform a dark field examination of the lesion. Option B Draw blood for herpes antibody test. Option C Prescribe acyclovir for primary genital herpes. Option D No treatment required as it is self limiting infection Correct A Option Q. No. 22 A patient of rheumatic heart disease developed infective endocarditis after dental 0011022 extraction. The most likely organism causing this is Option A Streptococcus viridans. Option B Streptococcus pneumoneae. Option C Streptococcus pyogens. Option D S. aureus. Correct A Option Q. No. 23 In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organisms is 0011023 Option A Liver. Option B Gall-bladder. Page 4 of 18 Option C Small intestines. Option D Large intestines. Correct B Option Q. No. 24 Which of the following is a live viral vaccine 0011024 Option A Salk polio vaccine Option B Hepatitis B vaccine Option C Measles vaccine Option D Rabies vaccine Correct C Option Q. No. 25 A HIV patient has severe protracted diarrhoea. Stool examination reveals oocyst in 0011025 stool. The parasite is Option A Giardia lamblia Option B Entamoeba histolytica Option C Cryptosporidium parvum Option D Strongyloides stercoralis Correct C Option Q. No. 26 First class judicial magistrate can fine rupees upto: 0011026 Option A 1000 Option B 5000 Option C 7000 Option D 10000 Correct D Option Q. No. 27 Commonest type of finger print pattern is: 0011027 Option A Arches Option B Loops Option C Whorls Option D Composite Correct B Option Q. No. 28 Age of consent for sexual intercourse for female in India is: 0011028 Option A 14 years Option B 15 years Option C 18 years Option D 20 years Correct C Option Q. No. 29 Route of entry for British anti Lewisite is: 0011029 Page 5 of 18 Option A Oral Option B Subcutaneous Option C Intravenous Option D Intramuscular Correct D Option Q. No. 30 Target organ toxicity of oxalic acid is: 0011030 Option A Kidney Option B Liver Option C Heart Option D Lungs Correct A Option Q. No. 31 Burning Foot Syndrome is produced due to deficiency of vitamin 0011031 Option A Riboflavin (vitamin B2) Option B Pantothenic acid Option C Biotin Option D Niacin Correct B Option Q. No. 32 Von Gierke's disease is characterized by deficiency of the enzyme 0011032 Option A Glucokinase Option B Glucose-6-phosphatase Option C Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase Option D Glycogen synthase Correct B Option Q. No. 33 Organophosphorus insecticides (melathion) are toxic to human due to 0011033 Option A Reversible inhibitor of acetylcholine esterase Option B Irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholine esterase Option C Allosteric inhibitor of acetylcholine esterase Option D Competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine esterase Correct B Option Q. No. 34 Metabolic acidosis is compensated by 0011034 Option A Increased ventilation Option B Decreased ventilation Option C Increased HCO3- concentration Option D decreased HCO3- concentration Correct A Page 6 of 18 Option Q. No. 35 Albinism is produced due to deficiency of enzyme 0011035 Option A Phenylalanine hydroxylase Option B Tyrosine hydroxylase Option C Tyrosinase Option D Tyrosine transaminase Correct C Option Q. No. 36 Areas with Annual Parasite Incidence (API) per 1000 population per year have 0011036 been classified as high risk areas for Malaria in India. Option A 1 Option B 2 Option C 3 Option D 5 Correct B Option Q. No. 37 which of the following drug is NOT used in the drug regimen of Revised National 0011037 Tuberculosis Control Program (RNTCP), for Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) Tuberculosis? Option A Kanamycin Option B Levofloxacin Option C Pyrizinamide Option D Rifampicin Correct D Option Q. No. 38 The amount of Oral Rehydration Solution required during first 4 hours during 0011038 management of dehydration is ______ml per kg of body weight. Option A 25 Option B 50 Option C 75 Option D 100 Correct C Option Q. No. 39 Platelet count less than _______ cells/mm3 is one of the criteria for probable 0011039 diagnosis of Dengue Fever. Option A 1,50,000 Option B 2,00,000 Option C 2,50,000 Option D 3,00,000 Correct A Option Q. No. 40 Which of the following is NOT the risk factor for Cancer of Cervix? 0011040 Option A High socio-economic status Option B Multiparity Option C Oral contraceptive pill use Page 7 of 18 Option D Human Papilloma Virus Correct A Option Q. No. 41 __________is a long-term index of glucose control. 0011041 Option A Blood glucose Option B Glucose in urine Option C Glycosylated hemoglobin Option D Serum cholesterol Correct C Option Q. No. 42 According to WHO definition of "Blindness", visual acuity of less than_______(Snellen) 0011042 or its equivalent is regarded as blindness. Option A 3/60 Option B 6/18 Option C 1/60 Option D 6/60 Correct A Option Q. No. 43 First dose of Vitamin A given to a child at 9 months is________IU. 0011043 Option A 50,000 Option B 1,00,000 Option C 1,50,000 Option D 2,00,000 Correct B Option Q. No. 44 Which of the following Intrauterine Contraceptive Device has lowest pregnancy rate? 0011044 Option A Cu-7 Option B TCu200 Option C Lippes Loop Option D Levonorgestrel IUD Correct D Option Q. No. 45 The Apgar score is taken at ____ minute and again at _____ minutes after birth, as a 0011045 part of immediate neonatal care. Option A 1&7 Option B 1&5 Option C 1&4 Option D 2&6 Correct B Option Q. No. 46 Protein content of Green Gram (Mung dal) per 100 gm is ______gm. 0011046 Option A 17.1 Page 8 of 18 Option B 9.8 Option C 24.5 Option D 33.6 Correct C Option Q. No. 47 For Hepatitis B vaccination, which of the following is the correct dose schedule? 0011047 Option A Birth, 6 weeks & 10 weeks Option B 6 weeks, 8 weeks & 10 weeks Option C 6 weeks, 10 weeks & 14 weeks Option D 6 weeks, 10 weeks & 6 months Correct C Option Q. No. 48 In case of animal bites, the observation period for domestic dogs and cats is _____ 0011048 days to ensure the rabies status of the concerned animal. Option A 10 Option B 20 Option C 30 Option D 42 Correct A Option Q. No. 49 A person having Body Mass Index of 27.3 will be labeled as __________. 0011049 Option A Underweight Option B Normal weight Option C Obese Class II Option D Pre-obese Correct D Option Q. No. 50 ____________ is the leading cause of maternal deaths in India. 0011050 Option A Hemorrhage Option B Sepsis Option C Obstructed labour Option D Abortion Correct A Option Q. No. 51 Which of the Following is correct ECG finding in Hypokalemia ? 0011051 Option A Increased PR interval with ST depression Option B Increased PR interval with peaked T wave Option C Prolonged QT interval with T wave inversion Option D Decreased QT interval with ST depression Correct A Option Q. No. 52 A 70-yr old man with no previous significant medical history, with sudden syncope. Page 9 of 18 0011052 Which of the following is the most probably diagnosis ? Option A Vasovagal Shock Option B Pulmonary Embolism Option C Complete Heart block Option D Temporal lobe epilepsy Correct C Option Q. No. 53 A 63 Yr old man has angina , syncope and congestive heart failure. Most probably 0011053 may be suffering from Option A Mitral Stenosis Option B Tricuspid regurgitation Option C Aortic stenosis Option D Aortic regurgitation Correct C Option Q. No. 54 Calculate the Glasgow coma scale of a head injury patient ,who opens eyes to painful 0011054 stimuli, confused and localized the pain Option A 7 Option B 9 Option C 11 Option D 13 Correct C Option Q. No. 55 Which of the following cause normal anion gap Metabolic Acidosis ? 0011055 Option A Cholera Option B Starvation Option C Ethylene glycol Poisoning Option D Lactic Acidosis Correct A Option Q. No. 56 Which of the following is correct about the type-2 respiratory failure ? 0011056 Option A Low pO2 and low pCO2 Option B Low PO2 and high pCO2 Option C Normal pO2 and high pCo2 Option D Low pO2 and normal pCO2 Correct A Option Q. No. 57 A patient has got a blunt chest trauma presented to casualty with BP-80/50 mm Hg, 0011057 PR-100/min and engorged neck veins. What is the most probable diagnosis? Option A Pneumothorax Option B Right Ventricular failure Option C Cardiac tamponade Option D Hemothorax Correct Page 10 of 18 Option C Q. No. 58 Commonest causative organism for Lobar Pneumonia is 0011058 Option A Staphylococcus Aureus Option B Streptoccus pyogenes Option C Streptococcus pneumoniae Option D Haemophilus influenzae Correct C Option Q. No. 59 A patient has IDDM diagnosed at age of 15 years. Which of the following is the most 0011059 reliable indicator for Diabetic nephropathy ? Option A Urine albumin < 50mg per day in three consecutive samples Option B Urine protein > 550 mg per day for three consecutive samples Option C Development of Diabetic retinopathy Option D Hematuria Correct B Option Q. No. 60 Which of the following is the drug of choice in Paroxismal supraventricular tachycardia 0011060 (PSVT) ? Option A Amiodarone Option B Lignocaine Option C Quinidine Option D Adenosine Correct D Option Q. No. 61 Commonest Childhood Malignancy is 0011061 Option A Neauoblastoma Option B Leukemia Option C Retino blastoma Option D Wilm's tumor Correct B Option Q. No. 62 Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on 0011062 Option A Cord blood Option B 24 hrs after birth Option C 48 hrs after birth Option D 72 hrs after birth Correct A Option Q. No. 63 Chelation therapy is use for which anemia 0011063 Option A Thalassemia Option B G6PD Option C IDA Page 11 of 18 Option D Megaloblastic anemia Correct A Option Q. No. 64 All of the following are true about febrile convulsion EXCEPT: 0011064 Option A Occurs between 6 mo - 5 yrs Option B Temperature is generally more than 38o C Option C convulsions occur early in the episode Option D generally focal in nature Correct D Option Q. No. 65 Only contraindication for DPT vaccination is 0011065 Option A Progressive neurological disease within 7 days of previous dose Option B Cough Option C Fever Option D Diarrhea Correct A Option Q. No. 66 X ray abdomen is done in standing position to detect 0011066 Option A Renal stone Option B Gall stone Option C Intestinal obstruction Option D Carcinoma of stomach Correct C Option Q. No. 67 Barium meal study is useful to detect 0011067 Option A Carcinoma of colon Option B Duodenal ulcer Option C Colonic diverticula Option D I.C. junction koch'S Correct B Option Q. No. 68 Intravenous pyelography is contraindicated in patient 0011068 Option A Renal stone Option B Bladder stone Option C Renal insufficiency Option D Renal anomaly Correct C Option Q. No. 69 Which of the following investigation does not produce risk of radiation? 0011069 Option A Ultra sonography Page 12 of 18 Option B Barium study Option C PET CT Option D M.C.U Correct A Option Q. No. 70 While performing abdominal ultrasonography full bladder is required to see 0011070 Option A Stomach Option B Intestine Option C Appendix Option D Uterus Correct D Option Q. No. 71 Which of the following is NOT a function of gallbladder - 0011071 Option A Reservior of bile Option B Concentration of bile Option C Secretion of mucous Option D Secretion of bile salts Correct D Option Q. No. 72 Best diagnostic method for breast lump is 0011072 Option A USG Option B Mammogram Option C Biopsy Option D FNAC Correct C Option Q. No. 73 This is used for forceful irrigation and suction in clot retention in urinary bladder 0011073 Option A Sump Suction Option B 10 cc Syringe Option C Romovac Drain Option D Ellicks Evacuator Correct D Option Q. No. 74 Suture Materials are classified according 0011074 Option A Sources Option B Numbers of fibers Option C Absorbability Option D All of the above Correct D Option Q. No. 75 Page 13 of 18 0011075 Most common cause of thyroiditis is Option A Reidl's thyroiditis Option B Subacute thyroiditis Option C Hashimoto's thyroiditis Option D Viral thyroiditis Correct C Option Q. No. 76 Gas sterilization by 0011076 Option A Ethylene Oxide Option B N2O Option C Formalin Option D Ethylene Oxide and Formalin Correct D Option Q. No. 77 Ulcerative colitis starts in 0011077 Option A descending colon Option B transverse colon Option C caecum Option D rectum Correct D Option Q. No. 78 Closed gauze piece is used as bandage having 0011078 Option A 12 x 12 Fibres PSI Option B 16 x 16 Fibres PSI Option C 8 x 8 Fibres PSI Option D 20 x 20 Fibres PSI Correct B Option Q. No. 79 Normal range of serum potassium (mEq/lit). 0011079 Option A 2.5-3.5 Option B 3.5-5.5 Option C 5.5-7.5 Option D none of above Correct B Option Q. No. 80 Which of the following renal stones are radioluscent 0011080 Option A Oxalate stones Option B Phosphate stones Option C Cysteine stones Option D Uric acid stones Page 14 of 18 Correct D Option Q. No. 81 March fracture is fracture of 0011081 Option A 2nd metatarsal Option B 4th metatarsal Option C Cuboid Option D Tibia Correct A Option Q. No. 82 Amputation is often not required in 0011082 Option A Gas gangrene Option B Burger's disease Option C Chronic osteomyelitis Option D Diabetic gangrene Correct C Option Q. No. 83 Avascular necrosis of bone is most common in 0011083 Option A Scapula Option B Scaphoid Option C Calcaneus Option D Pisiform Correct B Option Q. No. 84 Commonest dislocation of the hip is 0011084 Option A Posterior Option B Anterior Option C Central Option D Inferior Correct A Option Q. No. 85 Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to compression of 0011085 Option A Radial nerve Option B Ulnar nerve Option C Median nerve Option D Posterior interoseus nerve Correct C Option Q. No. 86 Trachoma is caused by 0011086 Option A C. Psittaci Option B C. Trachomitis Page 15 of 18 Option C C. Psittaci and C. Trachomitis Option D None Correct C Option Q. No. 87 Snowflake cataract is characteristic feature of 0011087 Option A Parathyroid tetany Option B Galacoremia Option C Myotonic dystrophy Option D Diabetes mellitus Correct D Option Q. No. 88 Vision 2020 is a global initiation for elimination of avoidable blindness is based on 0011088 Option A To reduce prevalence by 25% from the baseline of 2010 Option B Every living person have right Option C Every living person have right to sight Option D All of the above Correct D Option Q. No. 89 Topical aneasthesia is used for 0011089 Option A Phacoemulsification Option B Corneal surgeries Option C Conjunctival malignancy Option D None of the above Correct A Option Q. No. 90 Wave length of excimer laser is (in Nanometer): 0011090 Option A 133 Option B 163 Option C 193 Option D 223 Correct C Option Q. No. 91 B tympanogram seen in 0011091 Option A Serous otitis media Option B Ossicular discontinuity Option C Otosclerosis Option D All of the above Correct A Option Q. No. 92 Oto acoustic eminence arise from 0011092 Page 16 of 18 Option A Inner hair cells Option B Outer hair cells Option C Both inner and outer hair cells Option D Organ of cori Correct B Option Q. No. 93 Lombard test is used to diagnose 0011093 Option A Conductive hearing loss Option B Sensorineural hearing loss Option C Mixed hearing loss Option D Non organic hearing loss Correct D Option Q. No. 94 Light house sign is seen in which stage of ASOM 0011094 Option A Stage of suppuration Option B Stage of hyperemia Option C Stage of resolution Option D Stage of pre-suppuration Correct C Option Q. No. 95 The treatment of choice for attico antral variety of chronic suppurative otitis media 0011095 Option A Mastoidectomy Option B Medical management Option C Underlay myringoplasty Option D Insertion of ventilation tube Correct A Option Q. No. 96 Minimum number of antenatal visits in an uncomplicated pregnancy should be: 0011096 Option A 4 Option B 8 Option C 12 Option D 16 Correct A Option Q. No. 97 Which antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in pregnancy? 0011097 Option A Methyldopa Option B Hydralazine Option C ACE inhibitors Option D Nifedipine Correct C Option Page 17 of 18 Q. No. 98 Active phase of labor starts at __________ cm of dilatation of cervix. 0011098 Option A 2.5 Option B 4 Option C 6 Option D 10 Correct B Option Q. No. 99 Which drug is used for treatment of vaginal candidiasis? 0011099 Option A Fluconazole Option B Metronidazole Option C Doxycycline Option D Azithromycin Correct A Option Q. No. 100 Choice of contraception in woman with heart disease is: 0011100 Option A IUCD Option B Mala-N Option C Inj. DMPA Option D Condom Correct D Option Page 18 of 18  Question Paper and Answer Key for RUHS Medical Officers Recruitment Examination - 2015 Q. No. 1 The only muscle which depresses the mandible is - 0011001 Option A Masseter Option B Lateral pterygoid Option C Medial pterygoid Option D Temporalis Correct Option B Q. No. 2 Secretomotor nerve supply to Parotid gland passes through - 0011002 Option A Submandibular ganglion Option B Pterygopalatine ganglion Option C Otic ganglion Option D Ciliary ganglion Correct Option C Q. No. 3 Filumterminale is continuation of 0011003 Option A Dura mater Option B Arachnoid mater Option C Grey mater Option D Pia mater Correct Option D Q. No. 4 Adenohypophysis of pituitary gland develops from - 0011004 Option A Pouch of Douglas Option B Floor of Diencephalon Option C Rathke's pouch Option D 2nd pharyngeal pouch Correct Option C Q. No. 5 Tympanic membrane develops from which germ layer - 0011005 Option A Ectoderm Option B Endoderm Option C Mesoderm Option D All the above Correct Option D Q. No. 6 Na K ATPase has a coupling ratio - 0011006 Option A 1:2 Option B 2:3 Option C 1:3 Option D 3:2 Correct Option D Q. No. 7 Factors increase prolactin secretion includes all except: 0011007 Option A TRH Option B Phenothiazine Option C Sleep Option D Glucose Correct Option D Q. No. 8 Sperm fuses with membrane of ovum by the help of: 0011008 Option A Fertilin Option B Acrosin Option C Progesterone Option D Estrogen Correct Option A Q. No. 9 Principal peptides found in enteric nervous system includes all except 0011009 Option A Galanin Option B GRP Option C CCK Option D Somatomedin Correct Option D Q. No. 10 Action potential is produced by - 0011010 Option A Sodium influx Option B Sodium influx and potassium efflux Option C Potassium influx Option D Potassium efflux Correct Option B Q. No. 11 Which of the following enzyme is deficient in Gaucher's disease - 0011011 Option A Adipolytic lipase Option B Glucosaminidase Option C Iduronatesulfatase Option D Beta gluco-cerebrosidase Correct Option D Q. No. 12 Which of the following is not true regarding prostaglandins - 0011012 Option A Increases uterine contraction Option B Increases blood pressure Option C Causes bronchodilatation Option D Inhibits gastric secretion Correct Option B Q. No. 13 Which aminoacid is used for synthesis of haeme - 0011013 Option A Tyrosine Option B Histidine Option C Glycine Option D Serotonin Correct Option C Q. No. 14 Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross placental barrier - 0011014 Option A Ig A Option B Ig D Option C Ig E Option D Ig G Correct Option D Q. No. 15 Affinity of Hb to CO is - 0011015 Option A 50 times more than O2 Option B 140 times more than O2 Option C 170 times more than O2 Option D 210 times more than O2 Correct Option D Q. No. 16 Which of the following represents individual dose calculation of a drug - 0011016 Option A In