Pharmacology Unit Test PDF

**PHARMACOLOGY-UNIT TEST** **LABORATORY** 1.A client is ordered 50 milligrams of amoxicillin trihydrate orally. But only 125 mg per 5ml of syrup is available. How many milliliters will you administer? A. 0.5ml B. 1ml **C. 2ml** D. 2.5ml 2\. Calculate the flow rate for 100ml of IV fluids to be...

**PHARMACOLOGY-UNIT TEST** **LABORATORY** 1.A client is ordered 50 milligrams of amoxicillin trihydrate orally. But only 125 mg per 5ml of syrup is available. How many milliliters will you administer? A. 0.5ml B. 1ml **C. 2ml** D. 2.5ml 2\. Calculate the flow rate for 100ml of IV fluids to be given over a half hour via a giving set, which delivers 10 drops/ml **A. 33gtts/min** B. 32gtts/min C. 31gtts/min D. 30gtts/min 3\. Calculate the flow rate for 2 liters of IV fluids to be given over 5 hours via giving set which delivers 10 drops/ml A.57drops/min B.60drops/min **C.67drops/min** D.70drops/min 4.A client is ordered 200 milligrams of co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) intravenously. But, what is available is 600mg in 6ml for IV injection.How many milliliters will you administer? **A.2ml** B.6ml C.12ml D.15ml 5\. A client is ordered 13 milligrams of morphine sulphate by intramuscular injection. What is available is 5 milligrams in 1 milliliter of liquid for IM Injection. How many milliliters will you administer? A. 1.5 ml B. 3.2 ml C.4.5 ml **D. 2.6 ml** 6\. Calculate the IV flow rate for 0.54 L of 0.9% NaCI IV over 14.3 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 57 gtts/mL. What is the IV flow rate in gtts/min? **A. 36 gtts/min** B. 40 gtts/min C. 56 gtts/min D. 60 gtts/min 7\. Calculate the drip rate for 100 ml of IV fluids to be given over 2 hours via a giving set, which delivers 60 drops/ml. A. 30 drops/min B. 40 drops/min **C. 50 drops/min** D. 60 drops/min 8\. A client is ordered 200 milligrams of amoxicillin trihydrate orally, However, the pharmacist informed you that only 250 milligrams in 5 milliliters of syrup is available. How many milliliters will you administer? A. 10 ml **B. 4 ml** C.6 ml D. 8 ml 9\. Calculate the IV flow rate for 83 mL of D5 Water over 864 minutes. The IV infusion set has drop factor of 28 gtts/mL. What is the IV flow rate in gtts/min? A. 15 gtts/min B. 10 gtts/min C.5 gtts/min **D. 3 gtts/min** 10\. A client is ordered 30 milligrams of diltiazem hydrochloride (Dilzem). However, what are available are only 60-milligram tablets. How many tablets will you give? **A. 0.5 tablet** B. 1.5 tablets C. 2.5 tablets D. 3.5 tablets 11\. The patient\'s chart read: \"1 liter of Dextrose 5% in Water over 8 hours.\" Using a giving set, which delivers 10 drops/ml calculate the rate in drops/minute. A. 15 drops/min B. 18 drops/min **C. 21 drops/min** D. 26 drops/min 12\. The nurse recognizes that a fluid replacement with isotonic solution is needed. One of the isotonic solutions that may be ordered by the health care provider is: A.0.45% saline **B. Lactated Ringer\'s** C. 5% dextrose in normal saline D. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer\'s 13\. A client experiences a loss of intracellular fluid. The nurse anticipates that a hypotonic solution will be used to replace this type of loss. Which of the following is a hypotonic solution? A. 10% dextrose B. Dextrose 5% in NS **C. 0.45% normal saline** D. 5% Dextrose in Lactated Ringer\'s 14\. A client is prescribed 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), which is an isotonic solution. The nurse recognizes the primary goal of such intravenous therapy is to: **A. expand the volume of fluid in the vascular system** B. keep protein levels normal C. move fluid into the cells D. pull fluid from the cells 15\. A client is prescribed 3% sodium chloride, which is a hypertonic solution. The nurse recognizes the primary goal of such intravenous therapy is to: A. expand the volume of fluid in the vascular system B. keep protein levels normal C. move fluid into the cells\ **D. pull fluid from the cells** 16\. A client is prescribed 0.45% sodium chloride, which is a hypotonic solution. The nurse recognizes the primary goal of such intravenous therapy is to: A. expand the volume of fluid in the vascular system B. keep protein levels normal **C. move fluid into the cells.** D. pull fluid from the cells 17\. Peripheral areas are the preferred IV sites. Where would a peripheral area be located? A Torso B. Chest C. Buttocks **D. Upper or lower extremities** 18\. You are reviewing your Anatomy and Physiology for anatomical reference. Where would you find the antecubital fossa? A. Hand B. Wrist C. Forearm **D. Anterior elbow** 19\. Volume expanders are types of IV fluids that are given when the amount of fluid in the is low. A. Interstitial space\ B. Intracellular compartment **C. Intravascular space** D. Extracellular compartment 20\. This solution expands the circulating blood volume more than the isotonic solutions and one of the most commonly used fluids in critical care. A. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% NaCl B. Dextrose 5% in water C. Lactated Ringer\'s **D. Dextran** 21\. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding 5% Dextrose in Water? A. Essentially free water B. IV fluid of choice to treat hypoglycemia C. Used as a diluent to prepare injectable medications **D. A balanced solution of dextrose with essential electrolytes** 22\. Which nursing action is appropriate when caring for a client receiving blood transfusion? **A. Informing the client that the transfusion usually takes 4-6 hours** B. Administering dextrose 5% water during blood transfusion C. Warming the blood 4-6 hours prior to admin- istration D. Using needle gauge of 26-27 23\. A client has an order to receive a one unit of packed RBC\'s. The nurse makes sure which of the following intravenous solutions to hang with the blood product at the client\'s bedside? **A. 0.9% sodium chloride** B. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride C. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride D. 5% dextrose in lactated ringer\'s solution 24\. Which of the following patients would need a central line placed for their treatment? A. A patient receiving heparin drip for blood clots in his lungs **B. A patient receiving six weeks of antibiotic therapy for osteomyelitis** C. A patient receiving a bolus of normal saline to increase blood pressure D. A patient receiving hemodialysis every Monday and Friday 25\. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the condition of assigned clients. The nurse notes that a client\'s IV site is cool, pale, swollen, and the solution is not infusing. The nurse concludes that which complication has occurred? A. Infection B. Phlebitis **C. Infiltration** D. Thrombosis 26\. The nurse notes that the site of a client\'s peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. After taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse should document in the medical record that the client experienced which condition? **A. Phlebitis of the vein** B. Infiltration of the IV line C. Hypersensitivity to the IV solution D.Allergic reaction to the IV catheter material 27\. Antiarrhythmic drugs act to alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential, antiarrhythmic drugs often **A.cause new arrhythmias** B. alter blood flow to the kidney. C. cause congestive heart failure. D. cause electrolyte disturbances. 28.A patient who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs which of the following? A. Frequent blood tests including drug levels. **B. Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilized.** C. An antidepressant to deal with anxiety related to the new medication D. Changes in diet and exercise programs to pre- vent irritation of the heart muscle. 29\. Which of the following class I antiarrhythmic drugs were the first to treat both atrial and ventricular arrhythmias? A. Lidocaine **B. Quinidine** C. Procainamide D. Disopyramide 30\. Which of the following Class II-Beta Adrenergic Blockers slows the SA node and ectopic pacemaking? A. Atenolol B. Pindolol C. Metoprolol **D. Propanolol** 31\. A newly hired nurse is caring for a client admitted in the critical care unit. Class IV antiarrhythmic medication was given to the client. The nurse understands that this have the effect of A. lengthening the action potential duration. B. reducing the sympathetic excitation of the heart. C. slowing the effective refractory period of the heart **D. blocking the ability of calcium to enter cells. of the heart**. 32\. A patient comes into the emergency room with a heart rate of 115 and many premature ventricular contractions. The doctor orders quinidine. What is the action of quinidine? A. Blocking the ability of calcium to enter cells of the heart. B. Increasing the intake of potassium into the heart C. Slowing the fast inward current of sodium D. Decreasing the excretion of chloride 33\. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is good for digitalis-associated arrhythmias? A. Phenytoin **B. Lidocaine** C. Quinidine D. Procainamide 34\. A client with angina has been instructed about the use of nitroglycerin. Which of the following statements made to the nurse indicates a need for further teaching with regards to the use of sublingual tablets? A. \"I will rest briefly right after taking 1 tablet.\" **B. \"I can take 2-3 tablets at once if I have severe pain**. C. TII call the doctor if pain continues after 3 tablets 5 minutes apart.\" D. \"I understand that the medication should be kept in the dark bottle.\" 35.The nurse should teach a client to suspect that ***nitroglycerin sublingual*** tablets have lost their potency when A. sublingual tingling is experienced. **B. the tablets does not fizzles in the mouth**. C. pain is unrelieved but facial flushing is in- creased D. onset of relief is delayed, but the duration of relief is unchanged. 36\. The physician has ordered ***transdermal nitroglycerin*** patches for a client. Which of these instructions should be included when teaching a client about how to use the patches? **A. Apply the patch to any non-hairy area of the body** B. Remove the patch when swimming or bathing C. Apply a second patch with chest pain D. Remove patch if ankle edema occurs 37.If a patient does not receive relief from anginal pain after taking several nitroglycerin doses, you might suspect which of the following? A. A larger dose is needed. B. An allergy to the drug has developed. C. The patient is non-compliant of taking the drug. **D. The patient may be having a myocardial infarction.** 38**.** You are a student assigned to care for client with angina pectoris. Checking the medication record, the client is given nitrates. Nitrates are commonly used antianginal drugs that act to A. increase the preload of the heart. B. increase the afterload of the heart. C. dilate coronary vessels to increase the delivery of oxygen through those vessels. **D. decrease venous return to the heart, thereby decreasing the myocardial workload** 39\. Transdermal patch can only be worn for a day to prevent tolerance to nitrates. **A. 12 to 14 hours** B. 10 to 12 hours C. 8 to 10 hours D. 6 to 8 hours 40\. The nurse is working on a medical unit in which a client suddenly develops left-sided weakness and garbled speech. The nurse calls the doctor, who diagnosed the client with a CVA (stroke) and orders heparin 5,000 units IV and a heparin drip to run at 1,000 units per hour. What should the nurse keep readily available? A. Vitamin K B. Coumadin C. Aquamephyton **D. Protamine sulfate** 41\. The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect of heparin by continuous IV infusion? A. decreased blood pressure B. increased pulse rate **C. ecchymoses** D. tinnitus 42\. A clinical instructor supervising a group of nursing students in the medical ward asked about how heparin can be administered. A nursing student is correct when she says that it is given A. IV and orally **B. IV and subcutaneous** C. IM and subcutaneous D. Oral and intramuscular 43\. Myocardial infarction in Covid-19 should be treated with a combination of aspirin, clopidogrel, low molecular weight heparin, and statin. Which of the following is a low molecular weight heparin? **A. Enoxaparin** B. Alteplase C. Coumadin D. Heparin flush 44\. A clot formed from fibrin, platelets, and cholesterol that either attaches to the inner wall of a blood vessel or occupies the entire lumen of a vessel is called A. fibrinogen **B. thrombus** C. an embolism D. thromboplastin 45\. A blood clot that becomes detached from thrombophlebitis in the lower extremities and is free to travel through the circulation is called a/an A. thrombus **B. embolism** C. thromboplastin D. coagulation factors II, VII, and X 46\. A client is admitted due to atrial fibrillation and is given heparin. The nurse would expect this laboratory test to be ordered by the doctor to monitor the effectiveness of heparin. A. prothrombin time B. partial thrombin time C. international normalized ratio **D. activated partial thromboplastin time** 47\. Which of the following health teaching is essential in heparin therapy? A. Take ecotrin for pain. **B. Use a safety razor to shave.** C. Use a soft sponge toothbrush. D. Use compression support stocking. 48\. client is brought to the emergency room stating that he has accidentally been taking two times his prescribed dose of warfarin (Coumadin) for the past week. After noting that the client has no evidence of obvious bleeding. The nurse plans to do which of the following? A. Prepare to administer the antidote B. Draws a sample for type cross match and transfuse the client C. Draws a sample for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) **D.** **Draws a sample for prothrombin time (PT) and intemational normalized ratio (INR) level** 49\. Which of the following is an inappropriate action by the nurse for this client who is on coumadin therapy? A. Observing for signs and symptoms of bleeding B. Having aquamephyton readily available. **C. Providing vitamin-K rich foods.** D. Monitoring for prothrombin time. 50.Which of the following is an acceptable international normalized ratio (INR) value for Coumadin? **A. 2-3 seconds** B. 0.8-1.1 seconds C. 11-12.5 seconds D. 15.5-35 seconds **PHARMACOLOGY-UNIT TEST** **LECTURE** 1.For which of the following patients would giving antitussives not contraindicated. A. 78-year old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. B. 54-year old male with an allergy to dextromethorphan. C. 26-year old female who is pregnant. **D. 38-year old female with diabetes.** 2\. A clinical instructor is explaining to her students that antihistamines should be used very cautiously in patients with a/an **A. History of arrhythmias** B. COPD or bronchitis C. Asthma or seasonal rhinitis D. Angioedema or low blood pressure 3.A patient is not getting a response to the antihistamine that was prescribed for allergic rhinitis. Appropriate action might include A. Switching to a decongestant B. Stopping the drug and increasing fluids **C. Trying a different antihistamine** D. Switching to a corticosteroids 4\. Asthma is a common cause for visits in the emergency department. An ER nurse during the AM shift has noticed that recent admission is highest in children. The main action of sympathomimetic bronchodilators is to A. cause bronchial irritation. **B. relax the smooth muscles of the bronchi.** C. constrict the smooth muscles of the bronchi. D. increase the response caused by oxygen in the aerosol 5\. Monitoring the correct dosage of xanthine product is best accomplished by A. determining if the frequency of prn medication use is increasing B. decreasing the dose if the patient begins vomiting C. monitoring the relief of signs and symptoms **D. obtaining the theophylline blood level** 6\. Which of the following should be avoided during a test on theophylline levels? A. Orange juice **B. Chocolates** C. Peanuts D. Milk 7\. A patient has wheezing and is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse would expect the physician to order which medication that will be effective in relieving bronchospasms? **A. Albuterol** B. Prednisone C. Montelukast D. Cromalyn sodium 8.A nursing student has a correct understanding of the therapeutic level of theophylline if she chooses A. 10-15 ug/ml **B. 10-20 ug/ml** C. 20-25 ug/ml D. 20-30 ug/ml 9\. A patient is complaining of itching, tearing, and swollen eyelids due to a conjunctival inflammation. Which of the following would be an appropriate drug for this? **A. Cromolyn drops** B. Clear eyes drops C. Visine eye drops D. Eye Mo Red drops 10. After receiving Montelukast for asthma, the male client asks the nurse, \"How long will it take for this drug to work?\" How should the nurse respond? **A. In 30 minutes** B. In one hour C. In 2 hours D. In 4 hours 11\. A patient has had asthma for years and takes several different medications for management. The treatment regimen has been changed to include corticosteroids. Which of the following statement shows a correct understanding by the nurse about corticosteroids? A. \"Corticosteroids is the drug of choice for status asthmaticus.\" B. \"Corticosteroids are wonderful anti-inflammatory drugs and can be discontinued anytime.\" **C. \"Corticosteroids are used for long-term asthma control but not for acute asthma at- lack**.\" D. \"Addition of corticosteroids means the asthma is out of control and needed to be treat aggres- sively.\" 12.You know that systemic corticosteroids are used primarily for the purpose of A. enhancing the action of cromolyn sodium. B. producing direct smooth muscle constriction. C. decreasing the effect of beta-adrenergic drugs. **D. decreasing the inflammatory activity in the bronchioles** 13\. A 74-year old client has a history of hypertension, mild renal failure, and angina. The client is on a low-sodium, low-protein diet. The most recent BP is 150/90. The following are the organs damage when there is a persistent increase in the blood pressure. A. Brain, Gl and heart B. Heart, liver and kidneys C. Lungs, brain, and kidneys **D. Kidneys, heart, and brain** 14\. A nursing student show a correct understanding of the difference between cardiac cells from skeletal muscle cells if they verbalize that A. it contains actin and myosin **B. it possess automaticity and conductivity** C. calcium must be present for muscle contrac tion to occur D. they do not require oxygen to survive 15\. Pressure within the vascular system is determined by the following except A. peripheral resistance B. stroke volume **C. sodium load** D. heart rate 16\. You know that treatment of the hypertensive client should begin **A.as soon as the hypertension is detected**. B. after there is evidence of vascular disease. C. if the diastolic pressure is over 120 mm Hg. D. after the age of 50, regardless of associated disease. 17\. The client is on two antihypertensive drugs. The nurse recognizes that the advantage of combination therapy is A. there is less daily medication dosing. B. the blood pressure will decrease faster. **C. there will be fewer side effects and greater client compliance**. D. combination therapy will treat the client\'s other medical conditions. 18. You understand that the renin-angiotensin system is not associated with A. blood flow through the kidneys. **B. production of surfactant in the lungs.** C. release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex. D. intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation. 19\. Your clinical instructor is explaining to you that ACE inhibitors are used for hypertension control because they will A. release renin into the bloodstream. B. allow the kidneys to save sodium and water. **C. inhibit the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.** D. vasoconstrict the adrenal cortex to increase aldosterone secretion. 20\. Which of the following may be attributed as a side effect to **captopril (Capoten**)? A. Pulmonary edema B. Loss of appetite **C. Productive cough** D. Hyperkalemia 21\. A nursing student shows correct understanding of slow channel calcium entry blocking agents if he chooses which of the following statements? A. It increases permeability of the cardiac mem- brane to calcium. B. It transfers calcium for direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle. C. It selectively increases the passage of extracellular calcium ions, which promotes diuresis. **D. It inhibits the passage of extracellular calcium ions through cardiac cell membrane, producing decreased peripheral vascular resistance.** 22\. The nurse is giving client education on the use of calcium channel blockers (CCBs). Which of the following is not a priority for the nurse when teaching clients about (CCBs)? A. Check blood pressure and notify healthcare provider if blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg or less. **B. If taking a drug that causes photosentivity, wear protective clothing when outdoors in sunlight.** C. Immediately report chest pain, palpitations, or a \"racing heart.\" D. Report dizziness or lightheadedness. 23. These drugs block vasoconstrictor and aldosterone secreting angiotensin II. A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Calcium channel blockers **D. Angiotensin receptor blockers** 24\. Which of the following nursing intervention is appropriate in female clients taking angiotensin receptor blockers? **A. To inform OB-GYN doctor if taking the drug.** B. Monitor for occurrence of a productive cough C. Let client monitor his/her weight daily. D. Monitor for intake and output. 25\. The beta blockers aside from being used as an antihypertensive are also used in which of the following conditions? A. Raynaud\'s phenomenon B. Coronary artery disease **C. dysrhythmias** D. Glaucoma 26\. The nurse acknowledges that beta blockers are as effective as antianginals because they do what? A. Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation. B. Maintain heart rate and blood pressure. C. Decrease heart rate and increase myocardial contractility. **D. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility.** 27\. The physician prescribes propanolol HCL (Inderal) to a hypertensive client. What information will the nurse give to the patient about the drug? A. Monitor BP every month B. Smoke just 1 pack of cigarettes **C. Do not abruptly stop the intake of drug** D. Stop medication intake if migraine develops 28\. A nurse is interviewing a client who is about to receive metoprolol. Upon the history taking, the client is also taking insulin. Which of the following statements made by the nurse will correctly explain the possible interaction of these medications? A. \"This medication will have no effect on the blood sugar level.\" **B. \"This medication may cause low blood sugar level.** C. \"This medication will maintain the blood sugar level on a normal range.\" D. \"This medication may cause hyperglycemia or increase blood sugar level.\" 29\. A 45-year old female with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with worsening migraine headaches. Which of the following medications is appropriate to treat her hypertension and headaches simultaneously? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Methyldopa **C. Metoprolol** D. Lisinopril 30\. A client is given a diuretic as an adjunct to treatment of hypertension. The nurse is teaching the client about this type of treatment regimen. She explains that diuretics are used in hypertension to **A. promote fluid loss from the body** B. encourage reabsorption of sodium and chloride C. promote weight loss in more obese hypertensive patients D. flush toxic metabolites, which are causing hypertension, from the circulatory system 31\. You are aware that furosemide therapy is frequently associated with adverse reactions such as A. hyperkalemia, severe postural hypotension, diabetes B. hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, glucose tolerance **C. hypokalemia, paresthesia, and leg cramps.** D. depression, bizarre dreams 32\. The client is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following diet is recommended for the client? A. High-potassium diet **B. Low-potassium diet** C. High protein diet D. Low protein diet 33\. A male client is admitted after a car accident. Assessment findings after 12 hours showed signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse anticipates administering which drug? A. furosemide (Lasix) **B. mannitol (Osmitrol)** C. lidocaine (Xylocaine) D. hydrochlorothiazide (HyroDiuril) 34\. A systemic drug that may be prescribed to produce diuresis and inhibit formation of aqueous humor A. hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril) **B. acetazolamide (Diamox)** C. amiloride (Midamor) D. furosemide (Lasix) 35\. Which of the following clinical manifestations may indicate that a client taking potassium wasting diuretic is experiencing hypokalemia? A. Diarrhea B. Polydipsia C. Hypertension **D. Paresthesias** 36\. A common effect of taking diuretics is hypokalemia. Which drug will not cause this? **A. spironolactone** B. chlorothiazide C. furosemide D. metoprolol 37. Mr. Tan has been taking furosemide 180 mg daily in divided dosages there times a day. What does he take for each dose? A. 100 mg per dose B. 80 mg per dose **C. 60 mg per dose** D. 40 mg per dose 38\. The drug of choice to start for patients who need to add drug therapy to reduce their blood pressure. A. amlodipine B. furosemide C. candesartan **D. hydrochlorothiazide** 39\. A client is newly diagnosed with mild heart failure. The client has been started on digoxin (Lanoxin). The positive inotropic action of digoxin refers to the ability to increase the A. heart rate B. resistance **C. force of contractions** D. electrical conduction 40\. A patient is asking the nurse about the action of digoxin. The nurse is correct in her understanding of cardiotonic drugs in treating chronic heart failure if she explains that it helps in **A. slowing heart rate.** B. speeding up coritractions. C. Increasing water loss to reduce edema. D. reducing the effects of other medications 41\. What question should the nurse ask to know if the client is experiencing digitalis toxicity? A. \"Do you feel dizzy?\" B. \"Do you have constipation?\" **C. \"Do you see halos or rainbows around lights?\"** D. \"Do you experience tightening of your ring?\" 42\. A nurse is about to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should A. give the drug and notify the prescriber B. withhold the drug and notify the prescriber C. retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug if pulse has not changed **D. retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min** 43\. An infant is ordered a scheduled dose of digoxin. The infant\'s apical pulse is 78 bpm. The nurse should A. administer the dose as ordered. **B. hold the dose and notify the physician.** C. skip this dose but administer the next scheduled dose. D. hold the dose and reassess the apical pulse in 30 minutes. 44\. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). All of which are the side effects associated with the medication except A. loss of appetite B. blurred vision **C. drowsiness** D. diarrhea 45\. Mr. Reyes is receiving a digitalis preparation. You are assessing his condition to determine whether the drug therapy is working. You observe that his edema has decreased, his urinary output has increased, his weight has dropped, his pulmonary congestion has decreased, and his pulse rate is 80 beats/minute. You can infer that A. there is still evidence of renal impairment. B. the underlying dysrhythmia is unchanged. C. chronic heart failure is still present. **D. digitalis therapy has been helpful.** 46\. A nurse is administering vasodilators to a client admitted in the Medical Ward. Vasodilators promote blood flow to the extremities by A. increasing the heart rate. **B. relaxing the smooth muscles of the blood vessels**. C. decreasing the amount of blood carried to the heart D. reducing the pressure the heart has to pump against 47. This type of vasodilator enhances the microcirculation of the hair follicles and is given to clients with alopecia. **A. Minoxidil** B. Clonidine C. Hydralazine D. Methyldopa 48\. What condition would alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers be used for that will also affect the blood pressure? A. Urinary incontinence **B. Pheocromocytoma** C. Urinary frequency D. Alopecia 49\. Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating hypertension during pregnancy? A. propanolol B. amlodipine **C. methyldopa** D. candesartan 50\. A client with newly diagnosed heart failure after myocardial infarction comes to the out patient department to ask about his new. medications. Which of the following statements made by the patient concerns the nurse? A. \"I get out of the bed slowly in the morning.\" B. \"I keep nitroglycerin sublingual with me at all times" C. "I take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning with breakfast.\" **D. \"I do not like to take my digoxin because it make me nauseous\"**