PPL Human Performance & Limitations PDF

1. The CARE checklist helps ensure that during operations you A. have all required documentation available. B. have a positive attitude and hope for the best when things go wrong. C. always have an alternative action available. 2. Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous t...

1. The CARE checklist helps ensure that during operations you A. have all required documentation available. B. have a positive attitude and hope for the best when things go wrong. C. always have an alternative action available. 2. Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: A. Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems. B. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. C. Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. 3. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. C. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. 4. What is the antidote for a pilot with an 'invulnerability' attitude? A. Not so fast. Think first. B. It could happen to me. C. Taking chances is foolish. 5. What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling? A. Scud running. B. Peer pressure. C. Mind set. 6. The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to A. complacency. B. fatigue. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 1  C. resignation. 7. When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as A. hyperventilation. B. aerosinusitis. C. aerotitis. 8. When a work overload situation exists... A. Rely on past experience to act automatically B. Think, slow down, and prioritize. C. Reduce the number of information sources to get input from 9. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? A. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. B. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity. C. All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. 10. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as A. hyperventilation. B. aerotitis. C. aerosinusitis. 11. What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? A. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgement. B. Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. C. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). 12. The night blind spot occurs: A. In the center of the field of vision B. Only in your peripheral vision. C. Throughout the entire field of vision. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 2  13. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "invulnerability"? A. It will not happen to me. B. It could happen to me. C. It can not be that bad. 14. Which will almost always affect your ability to fly? A. Over-the-counter analgesics and antihistamines. B. Antibiotics and anesthetic drugs. C. Prescription analgesics and antihistamines. 15. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as A. spatial disorientation. B. hypoxia. C. hyperventilation. 16. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A. Continual flight into instrument conditions. B. Getting behind the aircraft. C. Duck-under syndrome. 17. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying? A. Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. B. Wear sunglasses after sunset until ready for flight. C. Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before the flight. 18. Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements is generally the result of overconfidence, disregarding applicable regulations, or A. lack of flight planning. B. impulsivity. C. physical stress. 19. Which statement is true regarding alcohol in the human system? A. Small amounts of alcohol will not impair flying skills. B. Coffee helps metabolize alcohol and alleviates a hangover. C. Alcohol renders a pilot more susceptible to hypoxia. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 3  20. Which of the following is one of the five traits discovered to be common in pilots who have had accidents in their past? A. A low correlation between traffic safety violations and flying safety mishaps. B. A tendency to be impulsive rather than disciplined, especially in decision making. C. A sense of respect for rules and procedures. 21. Fatigue is one of the most treacherous hazards to flight safety A. because it results in slow performance. B. as it may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made. C. as it may be a function of physical robustness or mental acuity. 22. Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? A. Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability. B. Poor situational awareness, snap judgements, and lack of a decision making process. C. Poor risk management and lack of stress management. 23. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Insufficient carbon dioxide. B. Excessive carbon monoxide. C. Insufficient oxygen. 24. While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? A. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision. B. He flies a little closer, just to show him. C. He is not too concerned; everything will be alright. 25. What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents? A. Mechanical malfunction. B. Structural failure. C. Human error. 26. An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 4  A. compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge. B. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task. C. improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts. 27. During which phase of flight is a pilot at increased odds of experiencing a somatogravic illusion? A. Landing. B. Takeoff. C. Steep turns. 28. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to A. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. B. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate. C. concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. 29. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity? A. Do it quickly to get it over with. B. Not so fast, think first. C. It could happen to me. 30. Aeronautical decision making (ADM) can be described as the pilot's ability for A. sound judgement and good decision making. B. making quick decisive actions. C. interpreting dangerous situations. 31. The three types of stressors that affect decision making skills are A. Environmental, Physiological, and Psychological B. Mechanical, Psychological, and Social C. Mechanical, Psychosocial, and Physiological 32. When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude? A. Not so fast. Think first. B. It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 5  C. Follow the rules. They are usually right. 33. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by A. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud. B. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. 34. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "resignation"? A. I am not helpless. B. Someone else is responsible. C. What is the use. 35. Reliance on electronic navigation A. may cause a pilot to lose proficiency in alternate ways of navigating. B. increases pilot workload. C. increases electronic navigation skills by visual reference. 36. The steps of the "3P" ADM model are... A. Perceive, Process, Perform B. Perceive, Pause, Perfect C. Problem, Pattern, Process 37. Consumption of alcohol A. can severely impair a person for more than 8 hours. B. is of no concern in aviation after 8 hours regardless of amount consumed. C. in small amounts has no effect on judgment and decision-making. 38. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A. visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). B. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. C. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 6  39. What type of stressor can lead to poor decision making? A. Lack of sleep. B. Lack of high workload. C. Lack of motivation. 40. Pilot fatigue is A. easily overcome by using stimulants such as caffeine or engaging in limited physical exercise. B. is negated by the normal adrenalin generated in flight. C. hazardous because it leads to a decrease in the ability to carry out tasks. 41. Fatigue can be evident in others if they A. talk more than usual. B. yawn excessively. C. are overly helpful. 42. The CARE checklist can be used A. before starting operations to evaluate the risks. B. during operations to maintain situational awareness. C. at the end of operations to debrief the crew. 43. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. B. The excessive consumption of alcohol. C. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. 44. Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to undertake a particular flight, regardless of whether or not he or she holds a current medical certificate? A. The pilot. B. The CAAP. C. The medical examiner. 45. A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as A. spatial disorientation. B. hyperventilation. C. hypoxia. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 7  46. What can affect your performance? A. Prescription medications. B. Over the counter medications. C. Over the counter and prescribed medications. 47. What is the antidote for a pilot with a 'macho' attitude? A. I'm not helpless. I can make a difference. B. Taking chances is foolish. C. Follow the rules. They are usually right. 48. Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to A. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. B. complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the "right stuff." C. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. 49. As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the susceptability of dehydration since the A. dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body. B. moist air at altitude helps retain the body's moisture. C. temperature decreases with altitude. 50. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "antiauthority"? A. Rules do not apply in this situation. B. I know what I am doing. C. Follow the rules. 51. What is the antidote to a pilot with an 'impulsivity' attitude? A. Taking chances is foolish. B. I'm not helpless. I can make a difference. C. Not so fast. Think first. 52. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about A. 1 hour. B. 3 hours. C. 4 hours. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 8  53. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by A. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane. B. slowing the breathing rate or breathing into a bag. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. 54. The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by A. imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions. B. a total disregard for any alternative course of action. C. generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. 55. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "macho"? A. Taking chances is foolish. B. I can do it. C. Nothing will happen. 56. Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgement can be effectively counteracted by A. taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. B. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. C. early recognition of hazardous thoughts. 57. Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. B. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds. C. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing. 58. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. B. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement. C. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 9  59. Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recommended for use when flying at night above A. 5,000 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. 12,500 feet. 60. Pilot fatigue is a hazard because A. a tired pilot is a lazy pilot who will neglect tasks. B. the pilot will hurry to complete the flight in order to be able to rest. C. a fatigued pilot is an impaired pilot. 61. In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A. Making a rational judgement. B. Recognizing hazardous thoughts. C. Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation. 62. Pilots should remember the alcohol in one beer (or one ounce of liquor, or four ounces of wine) can be detected for as long as A. a minimum of 1 hour. B. a minimum of 2 hours. C. a minimum of 3 hours. 63. When is ear blockage most likely to occur? A. Upon descent and is aggravated by upper respiratory infection. B. During initial climb-out as expanding air in the middle ear pushes the eustachian tube open. C. During cruise flight as the pressure between the middle ear and aircraft cabin equalizes. 64. An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule A. can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern. B. will always err on the side of caution. C. can fail to perceive operational pitfalls. 65. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in A. loss of muscular power. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 10  B. an increased sense of well-being. C. tightness across the forehead. 66. A pilot can develop good judgement A. only through experience. B. through structured training. C. by accurately emulating their instructors actions. 67. While experiencing a hangover, a pilot A. will have impaired motor and mental responses. B. is no longer under the influence of alcohol. C. may experience discomfort, but no impairment. 68. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as A. altitude increases. B. altitude decreases. C. air pressure increases. 69. An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves A. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. B. understanding the drive to have the "right stuff." C. obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training. 70. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the human body requires about A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. 71. Which statement best defines hypoxia? A. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed. B. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body. C. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles. 72. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A. Look only at far away, dim lights. B. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 11  C. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. 73. What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous? A. Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote. B. Avoid developing this hazardous thought. C. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action. 74. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use A. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. B. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing. C. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30- degree sector. 75. What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process? A. Dealing with improper judgement. B. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. C. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. 76. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? A. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. B. Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover. C. judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. 77. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use A. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing. B. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions. C. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector. 78. What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks? A. Checklists. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 12  B. Flying outside the envelope. C. situational awareness. 79. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A. shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. B. leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft. C. having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. 1. All experienced pilots have fallen prey to, or have been tempted by, one or more of these dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time in their career. Select the answer that best describes these tendencies. A. Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. B. Peer pressure, loss of situational awareness, and operating with inadequate fuel reserves. C. Performance deficiencies due to stress from human factors, such as fatigue, illness, or emotional problems. 2. The three types of stressors that affect decision making skills are A. Environmental, Physiological, and Psychological B. Mechanical, Psychological, and Social C. Mechanical, Psychosocial, and Physiological 3. Aeronautical decision making (ADM) can be described as the pilot's ability for A. sound judgement and good decision making. B. making quick decisive actions. C. interpreting dangerous situations. 4. To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should A. slow the breathing rate. B. swallow or yawn. C. increase the breathing rate. 5. Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 13  A. Eliminate. B. Evaluate. C. Estimate. 6. The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are: A. Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate. B. Determine, eliminate, choose, identify, detect, and evaluate. C. Determine, evaluate, choose, identify, do, and eliminate. 7. To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should A. increase the breathing rate. B. rely on aircraft instrument indications. C. rely on body sensations. 8. When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for the ANTIAUTHORITY/DON'T TELL ME hazardous attitude? A. Not so fast. Think first. B. It won't happen to me. It could happen to me. C. Follow the rules. They are usually right. 9. Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a A. mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. B. decision making process which relies on good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight. C. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. 10. A pilot, after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol, may still be under the influence A. 48 hours later. B. 8 hours later. C. 24 hours later. 11. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 14  management and Aeronautical Decision Making? A. Detect. B. Evaluate. C. Identify. 12. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible. B. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C. Rely on the indications of the flight instruments. 13. Pilot fatigue is a hazard because A. a tired pilot is a lazy pilot who will neglect tasks. B. the pilot will hurry to complete the flight in order to be able to rest. C. a fatigued pilot is an impaired pilot. 14. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Decreased breathing rate. B. Dizziness. C. Euphoria. sense of well-being. 15. The maximum tailwind component of the airplane is 10 knots. The actual tailwind calculated is 11 knots. Other aircraft are continuing to land, so you decide to ignore the limitation and land as well. Which hazardous attitude are you displaying? A. Impulsivity. B. Resignation. C. Anti-authority. 16. Humans are characteristically A. poor monitors of automated systems. B. disposed to expect automation to fail often. C. disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. 17. What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous? A. Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote. B. Avoid developing this hazardous thought. C. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 15  18. Which of the following is an effect of acute fatigue on performance? A. Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements. B. Heightened acuity in peripheral vision. C. Mild euphoria, impaired judgment, and increased reaction time. 19. What does good flight deck stress management begin with? A. Eliminating life and flight deck stress issues. B. Knowing what causes stress. C. Good life stress management. 20. Risk management by the pilot A. applies only on passenger/cargo IFR flights. B. requires continuing education and certified academic training to understand the principles. C. is improved with practice and consistent use of risk management tools. 21. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "resignation"? A. I am not helpless. B. Someone else is responsible. C. What is the use. 22. The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot A. developing the "right stuff" attitude. B. making a rational evaluation of the required actions. C. identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. 23. Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgement can be effectively counteracted by A. taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes. B. redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. C. early recognition of hazardous thoughts. 24. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 16  B. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. 25. While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? A. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision. B. He flies a little closer, just to show him. C. He is not too concerned; everything will be alright. 26. A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as A. spatial disorientation. B. hyperventilation. C. hypoxia. 27. The CARE checklist helps ensure that during operations you A. have all required documentation available. B. have a positive attitude and hope for the best when things go wrong. C. always have an alternative action available. 28. A pilot can develop good judgement A. only through experience. B. through structured training. C. by accurately emulating their instructors actions. 29. The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the 'right stuff' can have an adverse effect on safety, by A. imposing a realistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions. B. a total disregard for any alternative course of action. C. generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. 30. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "macho"? A. Taking chances is foolish. B. I can do it. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 17  C. Nothing will happen. 31. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Avoid steep turns and rough control movements. B. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C. Reduce head and eye movements to the greatest extent possible. 32. Pilot fatigue is A. easily overcome by using stimulants such as caffeine or engaging in limited physical exercise. B. is negated by the normal adrenalin generated in flight. C. hazardous because it leads to a decrease in the ability to carry out tasks. 33. Fatigue is one of the most treacherous hazards to flight safety A. because it results in slow performance. B. as it may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made. C. as it may be a function of physical robustness or mental acuity. 34. You are most likely to experience somatogravic illusion during A. a rapid descent. B. deceleration upon landing. C. rapid acceleration on takeoff. 35. Fatigue can be evident in others if they A. talk more than usual. B. yawn excessively. C. are overly helpful. 36. To help manage flight deck stress, pilots must A. condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears. B. be aware of life stress situations that are similar to those in flying. C. avoid situations that will improve their abilities to handle flight deck responsibilities. 37. What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)? [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 18  A. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgement. B. Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. C. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). 38. What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process? A. Dealing with improper judgement. B. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. C. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. 39. Risk is increased when flightcrew members A. fail to monitor automated navigation systems. B. allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems. C. question the performance of each other's duties. 40. An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves A. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. B. understanding the drive to have the "right stuff." C. obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training. 41. To preserve night vision, the most appropriate flight deck lighting is A. Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level. B. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation. C. Increase the interior intensity to slightly above the outside level. 42. For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the A. pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes. B. rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes. C. cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes. 43. The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to A. complacency. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 19  B. fatigue. C. resignation. 44. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "antiauthority"? A. Rules do not apply in this situation. B. I know what I am doing. C. Follow the rules. 45. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement. B. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. C. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. 46. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "invulnerability"? A. It will not happen to me. B. It could happen to me. C. It can not be that bad. 47. Although not required, supplemental oxygen is recommended for use when flying at night above A. 5,000 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. 12,500 feet. 48. A pilot and friends are going to fly to an out-of-town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction? A. Well, nobody told him about the extra weight. B. Weight and balance is a formality forced on pilots by the FAA. C. He can't wait around to de-fuel, they have to get there on time. 49. The steps of the "3P" ADM model are... A. Perceive, Process, Perform B. Perceive, Pause, Perfect [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 20  C. Problem, Pattern, Process 50. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by A. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane. B. slowing the breathing rate or breathing into a bag. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. 51. Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as A. altitude increases. B. oxygen demand increases. C. humidity decreases. 52. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the human body requires about A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. 53. The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the ANTIAUTHORITY reaction? A. Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight. B. The pilot can't help it that the passengers are late. C. If the pilot hurries, he or she may still make it on time. 54. Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Tingling sensations in the fingers B. Decreased breathing rate. C. Euphoria. sense of well-being. 55. Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition? A. Significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitude. B. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen. C. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide. 56. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 21  A. Insufficient carbon dioxide. B. Excessive carbon monoxide. C. Insufficient oxygen. 57. Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: A. Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems. B. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. C. Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. 58. An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can A. compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge. B. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task. C. improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts. 59. An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule A. can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern. B. will always err on the side of caution. C. can fail to perceive operational pitfalls. 60. While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?. A. What is the worst that could happen. B. It's too late to fix it now. C. He can handle a little problem like this. 61. Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to A. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. B. complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the "right stuff." C. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 22  62. A pilot flying in a fatigued state is a hazard because A. flying fatigued is flying impaired. B. the pilot will hurry through checks and neglect items. C. the pilot will exceed aircraft limitations to complete the flight. 63. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity? A. Do it quickly to get it over with. B. Not so fast, think first. C. It could happen to me. 64. When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO? A. Not so fast. Think first. B. Taking chances is foolish. C. Follow the rules. They are usually right. 65. If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis you may have symptoms of A. hypoxia. B. hyperventilation. C. carbon monoxide poisoning. 66. What type of stressor can lead to poor decision making? A. Lack of sleep. B. Lack of high workload. C. Lack of motivation. 67. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about A. 1 hour. B. 3 hours. C. 4 hours. 68. The CARE checklist can be used A. before starting operations to evaluate the risks. B. during operations to maintain situational awareness. C. at the end of operations to debrief the crew. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 23  69. As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience A. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness. B. decreased breathing rate and depth. C. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. 70. Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second. B. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds. C. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing. 71. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? A. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. B. Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover. C. judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. 72. Which will almost always affect your ability to fly? A. Over-the-counter analgesics and antihistamines. B. Antibiotics and anesthetic drugs. C. Prescription analgesics and antihistamines. 73. If advice is needed concerning possible flight with an illness, a pilot should contact A. an Aviation Medical Examiner. B. their family doctor. C. the nearest hospital. 74. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? A. judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. B. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. C. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. 75. The most important key to risk management is A. understanding pilot predisposition. B. management of external pressures. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 24  C. the sense of security provided by experience. 76. The pilot and passengers are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorms are reported to be in a line across their intended route of flight. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the IMPULSIVITY reaction? A. A thunderstorm won't stop them. B. They want to hurry and get going, before things get worse. C. They can't change the weather, so they might as well go. 1. Humans are characteristically A. poor monitors of automated systems. B. disposed to expect automation to fail often. C. disposed to appreciate the workload imposed by automation. 2. Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to A. assume additional responsibilities and assert PIC authority. B. complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the "right stuff." C. promote situational awareness and then necessary changes in behavior. 3. Penetrating fog while flying an approach at night, you might experience the illusion of A. pitching up. B. flying at a lower altitude. C. constant turning. 4. To preserve night vision, the most appropriate flight deck lighting is A. Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level. B. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation. C. Increase the interior intensity to slightly above the outside level. 5. The steps of the "3P" ADM model are... A. Perceive, Process, Perform B. Perceive, Pause, Perfect C. Problem, Pattern, Process [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 25  6. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. B. The excessive consumption of alcohol. C. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. 7. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "resignation"? A. I am not helpless. B. Someone else is responsible. C. What is the use. 8. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits, A. greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved. B. risk is increased. C. risk is decreased. 9. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible. B. Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C. Rely on the indications of the flight instruments. 10. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "antiauthority"? A. Rules do not apply in this situation. B. I know what I am doing. C. Follow the rules. 11. Pilots should remember the alcohol in one beer (or one ounce of liquor, or four ounces of wine) can be detected for as long as A. a minimum of 1 hour. B. a minimum of 2 hours. C. a minimum of 3 hours. 12. Automation in aircraft has proven to A. present new hazards in its limitations. B. that automation is basically flawless. C. be effective in preventing accidents. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 26  13. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one beer, the human body requires about A. 1 hour. B. 3 hours. C. 4 hours. 14. The best way to counter the effects of spatial disorientation is to A. trust your flight instruments and disregard your sensory perceptions. B. disregard your flight instruments and rely on your senses. C. breathe deeply and exhale slowly to increase your oxygen content. 15. Which statement is correct regarding the use of flight deck lighting for night flight? A. Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots. B. Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting. C. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation. 16. A pilot flying in a fatigued state is a hazard because A. flying fatigued is flying impaired. B. the pilot will hurry through checks and neglect items. C. the pilot will exceed aircraft limitations to complete the flight. 17. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if A. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. B. kinesthetic senses are ignored. C. eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments. 18. Automation has been found to A. create much larger errors at times. B. improve crew situational awareness skills. C. substitute for a lack of aviation experience. 19. Risk is increased when flightcrew members A. fail to monitor automated navigation systems. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 27  B. allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems. C. question the performance of each other's duties. 20. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause A. elevator illusion. B. coriolis illusion. C. false horizon. 21. Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include: A. Performance deficiencies from human factors such as, fatigue, illness or emotional problems. B. Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves. C. Deficiencies in instrument skills and knowledge of aircraft systems or limitations. 22. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by A. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane. B. slowing the breathing rate or breathing into a bag. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation. 23. While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the 'MACHO' reaction? A. He quickly turns away and dives, to avoid collision. B. He flies a little closer, just to show him. C. He is not too concerned; everything will be alright. 24. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "invulnerability"? A. It will not happen to me. B. It could happen to me. C. It can not be that bad. 25. The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 28  situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to A. complacency. B. fatigue. C. resignation. 26. The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot A. developing the "right stuff" attitude. B. making a rational evaluation of the required actions. C. identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight. 27. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation A. are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue. B. have proven to increase safety in operations. C. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew. 28. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of "macho"? A. Taking chances is foolish. B. I can do it. C. Nothing will happen. 29. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. Avoid steep turns and rough control movements. B. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. C. Reduce head and eye movements to the greatest extent possible. 30. What should a pilot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous? A. Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote. B. Avoid developing this hazardous thought. C. Develop this hazardous thought and follow through with modified action. 31. Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a A. mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. B. decision making process which relies on good judgement to reduce risks [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 29  associated with each flight. C. systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances. 32. Tunnel vision and cyanosis are symptoms of A. hypoxia. B. hyperventilation. C. carbon monoxide poisoning. 33. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as A. elevator illusions. B. autokinesis. C. false horizons. 34. An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can A. compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge. B. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task. C. improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts. 35. Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? A. Detect. B. Evaluate. C. Identify. 36. An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves A. taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test. B. understanding the drive to have the "right stuff." C. obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training. 37. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions A. occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight. B. are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 30  C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments. 38. Which use of flight deck lighting is correct for night flight? A. The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation. B. Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level. C. Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting. 39. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of A. rising or falling. B. motion reversal. C. turning. 40. Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? A. Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement. B. Application of stress management and risk element procedures. C. The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take. 41. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot? A. The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen. B. Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft. C. Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the reactions are pilot's affected. 42. A pilot can develop good judgement A. only through experience. B. through structured training. C. by accurately emulating their instructors actions. 43. A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as A. spatial disorientation. B. hyperventilation. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 31  C. hypoxia. 44. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation? A. Avoid banking in excess of 30°. B. Use a very rapid cross check. C. Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly. 45. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? A. Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach. B. Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see. C. The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. 46. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected? A. Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal. B. Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal. C. Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths. 47. What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process? A. Dealing with improper judgement. B. Recognition of hazardous thoughts. C. Recognition of invulnerability in the situation. 48. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of A. diving into the ground. B. spinning in the opposite direction. C. being in a noseup attitude. 49. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation? A. Rely on kinesthetic sense. B. Use a very rapid cross check. C. Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 32  50. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight? A. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. C. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left. 51. As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience A. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness. B. decreased breathing rate and depth. C. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. 52. Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition? A. Significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitude. B. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen. C. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide. 53. Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making? A. Eliminate. B. Evaluate. C. Estimate. 54. Reliance on electronic navigation A. may cause a pilot to lose proficiency in alternate ways of navigating. B. increases pilot workload. C. increases electronic navigation skills by visual reference. 55. An experienced pilot trying to meet a schedule A. can expect the flight crew to alert them to problems or areas of concern. B. will always err on the side of caution. C. can fail to perceive operational pitfalls. 56. What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway? A. A downsloping runway. B. An upsloping runway. C. A wider than usual runway. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 33  57. If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis you may have symptoms of A. hypoxia. B. hyperventilation. C. carbon monoxide poisoning. 58. To rid itself of all the alcohol contained in one mixed drink, the human body requires about A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. 59. What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity? A. Do it quickly to get it over with. B. Not so fast, think first. C. It could happen to me. 60. Risk management by the pilot A. applies only on passenger/cargo IFR flights. B. requires continuing education and certified academic training to understand the principles. C. is improved with practice and consistent use of risk management tools. 61. The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a A. lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. B. slower approach with the risk of reducing airspeed below VSO or landing hard. C. higher approach with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway. 62. Which of the following is an effect of acute fatigue on performance? A. Loss of accuracy and smoothness in control movements. B. Heightened acuity in peripheral vision. C. Mild euphoria, impaired judgment, and increased reaction time. 63. What are some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 34  Making (ADM)? A. Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgement. B. Risk management, stress management, and risk elements. C. Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), macho (I can do it). 64. Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be A. higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach. B. lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach. C. higher than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach. 65. An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of A. tumbling backwards. B. a descent with the wings level. C. a noseup attitude. 66. Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be A. higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach. B. lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach. C. higher than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach. 67. While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?. A. What is the worst that could happen. B. It's too late to fix it now. C. He can handle a little problem like this. 1. Most midair collision accidents occur during A. hazy days. B. clear days. C. cloudy nights. 2. Entries into traffic patterns while descending create specific collision hazards and A. should be avoided. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 35  B. should be used whenever possible. C. are illegal. 3. Most midair collision accidents occur during A. hazy days within the traffic pattern environment. B. clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids. C. night conditions during simulated instrument flight. 4. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should A. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. B. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF. C. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. 5. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with A. Air Traffic Control. B. the controlling agency. C. all pilots. 6. A Near Mid Air Collision (NMAC) is defined as an aircraft passing within a distance of less than A. 1 mile. B. 2,500 feet or 1/2 mile. C. 500 feet. 7. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. B. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. C. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. 8. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight- and-level flight? A. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left. B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 36  C. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. 9. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to A. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly. B. scan the visual field very rapidly. C. look to the side of the object and scan slowly. 10. When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to A. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions. B. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial. C. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic. 11. To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should A. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected. B. use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. C. slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at intervals. 12. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should A. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications. B. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF. C. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance. 13. What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? A. Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace. B. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes. C. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude. [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 37 [PPL HUMAN PERFORMANCE & LIMITATIONS] Page 38