Practice Tests PDF

CHAPTER 1 7. A produce grower may place the USDA Organic label on a product if _______ or more of 1.The word olfactory is most closely related to the ingredients are organic. which of the following senses?...

CHAPTER 1 7. A produce grower may place the USDA Organic label on a product if _______ or more of 1.The word olfactory is most closely related to the ingredients are organic. which of the following senses? a. 50% a. Taste b. 75% b. Smell c. 85% c. Touch d. 95% d. Sight CHAPTER 2 2. Total daily calorie (kcal) needs for adults decrease by calories (kcals) for every decade in 1. Which of the following is an example of a people after age 40. subjective food evaluation test? a. 100 a. Triangle test b. 200 b. Spectrophotometry c. 300 c. Measuring volume d. 400 d. Measuring weight 3. Which of the following religions encourage(s) 2. Which of the following is an example of a vegetarian diet? chemical test? a. Buddhism a. Duo-trio b. Hinduism b. Threshold c. Seventh-Day Adventist c. Nutrient analysis d. all of these d. Shortometer 4. Identify the correct statement about 3. In what analytical sensory test is a tester genetically engineered foods. asked to find the minimal detectable level of a a. Genes are programmed by sequencing substance? the amino acids. a. Triangle b. Food can be genetically engineered to b. Flavor profile delay ripening. c. Hedonic c. In the United States, all genetically d. Dilution engineered foods must be labeled. d. Not a single genetically engineered food 4. A line-spread test is a physical test for has been approved by the FDA. measuring a. Sweetness. 5. Which of the following functional food b. meat and baked product tenderness. examples is categorized as a medical food? c. consistency of batters and other viscous a. Tomatoes rich in lycopene foods b. Gluten-free foods d. degree of unsaturation in fats. c. Folate-enriched breads d. Phenylketonuria (PKU) formulas free of 5. A food evaluation containing a range of from phenylalanine “like extremely” to “dislike extremely” is best described as a test. 6. How many calories equal a pound of body a. Discriminative weight? b. Descriptive a. 500 c. Hedonic b. 1000 d. personal preference c. 2500 d. 3500 6. Which chemical test evaluates the degree of a. Triglycerides unsaturation in fats? b. Vitamins a. Electrophoresis c. Minerals b. Enzyme test d. Phytochemicals c. Iodine value test d. Proximate analysis 6. Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein source? 7. What is the chemical method of determining a. Egg the protein, fat, and carbohydrate content of b. Spinach foods called? c. Jell-O a. Proximate analysis d. Carrot b. Fuchsin test c. Benedict and Fehling tests 7. Which of the following foods is an example of d. Peroxide value test monosaturated fat source? a. Butter CHAPTER 3 b. Steak c. Fish 1. What is the word used to describe the d. Olive process by which water splits a larger molecule into two smaller molecules? CHAPTER 4 a. Hydrolysis b. Fission 1. What is the name for any illness transmitted c. Hydration to humans by food? d. Fusion a. Food outbreak b. Food intoxication 2. Sucrose is an example of a(n) c. Foodborne illness a. Monosaccharide d. Food infection b. Disaccharide c. Oligosaccharide 2. HACCP is a(n) designed to prevent from d. polysaccharide occurring. a. inspection program, food outbreaks 3. Which of the following groups is a good b. mandatory program, food outbreaks source of polyun- saturated fatty acids? c. inspection program, foodborne illnesses a. Meats d. food-safety program, foodborne b. Fruits illnesses c. Dairy products 3. Which temperature range represents what is d. Most vegetable oils called “the temperature danger zone” for consumers and retailers, respectively, in food 4. Orange juice that has had calcium added safety? during processing is considered to be. a. between 20°F/–7°C and 80°F/27°C; a. Hydrolyzed between 21°F/–6°C and 75°F/24°C b. Fortified b. between 80°F/27°C and c. Enriched 180°F/82°C;between 81°F/27°C and d. purified 175°F/79°C c. between 40°F/4°C and 5. Which of the following words is used to 140°F/60°C;between 41°F/5°C and describe the group of nonnutritive plant 135°F/57°C compounds that may have protective effects d. between 60°F/16°C and 160°F/71°C; against certain types of cancer? between 61°F/16°C and 155°F/68°C 4. Salmonella bacteria may be found in which d. 2 1⁄5 tablespoons type of food? a. Poultry products 4. When using the muffin method of mixing, b. Vegetable products over-mixing will produce what type of unwanted c. Beef products result? d. All of the above a. Tender b. Tough 5. Which of the following is the safest method for c. Overly moist thawing frozen foods? d. Overly dry a. At room temperature overnight b. In the sun 5. What is the best environment for storing herbs c. In a refrigerator and spices? d. In a sink overnight a. A moist place b. A warm, bright place 6. What is the most common fish toxin-related c. A cool, dry place food poisoning in the United States? d. A hot, moist place a. Red tide b. Pufferfish 6. Which of the following heating methods is c. Ciguatera based on the principle of conduction? d. Histamine a. Heat from an electrical coil or gas flame touches a pan that heats the pan’s 7. Foods considered high-risk for contributing to contents foodborne illness include those that are b. Heated air in an oven rises and cooler a. high in protein and acidity. air moves downward b. high in protein and water. c. Heat is transferred by waves during c. low in protein and acidity. grilling, broiling, and microwaving d. low in water and fat. d. Heat is moved from the coils under a flat-surfaced range to the pot CHAPTER 5 7. The correct sequence for breading is ___ 1. In which cooking method is food simmered in a. egg wash, flour, crumbs a small amount of liquid in a covered pot or b. flour, crumbs, egg wash casserole dish? c. egg wash, crumbs, flour a. Braising d. flour, egg wash, crumbs b. Scalding c. Simmering CHAPTER 6 d. Steaming 1. Both one ounce of meat and one egg contain 2. Food that is cut into very thin, stick-like grams of protein. shapes has been. a. 3 a. Chopped b. 5 b. Minced c. 7 c. Peeled d. 9 d. julienned 2. One teaspoon of fat contains grams of fat 3. Three teaspoons is equivalent to. and 45 calories. a. 1 tablespoon a. 5 b. 1 1⁄2 tablespoons b. 15 c. 2 tablespoons c. 25  d. 30 b. ATP c. Actin 3. AP stands for and EP stands for. d. Collagen a. as planned, eating plan b. amount purchased, edible product 3. Meats are good sources of the mineral , but c. as purchased, edible portion poor sources of the mineral. d. as planned, eating production a. iron, calcium b. chromium, calciu 4. The last day a food product will be of optimal c. calcium, zinc quality is referred to as the. d. zinc, iron a. freshness/quality assurance date b. pull date 4. Which of the following retail cuts of beef c. expiration date would be classi- fied as tender? d. code date a. Top loin steak b. Rump roast 5. The table setting, including the place mat, c. Brisket flatwares, dishes, and glasses, is referred to d. Chuck roast as___ a. Placement 5. For meat to be considered kosher, the animal b. Coding must be: c. Coverage a. slaughtered in the presence of a rabbi d. Cover b. slaughtered with a single stroke of a knife 6. The second highest chef position in the c. completely bled kitchen after the executive chef is chef. d. All of the above a. sauce 6. What is the most flavorful, tender USDA b. Pantry grade of meat? c. pastry a. Choice d. sous b. Select c. Prime 7. Which of the following basic types of meal d. Grade 1 service is the most formal? a. French 7. What term is used to describe tying thin b. Russian sheets of fat or bacon over lean meat to keep it c. Family moist during cooking? d. American a. Larding b. Barding CHAPTER 7 c. Searing d. Au jus 1. The most important influence on the tenderness of meat is: CHAPTER 8 a. the animal’s age b. Diet 1. What is the name for chickens that are older c. cut (location on the animal’s body) and larger than broilers/fryers? d. marbling a. Capons b. Roasters 2. What is the most abundant protein in c. Cornish game hens connective tissue? d. Roosters a. Cholesterol 2. Contrary to popular belief, the level of in b. fish that has been sliced from top fin to poultry is similar to that of other meats. bottom fin. a. Carbohydrate c. fish body that is entirely intact. b. white meat d. fish from which the head, tail, fins, c. Cholesterol scales, and entrails have been removed. d. fiber 2. Which of the following fish are good sources 3. How long should it take an 8- to 12-pound of omega-3 fatty acids? turkey to thaw in a 40°F refrigerator? a. Flounder and grouper a. 3–5 days b. Halibut and haddock b. 2–3 days c. Salmon and mackerel c. 2–5 days d. Puffer and cod d. 1–2 days 3. Identify the term used to describe the 4. A mirepoix is defined as a 2:1:1 ratio of the separation of fish flesh into flakes that occurs as following veg- etables flavored with spices and the steak or fillet ages. herbs: a. Roping a. carrots, onions, celery. b. Gaping b. potatoes, onions, carrots. c. Stripping c. onions, potatoes, carrots. d. Slicing d. onions, celery, carrots. 4. What is the name of the process used to 5. Poultry is sufficiently cooked when the internal remove the “sand vein” or intestine from fresh temperature reaches what level? shrimp? a. 125°F (52°C) a. Deveining b. 145°F (63°C) b. Sand veining c. 165°F (74°C) c. Incising d. 185°F (85°C) d. Shelling 6. A good rule of thumb is to purchase 5. Which of the following is a crustacean? approximately pound(s) of poultry (with the a. Scallop exceptions of geese, duck, or turkey) per person b. Clam to be served. c. Oyster a. 1⁄4 d. Crab b. 1⁄2 c. 1 6. A food product consisting of compacted rice d. 1 1⁄2 served with raw fish, cooked fish or shellfish, 7. What term is used to describe poultry that vegetables, and/or spices is called. have had their entrails (inner organs) removed a. Sashimi from their body cavity? b. Sushi a. Tressed c. Ceviche b. Unstuffed d. Surumi c. Eviscerated d. Basted 7. Canned fish can be stored on the shelf for ____ months. CHAPTER 9 a. 3 b. 6 1. A dressed fish is described as: c. 12 a. whole fish with entrails removed. d. 24 CHAPTER 10 a. Pasteurized b. Prebiotics 1. The primary carbohydrate in milk is ____ c. Probiotics a. Sucrose d. Medical foods b. Glucose c. Lactose CHAPTER 11 d. fructose 1. Based on their moisture content, how would 2. The enzyme most commonly used to Swiss and cheddar cheeses be classified? coagulate milk is ____ , which is used in the a. Fresh production of cheese. b. Soft a. Lipase c. Semi-hard b. Lactase d. Hard c. rennin d. papain 2. Which of the following is the most common enzyme used to coagulate milk in cheese 3. What is the name of the heat treatment used production? to kill micro- organisms in milk? a. Glucagon a. Pasteurization b. Rennin b. Homogenization c. Insulin c. Filtration d. Lipase d. Evaporation 3. What is the name for the process by which 4. The curdling of milk or cream that sometimes cheese is exposed to controlled temperatures occurs when preparing dishes such as scalloped and humidity during aging? potatoes or those containing tomato products or a. Curdling asparagus is due to the presence of _____ b. Boiling a. Phytochemicals c. Curing b. Sugar d. Blistering c. alkaline ingredients d. polyphenolic compounds 4. Enzymes are often used to coagulate milk, but milk can also be coagulated through the use 5. What are the two main types of protein found of ____. in milk? a. Lactose a. Rennin and albumin b. milk proteins b. Whey and albumin c. Bases c. Albumin and immunoglobulin d. Acids d. Casein and whey 5. Which type of cheese is produced by a 6. The ingredient in milk that contributes to a process of blending varieties of natural cheese, rich, creamy mouthfeel is. with or without heat, and mix- ing them with a. protein other ingredients? b. Fat a. Colby c. Carbohydrate b. Cheddar d. fiber c. Process d. Feta 7. What are foods with live microbrial food ingredients that have a beneficial effect on 6. Cheese averages _____ kcal and _____ g of human health called? fat per ounce  a. 50,5 6. What type of eggs should never be served to b. 100, 9 the very young, the elderly, or c. 150, 15 immune-compromised (HIV, cancer, etc.) d. 200, 20 individuals? 7. The _____ content of cheese determines a. Dried whether or not if can be frozen. b. Pasteurized a. Carbohydrate c. Liquid b. Fat d. Raw c. Protein d. Water 7. One large egg contains approximately a. 50 calories (kcal), 15 g of protein, 10 g CHAPTER 12 of fat, and 150 mg of cholesterol. b. 75 calories (kcal), 5 g of protein, 5 g of 1. The white of an egg is also referred to as the fat, and 215 mg of cholesterol. _____ c. 100 calories (kcal), 10 g of protein, 10 g a. Albumen of fat, and 250 mg of cholesterol. b. Beta-carotene d. 150 calories (kcal), 15 g of protein, 15 g c. yolk sac of fat, and 300 mg of cholesterol. d. air cell CHAPTER 13 2. What is the name of the method for determining egg quality by viewing eggs against 1. Which of the following would be classified as a light? a root vegetable? a. Ripping a. Asparagus b. Sizing b. Broccoli c. Candling c. Carrot d. Emulsifying d. Garlic 3. In terms of food preparation, eggs are very 2. Carotenoids found in vegetables are functional for _____. susceptible to damage from which of the a. Emulsifying following factors? b. Binding a. Light c. Foaming b. Heat d. All of the above c. Oxygen d. All of the above 4. As eggs age, what happens to the size of the air cell? 3. What is the name of the pigment responsible a. It increases. for the green color of plants? b. It decreases. a. Carotene c. It stays the same. b. Chlorophyll d. It disappears. c. Lycopene d. Xanthophyll 5. What type of eggs should not be cooked in a microwave? 4. Broccoli, cabbage, cauliflower, and kale a. Scrambled belong to the family of vegetables that may b. Poached have protective effects against cancer. c. Shirred a. Carotenoid d. Whole b. Phytochemical c. fibrous d. Cruciferous a. ground or mashed whole cooked fruit b. whole fruit, halves, or chunks 5. Tempeh is the name of a meat alternative c. the juice of cooked fruit with added made from whole _____ that have been sugar and pectin fermented d. the juice of fruits with thin slices of fruit a. Pinto beans and rind b. Soybeans 5. A fruit juice beverage that contains not less c. Lentils than 30 to 40 percent fruit juice would be d. Navy beans classified as a(n) _____. a. juice drink 6. Legumes are a group of vegetables that b. Nectar include: c. Ade a. tomatoes, eggplant, and zucchini. d. Juice b. potatoes, peppers, and beets. c. brussels sprouts, cabbage, and 6. Fruits are generally low in fat, with three cauliflower. exceptions that include d. beans, peas, and lentils. a. avocados, coconut, and olives. b. figs, dates, and guava. 7. Which vegetable should not be stored in the c. olives, coconut, and pomegranates. refrigerator? d. dates, avocados, and dried fruit. a. Potato 7. What fruit (medium size) has more vitamin C b. Carrots than a medium-sized orange? c. Bean sprouts a. Papaya d. Squash b. Kiwifruit c. Strawberries (1 cup) CHAPTER 14 d. All of these choices 1. What is the term used to describe fruit with CHAPTER 15 seeds con- tained in a central core, such as apples and pears? 1. All soups are based on ______. a. Drupes a. Water b. Frumps b. Bouillon c. Seed cores c. bouquet garni d. Pomes d. stock 2. Identify the correct order for the chemical breakdown of protopectin as a fruit changes 2. What is the term used to describe a cream from immature to overripe. soup made from shellfish? a. Protopectin to pectin to pectic acid a. Foam b. Protopectin to pectic acid to pectin b. Bisque c. Protopectin to oxalic acid to pectin c. Sol d. Protopectin to pectin to oxalic acid d. Consommé 3. The peels of which fruits are commonly used 3. Thick soups are made from stocks that have as zest to add flavor? usually been thickened with some type of___. a. Kiwifruit, watermelon a. white stock b. Lemon, orange, lime b. brown stock c. Grapes, watermelon c. Bisque d. Banana, dates, mangoes d. starch 4. Jams are best described as fruit preserves 4. Besides lettuce, what else may be used as a made from ______ base for a salad?  a. Pasta b. Whole wheat berries b. Rice c. Bulgur wheat c. Cottage cheese d. Farina d. All of the above 4. Refined grains have four vitamins and one 5. Adding acidic fruits to a gelatin salad will mineral added back to them after processing. decrease the pH and result in a salad that is too What is the name for this process? ______. a. Rolling a. Soft b. Fortification b. Rubbery c. Enrichment c. Firm d. Regulating d. tough 6. Gelatin concentration should approximate __. 5. After wheat, the second most common grain a. 1-2%; 1 tbsp of gelatin to 2 cups of used in bread is_____ water a. Corn (cornmeal) b. 4.5%; 4 tbsp of gelatin to 2 cups of b. Oats water c. Rye c. 8-9%; 8 tbsp of gelatin to 2 cups of d. Sorghum water d. 10-11%; 10 tbsp of gelatin to 2 cups of 6. Malt is made from germinated (sprouted) water _____, so it serves as a source of gluten. 7. Fruits such as pineapple, papaya, kiwi, and a. Wheat figs are usually not added to gels because of b. Oat their ____ content. c. Rye a. Acid d. Barley b. Sugar c. Proteolytic enzyme 7. What is the best wheat for producing cake d. Salt flour? a. Sofy CHAPTER 16 b. Hard c. Red 1. Most of the vitamin E in grains is found in d. White what portion of the kernel? CHAPTER 17 a. Husk b. Germ 1. Gliadin and glutenin make up what protein c. Endosperm complex in wheat flours? d. Bran a. Albumin b. Gluten 2. The endosperm of grains is primarily made up c. Quinoa of: d. Glucose a. Starch. b. Protein 2. Too much kneading will result in which type of c. Lipid dough? d. Vitamins. a. Soft b. Uniform 3. Which type of wheat is typically used to make c. Inelastic the Lebanese dish called tabouleh? d. Nonsticky a. Rolled wheat 3. Durum or semolina flour is made from hard sweeter- tasting dextrin molecules in the winter durum wheat and is typically used to presence of dry heat? make which type of product? a. Gelatinization a. Pasta b. Dextrinization b. Bread c. Retrogradation c. Cereal d. Deglazing d. Baked 3. Starches that have been altered to affect their 4. Using excessive leavening will produce what heating times, viscosity, or gelatinization are result in the baked product? referred to as: a. High volume a. Gelled starches b. Low volume b. Smooth starches c. Smooth texture c. Tough starches d. Moistness d. Modified starches 5. Aside from sweetness, sugar influences which 4. A roux is a thickener made by cooking equal of the following characteristics of baked parts flour and _____. products? a. Fat a. Volume b. Water b. Moistness c. Stock c. Color d. Starch d. All of the above 5. What two ingredients are combined to make a 6. Stiff doughs are used primarily to make __. slurry? a. Pasta, pastry, and pie dough a. Flour, hot water b. Biscuits, rolls, and scones b. Flour, starch c. C. cream puffs, muffins, and quick bread c. Scratch, cool liquid d. Pancakes, popovers, and shortened d. Cool liquid, hot liquid cakes 6. The increase in volume, viscosity, and 7. Which type of commercial agent encourages translucency of starch granules heated in a gluten development? liquid is referred to as ____. a. Maturing a. Gelatinization b. Dough conditioning b. Dextrinization c. Reducing c. Retrogradation d. Oxidizing d. Deglazing 7. The seepage of water out of an aging gel CHAPTER 18 because of the contraction of the gel is called _____. 1. Amylose has a ____ structure, whereas amylopectin is ______. a. Gelatinization a. Branched, smooth b. Dextrinization b. Linear, branched c. Retrogradation c. Branched, linear d. Deglazing d. Linear, smooth 2. What is the word used to describe the breakdown of starch molecules to smaller, CHAPTER 19 a. Dough b. Pour batter 1. The two most important factors when c. Drop batter preparing quick breads are the _____ of the d. Thick batter batter and the _____. a. Thickness, flour b. Fluidity, liquid CHAPTER 20 c. Consistency, temperature d. Creaminess, fluidity 1. Breads leavened with carbon dioxide produced by baker’s yeast are known as ___. 2. When using the “muffin method” to prepare a. Unleavened breads quick breads, about how many strokes should b. Crisp breads you use when mixing the wet and dry c. Yeast breads ingredients together? d. Baker’s breads a. One b. A few 2. What is the term used to describe the quick c. 5 to 10 expansion of dough by expanding gases during d. 20 to 25 the first 10 minutes of baking? a. Quick rise 3. What is the ratio of liquid to flour in popover b. Gas expanse batters? c. Gas rise a. 1:3 d. Over spring b. 2:1 c. 2:3 3. Whole-wheat bread is a great source of ____, d. 1:1 whereas white bread is a poor source. a. Carbohydrates 4. What type of whole wheat unleavened bread b. Fiber is commonly used in India, Pakistan, and Iran? c. Fat a. Tortilla d. Yeast b. Ghee c. Matzo 4. When baking at altitudes above 3000 feet, d. Chapati liquids need to be _____ and temperatures need to be _____. 5. To which of the following ingredients can the a. Increased, increased difference between scones and biscuits be b. Increased, decreased attributed? c. Decreased, increased a. Flour d. Decreased, decreased b. Eggs c. Baking powder 5. Before it is baked, bagel dough undergoes d. Salt what cooking process? a. Toasting 6. A drop batter is used to prepare _______. b. Microwaving a. Pancakes c. Boiling b. Coffee cakes d. Braising c. Crepes d. Waffles 6. The method of mixing ingredients and beating them together by hand or a mixer without 7. Biscuits, scones, and unleavened breads are kneading is known as the ____ method. made from a ______. a. Straight dough  b. Sponge 6. An important function of sugar is solubility, c. Batter which is defined as: d. Rapid mix a. the degree to which a sugar draws moisture from the air. 7. Scoring a bread refers to: b. a heated sugar solution that turns a. Shaping the dough brown. b. Cutting across the top to prevent the c. the amount of sugar that dissolves in crust from tearing 100 mL of water. c. Punching down on the dough to release d. precipitation out of the solution in the the gases form of crystals d. Rating the bread’s baked flavor 7. High concentrations of sugar in jams act as a CHAPTER 21 preservative due to. a. Fermentation 1. Raw sugar is wade from _____. b. hygroscopicity and osmotic pressure a. Beets c. Caramelization b. Sugar cane d. Crystallization c. Sugar beets d. Molasses CHAPTER 22 2. Which of the following is the sweetest of all 1. Emulsifying agents act as a bridge between granulated sugars? which two substances? a. Fructose a. Water and water b. Powdered sugar b. Water and oil c. Turbinado sugar c. Oil and oil d. White sugar d. Water and vinegar 3. Children under one year of age should not be 2. Increasing the chain length of a saturated fed honey because it may contain _____. fatty acid will ____its melting point. a. C. botulinum spores a. Increase b. E. coli b. Decrease c. Salmonella c. not influence d. G. lamblia d. Saturate 4. The non nutritive sweetener aspartame is 3. Shortenings are solid at room temperature made from which two amino acids? because they have gone through what type of a. Glutamic acid and glutamine process? b. Glycine and phenylalanine a. Fermentation c. Lysine and aspartic acid b. Clarification d. Aspartic acid and phenylalanine c. Emulsification d. Hydrogenation 5. What is the name of the process by which dry sugar is melted to form a brown, viscous 4. The fat replacer olestra is composed of mixture? sucrose and 6 to 8 _____. a. Fermentation a. Amino acids b. Caramelization b. Fatty acids c. Maillard reaction c. Phospholipids d. Crystallization d. Triglycerides 5. Which type of rancidity results from the d. Leavening agent, increases tenderness, exposure of fat to oxygen? and firms egg-white foam a. Regular rancidity b. Oxidative rancidity 4. Which type of cooking vessel is used for c. Hydrolytic rancidity baking bar cookies? d. Flavor rancidity a. Baking sheet b. Baking pan 6. Every vegetable oil has a smoke point and c. Skillet most start at temperature: d. Sauce pan a. within the temperature danger zone of 40°F–140°F (4°C–60°C). 5. Cake flour is not recommended for making b. below boiling at 212°F (100°C). most cookies because it is ___ in protein than c. at frying temperatures of 350°F–450°F hard wheat flour, which reduces cookie spread. (177°C–232°C). a. Lower d. above 420°F (216°C). b. higher c. richer 7. Frying oil needs to be replaced when: d. softer a. it starts to show excessive foaming or smoking. 6. Pastry chefs use three types of ____ frosting b. too much fat is being absorbed by the to fill their delicate pastries. fried foods. a. Flat c. it starts to show a darker, more viscous b. Decorating quality. c. Buttercream d. All of these qualities d. Ganache CHAPTER 23 7. Cakes with a higher _____ content tend to retain their moisture and have longer shelf lives. 1. What is the name for a cake made with fat? a. Butter a. Chocolate b. Sugar b. Shortened c. Protein c. Unshortened d. Flour d. Flat CHAPTER 24 2. Which category of cakes combines qualities of both shortened and unshortened cakes? 1. Which word is used to describe a pastry with a. Leavened a grainy or less flaky texture, created by coating b. Creamed all of the flour with fat? c. Angel food a. Tender d. Chiffon b. Moist c. Tough 3. The cream of tartar in angel food cakes d. Mealy serves which of the following purposes? a. Leavening agent, strengthens egg-white 2. The proportion of what ingredient is probably foam, and acts as a preservative the most important determinant of quality in b. Strengthens egg-white foam, increases pastry, especially in regard to flakiness? tenderness, and whitens color a. Flour c. Increases tenderness, whitens color, b. Sugar and improves volume c. Liquid d. Fat 3. The liquid component of pastry dough is d. invertase important for which of the following? a. Leavening 3. Identify the correct order of steps, from b. Hydration beginning to end, for preparing most types of c. Crispness of the crust candy. d. All of the above a. Cooling, beating, heating, creating a syrup solution 4. Which two types of pastry must be rolled, with b. Creating a syrup solution, heating, a minimum of hand contact, in order to spread cooling, beating the fat and gluten in fine sheets layered on top c. Beating, heating, cooling, creating a of each other? syrup solution a. Plain and thick d. Creating a syrup solution, heating, b. Plain and puff beating, cooling c. Puff and thin d. Thin and laminated 4. Which ingredient is used to ensure that the sugar does not crystallize when preparing 5. If you are baking a pie that has six slices, noncrystalline candies? what size pie pan should you use? a. Emulsifiers a. 9-inch b. Sugars b. 6-inch c. Interfering agents c. 10 inch d. Seeds 6. Cream puffs and eclairs are made from a 5. What is the name of the process by which _____ pastry dough. warmed chocolate is kneaded and aerated by a. Phyllo machines for several days? b. Puff a. Blooming c. Choux b. Enrobing d. Brioche c. Tempering d. Conching 7. Which starch-based thickener should not be used for fruit pies because it will thicken before 6. The process of heating and cooling chocolate the fruit boils? to make it shiny and more resistant to melting is a. Arrowroot called ____. b. Cornstarch a. Conching c. ClearJel* b. Seeding d. Tapioca c. Tempering d. Blooming CHAPTER 25 7. White chocolate is technically not chocolate 1. Fudge is classified as what type of candy? because it does not contain _____. a. Noncrystalline a. Invert sugar b. Crystalline b. Chocolate liquor or cocoa c. Divinity c. Cocoa butter d. Hard d. Conched chocolate 2. The size of the sugar crystals is determined by the rate or speed of ________formation. CHAPTER 26 a. Nuclei b. fat crystal 1. By law, regular ice cream must contain what c. Syrup percentage of milk fat  a. 10% d. Sorbet b. 20% c. 30% CHAPTER 27 d. 40% 1. Deionized water is basically purified water 2. What characteristic(s) of ice cream is/are without _____. influenced by the milk solids-not-fat (MSNF) a. Color content? b. Minerals a. Flavor c. Carbonation b. Body d. steam c. Texture d. All of the above 2. The fizz or bubbles in sparkling water are attributed to which chemical compound? 3. The freezing point for water (sodium chloride) a. Oxygen bromide is added. b. Carbon carbonate a. stays the same c. Carbon dioxide b. Ncreases d. Galactose c. Decreases d. Varies 3. What factor determines whether a coffee is classified as a light, medium, or dark roast? 4. Sherbet is different from ice cream in that it is a. Grinding level ______ based, not milk based. b. Roasting time a. Syrup c. Roasting temperature b. Yogurt d. Decaffeination c. Sorbet d. Ice 4. What chemical compounds found in green tea act as anti- oxidants and may have 5. Why does commercial ice cream have more anticarcinogenic properties? body than homemade ice cream? a. Phenolic compounds a. Larger batches are made b. Phospholipids b. High-tech equipments is used c. Pyroles c. Secret recipes are used d. Phosphates d. Stabilizers 5. What is the principal grain used in beer 6. Commercial ice creams often have _____, production? measured in percent of increased volume from a. Wheat having air pumped into the mixture, which b. Hops makes them softer, creamier, and more c. Malt economical. d. Barley a. Overrun b. Churning 6. The substance(s) _____ is/are added to c. Emulsifiers added some nutraceutical beverages for joint health. d. Milk-solids-not-fat added a. glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate b. omega-3 fatty acids 7. A frozen dairy dessert containing no fat is c. Chromium called ______. d. mangotseen juice a. Gelato b. Sherbet 7. Sulfites are often added to red wines to c. Mellorine maintain their _______.  a. Flavor b. oxygen; carbon dioxide b. Yeast fermentation c. oxygen; ozone c. Color d. humidity; carbon dioxide d. Alcohol content 7. White or grayish patches on frozen food are CHAPTER 28 due to ____. a. Rancidity 1. In fermentation, yeast or bacteria convert b. Humidity which macronutrient to carbon dioxide and c. freezer burn alcohol? d. Irradiation a. Fat b. Water CHAPTER 29 c. Protein d. Carbohydrates 1. Which of the three standards set by the FDA regarding content and quality specify the amount 2. Which form of food preservation uses vinegar of raw product that must be put into a container to increase acidity and keep microorganisms in before liquid is added? check? a. Standards of Identity a. Pickling b. Standards of Fill b. Fermentation c. Standards of Minimum Quality c. Freeze-drying d. Standards of Recall d. Vacuum drying 2. In order for the term fat free to appear on a 3. The ideal temperature for refrigeration is food label, the product must contain less than between 32°F/0°C and ____. how many grams of fat? a. 40°F/4°C a. 1.2g b. 45°F/7°C b. 3.4g c. 55°F/13°C c. 1g d. 60°F/16°C d. 11.2 g 4. Which heating preservation method passes 3. On the Nutrition Facts label, the % Daily Value an electrical current through the food? is based on what number of calories? a. Steaming a. 1,500 b. Ohmic heating b. 2,000 c. Boiling c. 2,500 d. Pasteurization d. 3,000 5. Irradiation is effective for eliminating bacteria, 4. The amount of a food additive that can be yeasts, and molds, but it may not eradicate safely in- gested daily over a person’s lifetime is which specific microorganism? referred to as the _____ a. E. coli a. GRAS list b. Salmonella b. Delaney Clause c. C. botulinum spores c. Acceptable Daily Intake d. Insects d. safe quantity 6. Modified-atmosphere packaging (MAP) 5. One of the main jobs of the Centers for operates by reducing _____ and increasing Disease Control and Prevention is to ___. ______ in the air around the food. a. inspect and grade farm products a. acid; alkalinity b. reduce hunger and malnutrition  c. monitor food labeling 4. A person who specializes in counseling d. track outbreaks of foodborne illnesses people about diabetes is called a ____. a. registered dietitian 6. The FDA defines a health claim as b. certified diabetes educator a. a food able to improve a specific health c. food counselor condition. d. community nutrition specialist b. a food, food component, or dietary supplement ingredient that may reduce 5. The research paper completed by a doctoral disease risk. candidate is called a ____. c. not well enough established to meet the a. Dissertation significant scientific agreement b. Thesis standard. c. research project d. supported by “significant scientific d. defense agreement.” 6. One of the major professional associations 7. “No additive shall be deemed safe if it is found established for food service positions is the. to induce cancer when ingested by man or a. American Dietetic Association animal” is known as b. Institute of Food Technologists a. Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) c. American Culinary Federation Regulations. d. Foodservice Professionals Network b. the Food Code. c. COOL. 7. Culinary training is available through ____ d. the Delaney Clause. a. the American Dietetic Association. b. Certifications. CHAPTER 30 c. culinary institutes, cooking schools, and apprenticeships. 1. The majority of registered dietitians are d. the Institute of Food Technologists. employed within a _____ setting. a. School b. Private practice c. Community d. Clinical 2. One of the major professional associations established for food scientists is the ______. a. American Dietetic Association b. Institute of Food Technologists c. American Culinary Federation d. Foodservice Professionals Network 3. The job of ensuring that food and beverages meet quality standards at each processing step is the responsibility of the______. a. plant manager b. quality control department c. sensory evaluation specialist d. lab technician