Physics Training Test PDF

1 Choose the best answer 1. A scalar quantity is completely described by: a) Magnitude and direction b) Magnitude only c) Direction only d) None of the above 2. A vector quantity is fully represented by:...

1 Choose the best answer 1. A scalar quantity is completely described by: a) Magnitude and direction b) Magnitude only c) Direction only d) None of the above 2. A vector quantity is fully represented by: a) Magnitude only b) Direction only c) Magnitude and direction d) None of the above 3. Two vectors are said to be equal if they have the same: a) Magnitude only b) Direction only c) Magnitude and direction d) None of the above 4. The process of adding two or more vectors is called: a) Subtraction b) Multiplication c) Division d) Vector addition 5. The result of subtracting one vector from another is called: a) Resultant vector b) Equal vector c) Zero vectors d) Unit vector 6. A vector having magnitude equal to one is called: a) Zero vectors b) Unit vector c) Null vector  2 d) Resultant vector 7. A body is said to be in uniform motion when it travels equal distances in equal intervals of time with: a) Constant speed b) Constant velocity c) Constant acceleration d) Constant retardation 8. The area under the velocity-time graph represents: a) Displacement b) Acceleration c) Speed d) Distance 9. The horizontal component of velocity of a projectile remains: a) Constant b) Changing c) Zero d) None of these 10. The vertical component of velocity of a projectile is affected by: a) Gravity b) Air resistance c) Both a and b d) None of these 11. The time of flight of a projectile depends on: a) Initial velocity b) Angle of projection c) Both a and b d) None of these 12. The maximum height reached by a projectile depends on: a) Initial velocity b) Angle of projection  3 c) Both a and b d) None of these 13. The horizontal range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is: a) 30 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 60 degrees d) 90 degrees 14. The time period of a body moving in a uniform circular motion is the time taken by the body to complete: a) One revolution b) Two revolutions c) Half a revolution d) Quarter of a revolution 15. The frequency of a body moving in a uniform circular motion is the number of revolutions completed by the body in: a) One second b) Two seconds c) Half a second d) Quarter of a second 16. The relation between angular velocity (ω) and linear velocity (v) is: a) v = rω b) ω = rv c) v = ω/r d) ω = v/r 17. The path traced by a projectile is called: a) Straight line b) Parabolic c) Circular d) Elliptical  4 18. Which of the following is a non-contact force? a) Friction b) Gravity c) Tension d) Normal force 19. Newton's third law of motion states that: a) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction b) An object at rest tends to stay at rest c) The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it d) The force of gravity is constant 20. Energy is defined as: a) The ability to do work b) Force per unit area c) Rate of doing work d) Mass times acceleration 21. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body due to its: a) Position b) Motion c) Shape d) Mass 22. A lever is a simple machine that consists of a rigid bar that pivots around a fixed point called: a) Fulcrum b) Axle c) Inclined plane d) Wedge 23. The law of conservation of energy states that: a) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed b) Energy is always increasing c) Energy is always decreasing  5 d) Energy is constant in a closed system 24. Efficiency is defined as: a) Output work divided by input work b) Input work divided by output work c) Output work multiplied by input work d) Input work minus output work 25. A machine that multiplies force is called: a) Lever b) Pulley c) Inclined plane d) All of the above 26. Friction is a force that opposes: a) Motion b) Gravity c) Normal force d) Air resistance 27. A machine that reduces the effort required to do work is called: a) Simple machine b) Complex machine c) Mechanical advantage d) Efficiency 28. Newton's first law of motion is also known as: a) Law of inertia b) Law of acceleration c) Law of action and reaction d) Law of gravitation 29. According to Newton's second law, force is equal to: a) Mass times acceleration b) Mass times velocity c) Acceleration divided by mass  6 d) Velocity divided by mass 30. A body of mass 5 kg accelerates at 2 m/s². The force acting on it is: a) 2.5 N b) 10 N c) 20 N d) 50 N 31. Newton's third law of motion states that: a) Every action has an equal and opposite reaction b) The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force c) A body at rest tends to stay at rest d) The force of gravity is constant 32. The property of a body to resist a change in its state of rest or uniform motion is called: a) Momentum b) Inertia c) Acceleration d) Force 33. A rocket works on the principle of: a) Newton's first law b) Newton's second law c) Newton's third law d) All of the above 34. The force of friction acting on a body at rest is called: a) Static friction b) Kinetic friction c) Rolling friction d) Fluid friction 35. The maximum value of static friction is called: a) Limiting friction  7 b) Kinetic friction c) Rolling friction d) Fluid friction 36. The coefficient of friction is defined as the ratio of: a) Force of friction to normal reaction b) Normal reaction to force of friction c) Mass to acceleration d) Acceleration to mass 37. The value of the coefficient of static friction is always: a) Greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction b) Less than the coefficient of kinetic friction c) Equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction d) Independent of the nature of the surfaces 38. Rolling friction is generally: a) Greater than static friction b) Less than static friction c) Equal to static friction d) Independent of the nature of the surfaces 39. The condition for translational equilibrium is: a) The sum of all forces acting on the body is zero b) The sum of all torques acting on the body is zero c) The body is at rest d) The body is moving with constant velocity 40. The center of gravity of a body is the point: a) Where the weight of the body acts b) Where the mass of the body is concentrated c) Where the body is balanced d) All of the above 41. A stable equilibrium occurs when: a) A small displacement of the body results in a restoring force b) A small displacement of the body results in no restoring force  8 c) A small displacement of the body results in an increasing force away from the equilibrium position d) None of the above 42. A neutral equilibrium occurs when: a) A small displacement of the body results in a restoring force b) A small displacement of the body results in no restoring force c) A small displacement of the body results in an increasing force away from the equilibrium position d) None of the above 43. Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets are: a) Circular b) Elliptical c) Parabolic d) Hyperbolic 44. The point in a planet's orbit closest to the Sun is called: a) Aphelion b) Perihelion c) Focus d) Vertex 45. Kepler's second law is also known as the law of: a) Periods b) Orbits c) Areas d) Harmonies 46. According to Kepler's third law, the square of a planet's orbital period is proportional to the cube of: a) Its mass b) Its orbital speed c) The semi-major axis of its orbit d) The eccentricity of its orbit 47. Newton's law of universal gravitation states that:  9 a) The force of gravity is directly proportional to the product of the masses of two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them b) The force of gravity is directly proportional to the sum of the masses of two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them c) The force of gravity is directly proportional to the product of the masses of two objects and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them d) The force of gravity is inversely proportional to the product of the masses of two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them 48. The tides are primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the: a) Sun b) Moon c) Earth d) Jupiter 49. If the distance between two objects is doubled, the gravitational force between them: a) Increases by a factor of 4 b) Decreases by a factor of 2 c) Decreases by a factor of 4 d) Remains the same 50. Kepler's third law states that the square of the orbital period (T) of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (a) of its orbit. Mathematically, this is expressed as: a) T^2 = k * a^3 b) T = k * a^3 c) T^3 = k * a^2 d) T = k * a^2  10 51. If the mass of one object is doubled while the distance between the objects remains constant, the gravitational force between them: a) Doubles b) Remains the same c) Halves d) Quadruples 52. The gravitational field strength (g) at a point is defined as: a) The force experienced by a unit mass at that point b) The mass of an object at that point c) The distance from the center of the Earth d) The acceleration due to gravity at that point 53. The impulse-momentum theorem states that: a) Impulse is equal to the change in kinetic energy b) Impulse is equal to the change in momentum c) Impulse is equal to the force applied d) Impulse is equal to the time of application of force 54. Conservation of momentum states that: a) The total momentum of a system remains constant if no external forces act on it b) The total kinetic energy of a system remains constant if no external forces act on it c) The total potential energy of a system remains constant if no external forces act on it d) The total mechanical energy of a system remains constant if no external forces act on it 55. An elastic collision is one in which: a) Kinetic energy is conserved b) Momentum is not conserved c) Both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved d) Neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved  11 56. A perfectly inelastic collision is one in which: a) The objects stick together after the collision b) The objects bounce off each other after the collision c) Kinetic energy is conserved d) Momentum is not conserved 57. A rocket works on the principle of: a) Conservation of energy b) Conservation of momentum c) Newton's third law d) All of the above 58. Which simple machine is used to split objects apart? a) Lever b) Wedge c) Pulley d) Inclined plane 59. A ramp is an example of which simple machine? a) Lever b) Wedge c) Pulley d) Inclined plane 60. A doorknob is an example of which simple machine? a) Lever b) Wheel and axle c) Pulley d) Inclined plane 61. The mechanical advantage of a simple machine is: a) The ratio of output force to input force b) The ratio of input force to output force c) The distance the input force moves to the distance the output force moves d) The time it takes to do work  12 62. A body executing simple harmonic motion has a maximum acceleration at: a) Mean position b) Extreme positions c) Between mean and extreme positions d) None of these 63. The time period of a simple pendulum is directly proportional to: a) Mass of the bob b) Length of the pendulum c) Acceleration due to gravity d) Amplitude of oscillation 64.The total energy of a simple harmonic oscillator is: a) Kinetic energy only b) Potential energy only c) Sum of kinetic and potential energy d) None of these 65.Resonance occurs when: a) The frequency of the driving force is equal to the natural frequency of the system b) The amplitude of the driving force is very large c) The mass of the system is very large d) None of these 66.Sound waves are: a) Transverse waves b) Longitudinal waves c) Electromagnetic waves d) Matter waves 67.The characteristic of sound that distinguishes between a shrill and a grave sound is: a) Loudness  13 b) Pitch c) Quality d) Intensity 68.The phenomenon of persistence of hearing is called: a) Echo b) Reverberation c) Acoustics d) Resonance 69.The Doppler effect is observed when there is a relative motion between: a) Source of sound and listener b) Two sources of sound c) Two listeners d) None of these 70.The number of oscillations per second is called: a) Wavelength b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Time period 71.The maximum displacement of a particle from its mean position is called: a) Wavelength b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Time period 72.The speed of a wave is equal to the product of its: a) Wavelength and frequency b) Amplitude and frequency c) Wavelength and time period d) Amplitude and time period  14 73.The superposition of two waves to produce a wave of greater amplitude is called: a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Refraction d) Reflection 74.The change in direction of a wave as it passes from one medium to another is called: a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Refraction d) Reflection 75.The bouncing back of a wave from a surface is called: a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Refraction d) Reflection 76.The phenomenon of beats is produced due to: a) Interference of sound waves of slightly different frequencies b) Diffraction of sound waves c) Refraction of sound waves d) Reflection of sound waves 77.Pascal's principle states that: a) Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions b) The pressure in a fluid increases with depth c) The buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced d) The velocity of a fluid is inversely proportional to its cross- sectional area 78.Archimedes' principle states that:  15 a) The buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced b) Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions c) The velocity of a fluid is inversely proportional to its cross- sectional area d) The pressure in a fluid increases with depth 79.The equation of continuity states that: a) The mass flow rate of a fluid is constant b) The pressure in a fluid is constant c) The velocity of a fluid is constant d) The density of a fluid is constant 80.Bernoulli's principle states that: a) The pressure in a fluid increases with depth b) The sum of the pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy of a fluid is constant c) The buoyant force on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced d) The viscosity of a fluid is constant 81.Capillary action is the rise or fall of a liquid in a narrow tube due to: a) Surface tension b) Pressure c) Viscosity d) Buoyancy 82. A fluid with zero viscosity is called: a) Ideal fluid b) Real fluid c) Viscous fluid d) Incompressible fluid 83. Young's modulus is a measure of:  16 a) A material's resistance to shear stress b) A material's resistance to compressive stress c) A material's resistance to tensile stress d) A material's resistance to fluid flow 84. The formula for Young's modulus (Y) is: a) Y = stress / strain b) Y = strain / stress c) Y = stress * strain d) Y = 1 / (stress * strain) 85. Stress is defined as: a) The change in length per unit original length b) The force applied per unit area c) The ratio of stress to strain d) The energy stored per unit volume 86. Elasticity is the property of a material to: a) Return to its original shape after deformation b) Permanently deform under stress c) Break under stress d) None of the above 87. A material with a high Young's modulus is: a) Easily stretched b) Difficult to stretch c) Has no elasticity d) None of the above 88. Elasticity is the property of a material to: a) Return to its original shape after deformation b) Permanently deform under stress c) Break under stress d) None of the above 89. If the length of a wire is doubled, its Young's modulus: a) Doubles  17 b) Halves c) Remains the same d) Becomes four times 90.Temperature is a measure of: a) The total kinetic energy of particles in a substance b) The average kinetic energy of particles in a substance c) The potential energy of particles in a substance d) The mass of a substance 91. The process by which heat is transferred through a medium without any net movement of the medium itself is called: a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Diffusion 92. The thermal expansion of solids, liquids, and gases: a) Increases with temperature b) Decreases with temperature c) Remains constant with temperature d) Depends on the nature of the substance 93. The zero point on the Kelvin scale corresponds to: a) The freezing point of water b) The boiling point of water c) Absolute zero d) None of the above 94. The coefficient of linear expansion is defined as: a) The change in length per unit original length per degree change in temperature b) The change in volume per unit original volume per degree change in temperature  18 c) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 K d) The rate of heat flow through a material 95. A good thermal conductor: a) Easily transfers heat b) Poorly transfers heat c) Does not transfer heat d) None of the above 96. A heat engine converts: a) Heat energy into mechanical energy b) Mechanical energy into heat energy c) Electrical energy into mechanical energy d) None of the above 97. Heat capacity is defined as: a) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C b) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C c) The ratio of heat supplied to the rise in temperature d) The amount of heat required to change the state of a substance 98. Latent heat is the amount of heat required to: a) Change the temperature of a substance b) Change the state of a substance without a change in temperature c) Transfer heat through conduction d) Transfer heat through convection 99. The specific latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to: a) Melt 1 kg of a solid at its melting point b) Vaporize 1 kg of a liquid at its boiling point c) Raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C d) Lower the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C  19 d) Lower the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C 100.A calorimeter is used to measure: a) Temperature b) Heat capacity c) Specific heat capacity d) All of the above 101.An anomalous expansion occurs in water when it is cooled from: a) 4°C to 0°C b) 0°C to -4°C c) 100°C to 0°C d) 0°C to 100°C 102.The process of transferring charge from a charged body to another body by touching is called: a) Conduction b) Induction c) Friction d) Polarization 103.A body is said to be positively charged if it has: a) Excess of electrons b) Deficiency of electrons c) Equal number of protons and electrons 104.The electrostatic force is a: a) Contact force b) Non-contact force c) Both contact and non-contact force d) None of the above 105.Electric field intensity at a point is defined as: a) Force experienced by a unit positive charge at that point b) Work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to that point  20 c) Ratio of charge to potential difference d) None of the above 106.Electric potential at a point is defined as: a) Force experienced by a unit positive charge at that point b) Work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to that point c) Ratio of charge to potential difference d) None of the above 107.Potential difference between two points is: a) The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another b) The force experienced by a unit positive charge c) The product of charge and electric field d) None of the above 108.Equipotential surfaces are surfaces on which: a) Electric field is constant b) Electric potential is constant c) Both electric field and electric potential are constant d) None of the above 109.Capacitance of a capacitor is defined as: a) The ratio of charge stored to the potential difference across its plates b) The product of charge stored and the potential difference across its plates c) The ratio of potential difference to the charge stored d) None of the above 110.A dielectric is a material that: a) Increases the capacitance of a capacitor b) Decreases the capacitance of a capacitor c) Does not affect the capacitance of a capacitor d) None of the above  21 111.A lightning conductor is used to: a) Protect buildings from lightning strikes b) Generate electricity from lightning c) Attract lightning strikes d) None of the above 112.Earthing is a process of: a) Connecting a charged body to the earth b) Isolating a charged body from the earth c) Charging a body from the earth d) None of the above 113.Ohm's Law states that: a) Current is directly proportional to voltage b) Current is inversely proportional to voltage c) Voltage is directly proportional to resistance d) Resistance is inversely proportional to current 114.In a series circuit, the total resistance is: a) Equal to the sum of individual resistances b) Equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of individual resistances c) Less than the smallest individual resistance d) Greater than the largest individual resistance 115.An ammeter is connected in a circuit in: a) Series b) Parallel c) Both series and parallel d) None of the above 116.Electric power is given by: a) P = VI b) P = V/I c) P = I/V d) P = V^2/R  22 117.The region around a magnet where its influence can be felt is called: a) Magnetic field b) Magnetic flux c) Magnetic force d) Magnetic pole 118.The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by: a) F = BIL sin θ b) F = BIL cos θ c) F = BIL tan θ d) F = BIL cot θ 119.An electric motor converts: a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy b) Electrical energy into mechanical energy c) Heat energy into electrical energy d) Electrical energy into heat energy 120.Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating electric current in a conductor by: a) Changing the magnetic field around the conductor b) Keeping the magnetic field constant around the conductor c) Heating the conductor d) Cooling the conductor 121.Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current is such that it supporsthe change in magnetic flux that produced it: a) True b) False 122.The Earth's magnetic field is similar to that of a: a) Bar magnet b) Straight conductor  23 c) Circular loop of current d) Solenoid 123.The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian at a place is called: a) Dip b) Declination c) Inclination d) Azimuth 124.A compass needle point towards the: a) Geographic north b) Magnetic north c) South pole of the Earth d) Equator 125.A galvanometer is a device used to detect: a) Electric current b) Magnetic field c) Voltage d) Resistance 126.A transformer is a device used to: a) Convert AC voltage to DC voltage b) Convert DC voltage to AC voltage c) Step up or step-down AC voltage d) None of the above 127.Back emf is generated in a motor due to: a) Lenz's law b) Fleming's left-hand rule c) Ohm's law d) Coulomb's law 128.Diamagnetic materials are: a) Weakly attracted to magnets b) Weakly repelled by magnets  24 c) Strongly attracted to magnets d) Strongly repelled by magnets 129.Ferromagnetic materials: a) Are easily magnetized and demagnetized b) Are difficult to magnetize and demagnetize c) Are not affected by magnetic fields d) None of the above 130.A semiconductor is a material whose conductivity lies between that of: a) Conductors and insulators b) Conductors and superconductors c) Insulators and superconductors d) None of the above 131.A p-n junction is formed by: a) Joining a p-type and an n-type semiconductor b) Doping a pure semiconductor with trivalent impurities c) Doping a pure semiconductor with pentavalent impurities d) None of the above 132.A logic gate is a digital circuit that performs a logical operation on one or more input bits to produce a single output bit: a) True b) False 133.An OR gate produces a high output when: a) All inputs are high b) At least one input is high c) Any input is low d) All inputs are low 134.A NOT gate is a: a) One-input gate b) Two-input gate  25 c) Three-input gate d) None of the above 135.A NAND gate is equivalent to: a) AND gate followed by a NOT gate b) OR gate followed by a NOT gate c) NOT gate followed by an AND gate d) None of the above 136.The basic logic operations are: a) AND, OR, NOT b) AND, OR, XOR c) AND, OR, NAND d) AND, OR, NOR 137.Electromagnetic waves are: a) Longitudinal waves b) Transverse waves c) Matter waves d) None of the above 138.The arrangement of electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency is called: a) Electromagnetic spectrum b) Visible spectrum c) Infrared spectrum d) Ultraviolet spectrum 139.Infrared waves are used in: a) Remote controls b) X-ray imaging c) Sterilization d) Communication 140.Ultraviolet rays cause: a) Sunburn b) Night blindness  26 c) Color blindness d) None of the above 141.A plane mirror produces an image that is: a) Real, inverted, and same size b) Virtual, erect, and same size c) Real, inverted, and magnified d) Virtual, erect, and magnified 142.The focal length of a plane mirror is: a) Positive b) Negative c) Infinity d) Zero 143.A concave mirror can produce: a) Only real images b) Only virtual images c) Both real and virtual images d) No image 144.A convex mirror always produces: a) Real, inverted, and magnified images b) Real, inverted, and diminished images c) Virtual, erect, and diminished images d) Virtual, erect, and magnified images 145.The focal length of a convex lens is: a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinity 146.A concave lens always produces: a) Real, inverted, and magnified images b) Real, inverted, and diminished images c) Virtual, erect, and diminished images  27 d) Virtual, erect, and magnified images 147.The lens formula is given by: a) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f b) v + u = f c) v - u = f d) v * u = f 148.The human eye acts as a: a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Plane mirror d) Spherical mirror 149.The part of the eye responsible for the formation of images is: a) Cornea b) Lens c) Retina d) Iris 150.A microscope is used to: a) Magnify distant objects b) Magnify small objects c) Measure distances d) None of the above 151.A telescope is used to: a) Magnify distant objects b) Magnify small objects c) Measure distances d) None of the above 152.The objective lens of a microscope is a: a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Plano-convex lens  28 d) Plano-concave lens 153.The eyepiece of a telescope is a: a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Plano-convex lens d) Plano-concave lens 154.Total internal reflection occurs when: a) Light travels from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle b) Light travels from a rarer to a denser medium at an angle greater than the critical angle c) Light travels from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle less than the critical angle d) Light travels from a rarer to a denser medium at an angle less than the critical angle 155.The splitting of white light into its constituent colors is called: a) Dispersion b) Scattering c) Diffraction d) Interference 156.The secondary colors of light are: a) Cyan, magenta, and yellow b) Red, green, and blue c) Orange, green, and violet d) Yellow, blue, and purple 157.The sky appears blue due to: a) Scattering of light b) Dispersion of light c) Reflection of light d) Refraction of light  29 158.The human eye is most sensitive to: a) Red light b) Green light c) Blue light d) Yellow light 159.Optical fibers work on the principle of: a) Total internal reflection b) Refraction c) Dispersion d) Interference 160.The nucleus of an atom contains: a) Protons only b) Neutrons only c) Protons and neutrons d) Electrons and protons 161.The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of: a) Protons and electrons b) Protons and neutrons c) Neutrons and electrons d) Protons, neutrons, and electrons 162.Isotopes of an element have the same: a) Mass number b) Atomic number c) Number of neutrons d) Number of electrons 163.The strong nuclear force acts between: a) Protons only b) Neutrons only c) Protons and neutrons d) Electrons and protons  30 164.Radioactivity is the spontaneous emission of particles or radiation from the nucleus of an unstable atom: a) True b) False 165. Alpha particles are: a) High-energy electrons b) High-energy protons c) Helium nuclei d) Electromagnetic radiation 166. Beta particles are: a) High-energy electrons b) High-energy protons c) Helium nuclei d) Electromagnetic radiation 167. Half-life is the time taken for the activity of a radioactive sample to reduce to: a) Half its original value b) One-fourth its original value c) One-eighth its original value d) Zero 168. Radioactive decay is a: a) First-order reaction b) Second-order reaction c) Zero-order reaction d) None of the above 169. Nuclear fission is the process of: a) Splitting a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei b) Combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus c) Emission of particles from a nucleus d) None of the above 170. Nuclear fusion is the process of:  31 a) Splitting a heavy nucleus into lighter nuclei b) Combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus c) Emission of particles from a nucleus d) None of the above 171. A chain reaction occurs when: a) Neutrons released in one fission reaction cause further fission reactions b) Neutrons released in one fusion reaction cause further fusion reactions c) A nucleus emits alpha particles d) A nucleus emits beta particles 172. Nuclear energy is released in both fission and fusion reactions due to: a) Mass defect b) Kinetic energy of particles c) Potential energy of particles d) None of the above 173. Radioactive isotopes are used in: a) Medicine b) Agriculture c) Industry d) All of the above 174. Nuclear weapons are based on the principle of: a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion c) Both fission and fusion d) None of the above 175. Fluid flow in which the velocity, pressure, and density at any point in the fluid do not change with time is called: a) Steady flow  32 b) Unsteady flow c) Laminar flow d) Turbulent flow 176.A substance with a high specific heat capacity: a) Heats up quickly b) Cools down quickly c) Requires a large amount of heat to change its temperature d) Requires a small amount of heat to change its temperature 177.Which of the following has the highest frequency? a) Radio waves b) Microwaves c) Gamma rays d) Visible light 178.A hydraulic press is an application of: a) Pascal's principle b) Bernoulli's principle c) Archimedes' principle d) Continuity equation