Question Bank PDF

Exam 1 1. The Gal4-UAS system can be used in Drosophila to study behaviors by shining light on the organism and activating transgenic constructs via channel rhodopsins. In this experimental approach, the Gal4 construct dictates _____________, the UAS construct dictates _________...

Exam 1 1. The Gal4-UAS system can be used in Drosophila to study behaviors by shining light on the organism and activating transgenic constructs via channel rhodopsins. In this experimental approach, the Gal4 construct dictates _____________, the UAS construct dictates __________ , and when both constructs are present in ____________ cells, can make a specific behavior occur. a. location; activity; the same 2. During which phase of an action potential does membrane permeability to Na+ exceed membrane permeability to K+? a. Rising and overshoot phases 3. Subthreshold current injected into an axon flows _______ along the axon and _______ with distance from the site of injection. a. passively; decays 4. In positron emission tomography (PET), a reconstruction of _______ is obtained by injecting short-lived radioactive substances into the subject's bloodstream. a. brain activity 5. Presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons that form _______ synapses are connected via _______. a. electrical; gap junctions 6. Which glial cell type serves as a resident immune cell in the central nervous system? a. Microglia 7. Which statement best describes the function of a neuron with multiple, highly branched dendrites and one axon? a. It integrates information from many neurons. 8. There is an excess of _______ in the extracellular compartment, relative to the intracellular compartment. a. Na+, Cl–, and Ca2+ 9. Which statement about active ion transporters is true? a. They move certain ions against the concentration gradient. 10. The proteins that establish ionic gradients are called a. active transporters. 11. Which transporter plays a key role in maintaining the concentration gradients of ions in the brain that are critical for generating electrical signals? a. Na+/K+ ATPase pump 12. An action potential occurs if current injected into a neuron _______ the neuron to reach _______ potential. a. depolarizes; threshold 13. The part of a synapse to which the contents of synaptic vesicles bind is called the a. Receptor. 14. Which property is characteristic of Na+ channels but not K+ channels? a. Ability to inactivate 15. Which stimulus is most likely to evoke an action potential? a. Large depolarizing current pulse. 16. Ion channels that are involved in generation of action potentials open or close in response to a. Voltage. 17. The amplitude of the action potential of a given neuron is a. always the same. 18. Which substance binds only at the extracellular domain of a ligand-gated ion channel? a. Neurotransmitter 19. Which statement correctly differentiates between the passive and active current in a myelinated axon? a. The active current flows only in the nodes of Ranvier, unlike the passive current. 20. The voltage clamp method controls the _______ at any desired level. a. membrane potential 21. Which process(es) underlie(s) the refractory period? a. The slow time course of turning off K+ conductance activation and the persistence of Na+ conductance inactivation. 22. Which statement best describes the Nernst equation? a. It relates the equilibrium potential of an ion to its intra- and extracellular concentrations. 23. Which statement best describes most neurons? a. They are polarized. 24. Membrane potential depolarizes, Na+ channels open, Na+ current increases, _______. a. K+ channels open 25. How does membrane permeability to K+ (PK) and Na+ (PNa) change during an action potential? a. PK exceeds PNa at rest; PNa temporarily increases during the action potential. 26. The catalytic domain of a protein kinase a. transfers a phosphate group to the relevant amino acid of the target protein. 27. Which event is the first in the series of events that take place during chemical synaptic transmission? a. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open. 28. The K+ channel is made up of _______, each of which contains helical membrane-spanning domains with a _______ between them. a. four subunits; pore loop 29. At which point during signal transmission at a chemical synapse is exocytosis occurring? a. During neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft. 30. What is the net charge transported by one cycle of the Na+/ K+ ATPase pump? a. One positive charge leaves the cell 31. The stronger the stimulus, the _______ action potentials. a. higher the frequency of 32. Cholera toxin locks the Gs subunit into an active state, in that GTP is bound and cannot be hydrolyzed back to GDP to turn off the subunit. What effect will cholera toxin have in the cell? a. Increased cyclic AMP levels will lead to increased protein kinase A activation. 33. The resting membrane potential typically ranges from _______ to _______. a. –40 mV; –90 mV 34. Which state of the plasma membrane does not occur during an action potential? a. Resting phase 35. In a two-compartment model of a cell with a K+-permeable membrane, at K+ equilibrium potential, there is _______ flux of K+ ions. a. no net 36. Which cell produces myelin in the nerves of the peripheral nervous system? a. Schwann cell 37. Which substances diffuse through connexon channels between pre- and postsynaptic neurons? a. All of the above 38. Which feature of an electrical synapse allows synchronizing the electrical activity of multiple neurons? a. Bidirectional transmission of electrical signals. 39. In what way are ion channels similar to active transporters? a. Both are proteins. 40. During the overshoot phase of an action potential, membrane potential briefly reaches a value near _______ mV. a. +50 41. Which second messenger originates from both extracellular and intracellular compartments? a. Ca2+ 42. Which of the following distinguishes axons from dendrites? a. Axons are longer than dendrites are. Exam 2 1. What characteristic(s) make(s) Aplysia californica a practical model organism for studying the nervous system? a. Its large neurons. 2. Monocular axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) terminate in layer 4 to create which type of organization? a. Ocular dominance columns 3. What would happen if Mg2+ was not expelled from NMDA channels? a. LTP would not occur. 4. A human's perception of pitch corresponds to the _______ of a sound wave; perception of loudness corresponds to the _______ of a sound wave. a. frequency; amplitude 5. Which of the following morphological changes can occur as a result of LTP induction? a. All of the above 6. What type of movement do the saccule and utricle respond to, respectively? a. Vertical; horizontal 7. A 500-Hz signal from a speaker located to the left of a study participant will reach its target neuron in the ______ superior olive from the left ear _______ compared to the same neuron from the right ear. a. medial; sooner 8. What is the main function of the ossicles? a. Transfer vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window. 9. Which statement about rod and cone convergence in the retina is true? a. Convergence allows rods to pool signals, generating larger responses in bipolar cells. 10. How would the firing rate of a person's vestibular nerve fibers change as she accelerated from zero to 40 mph in a car, and then sustained that speed? a. Firing rate would increase only while she accelerated. 11. Which property best differentiates the types of cones? a. The photopigments they contain 12. Which reflex allows a person to visually focus on an object as the head rotates? a. Vestibulo-ocular reflex 13. The sensory system that processes information regarding self-motion, head position, and spatial orientation is the _______ system. a. Vestibular 14. An object located in the superior, temporal quadrant of the visual field would be mapped on which quadrant of the retina? a. Inferior, nasal 15. Which statement about P ganglion cells as compared to M ganglion cells is true? a. They have smaller cell bodies. 16. Rapidly adapting fibers are most likely to provide information about the _______ of a stimulus. a. Movement 17. How would the firing of an ON-center ganglion cell respond as a light moved from the edge of the receptor field to the center of the receptive field? a. It would increase. 18. Which Ca2+-dependent protein exhibits prolonged activity (1-30 sec) as a result of activity that induces LTP? a. CaMKII 19. The hair cells extend out of the _______ in the _______ of the semicircular canals. a. crista; ampulla 20. Which structure(s) connect(s) adjacent stereocilia? a. Tip links 21. Which structure is not a part of the external ear? a. Cochlea 22. Joint receptors are important to perception which information? a. Finger position near the limits of normal range of motion 23. The _______ is inversely proportional to the density of the fibers supplying an area. a. size of the receptive field 24. Which cell type is thought to be responsible for the antagonistic surround of ganglion cells? a. Horizontal 25. LTP represents a lasting increase in the size of EPSP a. following a high-frequency train of stimuli. 26. Which statement about placebos is most accurate? a. Placebos relieve pain in some people by stimulating endogenous opioid receptors. 27. In which region of the brain can all three endogenous opioid peptides be found? a. Periaqueductal gray matter 28. Where are the bodies of the cells that innervate proprioceptors of the face located? a. Mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus 29. Which type of somatosensory afferents transmit information from touch mechanoreceptors to the central nervous system? a. Aβ 30. Which layer of the striate cortex remains monocular? a. 4 31. The auditory nerve connects the cochlea to the _______ in the medulla. a. cochlear nucleus 32. On which body part would the two-point discrimination threshold be shortest? a. Thumb 33. Neurons in the visual cortex respond to which type of stimulus? a. Bars or edges in a particular orientation 34. Which condition(s) must be met to induce LTP? a. All of the above 35. The reason that rods do not contribute to photopic vision is a. their response is saturated. 36. Which statement correctly summarizes the gate theory of pain? a. Flow of ascending pain information is modified by stimulation of low-threshold mechanoreceptors. 37. A dermatome is an area innervated by a. fibers of the cells from a single dorsal root ganglion. 38. Which of the following correctly matches rods and cones with their properties? a. Rods: high sensitivity to light; cones: high spatial resolution 39. During accommodation, the shape of the _______ is changed by the _______ in order to see objects accurately at varying distances. a. lens; ciliary muscle 40. Organization in which region of the brain is represented as a complete somatotopic map? a. Primary somatosensory cortex SI 41. Applying a drug that increases cGMP levels in photoreceptors would cause which effect on a photoreceptor's response to a photon of light (attenuated = reduced response)? a. An attenuated hyperpolarization from normal 42. Which deficit would a lesion restricted to the right side of the spinal cord produce? a. Pain deficit on the left side and mechanosensory deficit on the right side of the body Exam 3 1. Which of the following body areas listed has the greatest area of motor cortex devoted to it? a. Lips 2. The regulation and maintenance of levels of blood compositions and body temperatures in response to a changing external environment by the hypothalamus is called ______________. a. Homeostasis 3. The olfactory bulb does not project to the a. Thalamus. 4. Which experimental technique has been most helpful in mapping the primary motor cortex? a. Cortical stimulation 5. Which motor units are resistant to fatigue? a. Both slow and fast fatigue resistant. 6. Which is the first cortical area of afferent taste pathways? a. Insular cortex 7. Which is a characteristic of Purkinje cells that allows for the high level of convergence and divergence from the granule cells? a. An elaborate dendritic tree that extends perpendicularly to the parallel fibers 8. When the odors of food intermingled with their taste, it is called a. orthonasal and retronasal olfaction. 9. The hypothalamus sits along the wall of the _________ ventricle and is connected to the __________. a. third, pituitary 10. What happens when cortisol is released into the bloodstream? a. It mobilizes energy systems and suppresses the immune system. 11. Which of the following is true of the diffuse modulatory systems of the brain? Choose the correct option. a. Each neuron influences many others, contacting more than 100,000 postsynaptic neurons. 12. Motor neurons with cell bodies in the brainstem are part of which motor system? a. Upper motor neurons 13. The pyramidal cells of the primary motor cortex are located in which cortical layer? a. 5 14. Which function does the reticular formation contribute to? a. Relaxation of muscles during restful periods 15. How does the consequence of a lesion in the hypothalamus differ from one in the dorsal thalamus? Choose the correct option. a. Often fatal disruptions of bodily functions versus discrete sensory or motor deficits 16. While studying Purkinje neurons, you measure sustained long-term potentiation in a Purkinje neuron following stimulation of climbing fibers. What is another characteristic would you expect this neuron to show? a. Expression of zebrin II 17. Lower motor neurons responsible for posture and locomotion are found in the _______ and primarily receive input from upper motor neurons in the _______. a. medial ventral horn; brainstem 18. Which cerebellar structure is correctly paired with its function? a. Vestibulocerebellum—posture 19. After a few minutes of repeated stimulation, _______ motor units can generate only a fraction of their maximum force, whereas _______ motor units maintain maximum force generation after an hour of repeated stimulation (S=Slow; FF=Fast fatigue; FR=Fast fatigue resistant). a. FF; S 20. Where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons, which drive the postganglionic neurons of the ANS, located? a. Brain stem and spinal cord 21. The local circuits in the spinal cord that are fully capable of controlling the timing and coordination of complex locomotion are called a. central pattern generators. 22. The mucus layer and the epithelium, with neural and supporting cells, are collectively called a. the nasal mucosa. 23. The vestibulospinal tract would play a role in which of the following activities? a. Extending your arms to protect yourself after you trip. 24. Between labeled-line and across-neuron pattern (ANP) theories, which one is probably accurate? a. Both 25. Which of the follow statements best describes characteristics of mirror motor neurons? a. all of the above 26. Activity of DA neurons in the VTA are thought to represent a. Reward prediction errors 27. What brain structure controls the ANS? a. Hypothalamus 28. Which is a major function of the cerebellum? a. Analyze errors between intended motor output and actual motor output. 29. Which of the following describes neurohormones? a. Hormones released into the blood by neurons 30. As determined by physiological recordings in awake behaving animals, what kind of stimuli are most likely to activate LC (Locus Coeruleus) neurons? Choose the correct option. a. New, unexpected, nonpainful stimuli 31. Which neurotransmitter is synthesized and released by the raphe nuclei? Choose the correct option. a. Serotonin 32. Which of these is one of the principles that are common to all the diffuse modulatory systems? Choose the correct option. a. The core of each system has a small set of neurons. 33. Which symptom is not caused by lower motor neuron syndrome? a. Impairment of fine movement only 34. Which brain region is important for controlling axial musculature in the neck? a. Superior colliculus 35. Which neurons coil around the middle of intrafusal fibers? a. Group I afferents 36. Which statement about motor neurons is NOT correct? a. A motor unit is all the alpha motor neurons that innervate one muscle. 37. Which synaptic connection would be most affected by the presence of a GABA antagonist in the cerebellum? a. Purkinje cell input onto deep cerebellar nuclear cells 38. What role does vasopressin play when there is a decrease in blood volume? a. It acts on kidneys to increase water retention. 39. Which of the following is NOT a function associated with the Basal Ganglia? a. analysis of intended movement and actual movement 40. What cell type does not have direct contact with Purkinje cells? a. Mossy fibers 41. Which part of the lower motor neuron circuit prevents muscles from generating excessive tension and maintains steady muscle tone during muscle fatigue? a. Golgi tendon organs. 42. Taste cells are not present in which part of the mouth? a. Gums 43. The sympathetic nervous system uses ____________ signaling, and the parasympathetic nervous system uses _____________ signaling. a. adrenergic; cholinergic