Patho Final Review - Need to Knows PDF

Week 1 What to know: 1. What are the 4 tissue types? Nerve, epithelial, connective, muscle 2. What are the differences between passive and active transport? Active transport requires additional energy in the form of ATP, to actively move substances across the membrane 3....

Week 1 What to know: 1. What are the 4 tissue types? Nerve, epithelial, connective, muscle 2. What are the differences between passive and active transport? Active transport requires additional energy in the form of ATP, to actively move substances across the membrane 3. What are the functions and composition of the plasma membrane? The cell membrane, also called the plasma membrane, is found in all cells and separates the interior of the cell from the outside environment. The cell membrane consists of a lipid bilayer that is semipermeable. The cell membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell. It also has receptors on the outside which relay information and instruction for cell function. 4. Why do water and small, electrically charged molecules move easily through pores in the plasma membrane? Very small polar molecules, such as water, can cross via simple diffusion due to their small size. Charged atoms or molecules of any size cannot cross the cell membrane via simple diffusion as the charges are repelled by the hydrophobic tails in the interior of the phospholipid bilayer. 5. What is osmosis? Forces caused by the charge of ions that determine water movement between the ICF and the ECF compartments. 6. How do cells communicate with each other? Gap junctions, membrane bound receptors, intracellular receptors, chemical signalling, neurotransmitters 7. What are positive and negative feedback systems and some examples? Homeostasis: how cells and tissues regulate functions, maintain balance- positive example- oxytocin, negative-thermoregulation If the organism cannot ADAPT, exhaustion can result  8. What is mitosis and the 4 phases? mitosis is a part of the cell cycle in which replicated chromosomes are separated into two new nuclei. Cell division by mitosis gives rise to genetically identical cells in which the total number of chromosomes is maintained ○ S phase DNA synthesized ○ G2 phase RNA and protein synthesis ○ M phase (M=mitosis) Nuclear and cytoplasmic division Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Animal_cell_cycle-en.svg ○ G1 phase Period between M phase and start of DNA synthesis 9. What is the major composition of DNA? Phosphate, deoxyribose and 4 nitrogenous bases, base pairs are A T G C 10. Define the terms mutation, autosomes, and sex chromosomes. Mutation: A genetic mutation is a change in a sequence of your DNA. Your DNA sequence gives your cells the information they need to perform their functions. If part of your DNA sequence is in the wrong place, isn’t complete or is damaged, you might experience symptoms of a genetic condition.- incorrect base pairs Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics through mutation Autosome: An autosome is any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome Sex chromosomes: X and Y, females have XX, males have XY normally 11.What are euploid and polyploid cells? A euploid cell or embryo has the normal number of 46 chromosomes. This means it has an exact multiple of a single set of normal 23 unpaired chromosomes found in healthy sperm and egg cells. Euploid embryos have much greater chances of implanting successfully, higher chances of successful pregnancies, and reduced rates of miscarriage. In contrast, an aneuploid embryo (or one with an abnormal number of chromosomes) accounts for increased rates of miscarriages, birth defects, and implantation failure. Polyploidy: Polyploidy is a condition in which the cells of an organism have more than one pair of (homologous) chromosomes. Most species whose cells have nuclei (eukaryotes) are diploid, meaning they have two sets of chromosomes, where each set contains one or more chromosomes and comes from each of two parents, resulting in pairs of homologous chromosomes between sets. However, some organisms are polyploid. Polyploidy is especially common in plants. Most eukaryotes have diploid somatic cells, but produce haploid gametes (eggs and sperm) by meiosis. A monoploid has only one set of chromosomes, and the term is usually only applied to cells or organisms that are normally diploid. Males of bees and other Hymenoptera, for example, are monoploid. Unlike animals, plants and multicellular algae have life cycles with two alternating multicellular generations. The gametophyte generation is haploid, and produces gametes by mitosis, the sporophyte generation is diploid and produces spores by meiosis. Polyploidy may occur due to abnormal cell division, either during mitosis, or more commonly from the failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis or from the fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm. In addition, it can be induced in plants and cell cultures by some chemicals: the best known is colchicine, which can result in chromosome doubling, though its use may have other less obvious consequences as well. 12. What is aneuploidy? The result of homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis, abnormal number of chromosomes, Cell containing three copies of one chromosome is trisomic (trisomy) 13. Define locus, allele, heterozygous and homozygous. Locus: Position of a gene along a chromosome Allele: Different form of a particular gene at a given locus Polymorphism ○ Locus that has two or more alleles that occur with appreciable frequency Homozygous: Loci on a pair of chromosomes have identical genes Heterozygous: Loci on a pair of chromosomes have different genes ○ 14. What is a polygenic trait expression? Several genes acting together, Variation in traits caused by the effects of several loci 15. What is consanguinity and what does it increase? Interrelated parents whose offspring are at much higher risk of genetic disease such as cystic fibrosis 16. Discuss the differences between a dominant and a recessive allele. The allele whose effects are observable is said to be dominant. The allele whose effects are hidden is said to be recessive (from the Latin root for “hiding”). Traditionally, for loci having two alleles, the dominant allele is denoted by an uppercase letter, and the recessive allele is denoted by a lowercase letter. When one allele is dominant over another, the heterozygote genotype Aa has the same phenotype as the dominant homozygote AA. For the recessive allele to be expressed, it must exist in the homozygote form, aa. When the heterozygote is distinguishable from both homozygotes, the locus is said to exhibit codominance. 17. Discuss the concept of multifactorial inheritance and include two examples. Some traits result from several genes acting together. These are called polygenic traits. When environmental factors influence the expression of these traits, the term “multifactorial” is used. Intelligence quotient (IQ) and height are examples of multifactorial traits Week 2 what to know questions and answers 1. What are antibodies, the classes of antibodies and what they do? An antibody (Ab), also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), is a large, Y-shaped protein used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects such as pathogenic bacteria and viruses. The antibody recognizes a unique molecule of the pathogen, called an antigen. Each tip of the "Y" of an antibody contains a paratope (analogous to a lock) that is specific for one particular epitope (analogous to a key) on an antigen, allowing these two structures to bind together with precision. Using this binding mechanism, an antibody can tag a microbe or an infected cell for attack by other parts of the immune system, or can neutralize it directly (for example, by blocking a part of a virus that is essential for its invasion). To allow the immune system to recognize millions of different antigens, the antigen-binding sites at both tips of the antibody come in an equally wide variety. In contrast, the remainder of the antibody is relatively constant. It only occurs in a few variants, which define the antibody's class or isotype: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM. The constant region at the trunk of the antibody includes sites involved in interactions with other components of the immune system. The class hence determines the function triggered by an antibody after binding to an antigen, in addition to some structural features. Antibodies from different classes also differ in where they are released in the body and at what stage of an immune response. Together with B and T cells, antibodies comprise the most important part of the adaptive immune system. IgM is the predominant antibody of the typical primary immune response An antibody is a protein produced by plasma cells in response to an antigen 2. What is active acquired immunity, passive immunity? Active Immunity Active Immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity can be acquired through natural immunity or vaccine-induced immunity. Natural immunity is acquired from exposure to the disease organism through infection with the actual disease.  Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination. These are both acquired immunity- not present at birth. Innate immunity is a non-specific defense mechanism, adaptive immunity is a specific dense mechanism Either way, if an immune person comes into contact with that disease in the future, their immune system will recognize it and immediately produce the antibodies needed to fight it. Active immunity is long-lasting, and sometimes life-long. Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. A newborn baby acquires passive immunity from its mother through the placenta. People can also get passive immunity through antibody-containing blood products such as immune globulin, which may be given when immediate protection from a specific disease is needed. The major advantage to passive immunity is that protection is immediate, whereas active immunity takes time (usually several weeks) to develop. However, passive immunity lasts only for a few weeks or months. Only active immunity is long-lasting. 2. What are vaccines? What is a viral vaccine? They only contain attenuated virus 3. What is an attenutated vaccine? The antigen in the vaccine is alive, but less infectious 4. How do bacteria become resistant to treatment? They are capable of mutating 5. What are the blood types and what antibodies are present in the different blood types? There are 4 main blood groups defined by the ABO system: blood group A – has A antigens on the red blood cells with anti-B antibodies in the plasma blood group B – has B antigens with anti-A antibodies in the plasma blood group O – has no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma blood group AB – has both A and B antigens, but no antibodies If you have type O blood, which antibodies do you have? Anti-A and B antibodies 6. What is a hypersensitivity reaction? Altered immune system response to a sensitizing agent What are the classes of hypersensitivity reactions? These are categorized based on the presence of specific antibodies I, II, III- does involve an antibody IV- does not involve an antibody  7. What are the catecholamines and what do they cause in the body? Where are they released from? Adrenal medulla- Epinephrine and Norepinephrine - increase blood pressure and heart rate Adrenal cortex- releases cortisol -mobilize energy stores The neuroendocrine hormones can act to supress immune function 8. What particles are used by the immune system to fight bacterial infections? Antibodies 9. What is a common disease caused by bacteria that secrete toxins? Tetanus 10. What is alloimmunity? When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by a fetus, transplant rejection 11. What is the GAS model, and what can happen if stress is not kept under control? Exhaustion and death Its based on the physiological response to psychological stressors 12. What behaviour is an example of an adaptive coping response to stress? Some people go for a run, do yoga, or exercise to relieve their stress. Other examples of adaptive coping skills are by solving the problem, using humor, taking a break or pausing before reacting, or even just being mindful in the moment. 13. A patient experiences a stressor that activates the stress response. What is a physiological effect seen related to the release of catecholamines into the bloodstream? Increase in blood sugar 14. what causes scarring? collagen issues! Keloids and hypertrophic scars can result from dysfunctional wound healing 15. what are beta endorphins and their role in pain inhibition? Natural opiates cause pain inhibition 16. what are prostaglandins and the role of aspirin? Decreases prostaglandin production 17. What happens to the immune system with age? You are more likely to get an infection Additional questions from week 1 The regulation of acid-base balance through removal of acids is performed by what? The lungs What are the base components of DNA= a phosphate, deoxyribose and 4 nitrogenous bases Week 3 need to know questions: 1. What is salivary amylase? What does it aid to digest? Enzyme in the mouth, starts to break down CHO 2. What does hematochezia refer to? Blood in stool 3. What are the different types of diarrhea? What is osmotic diarrhea? What is secretory diarrhea? Osmotic In secretory diarrhea, water is held within the bowel lumen by incompletely absorbed electrolytes, whereas in osmotic diarrhea, electrolyte absorption is normal but water is held in the bowel lumen by some other osmotically active substance Secretory- caused by a bacterial infection like dystentery 4. What is functional constipation and what factors influence it? Lifestyle related, diet and low fluid intake, inactivity etc. a. Disorders of motility can result in delayed gastric emptying, obstruction, ineffective peristalsis 5. What are the signs and symptoms of large bowl obstruction? Distention and hypogastric pain 6. What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding? Esophageal varices, like hemorrhoids but higher up 7. What is the most common symptoms of a stress ulcer? Bleeding, blood in stool a. GI bleeding signs? Blood in stool, abdominal pain, bloating, hypotension and tachycardia if advanced b. There are duodenal ulcers- related to increased stomach acid and gastric ulcers- associated with less stomach acid 8. What is hypovolemic shock and how is it related to artery insufficiency? Low blood volume- Ischemia alters mucosal membrane permeability and the result is more fluid loss  9. What is ischemia and how does it affect membrane permeability? Lack of oxygen to tissues causes tissue death 10. What are the pyloric, cardiac, lower esophageal and gastric sphincters? See slides 11. What is pyloric stenosis? Stiffening and lack of function of the pyloric sphincter of the stomach 12. What is gastroesophageal reflux? Acid reflux from stomach to esophagus, caused by loss of muscle tone in lower esophageal sphincter, and things that delay gastric emptying and pressure on abdomen 13. What is pancreatitis? Inflammation of the pancreas Acute pancreatitis- epigastric pain – temporary Chronic pancreatis- persistent and ongoing inflammation 14. What are the factors affecting chronic pancreatitis? Alcohol use, history of gallstones, smoking 15. How does the back up of pancreatic enzymes cause pancreatitis? Starts pain, inflammation and infection 16. What are the types of ulcers and what factors contribute to them? Duodenal and peptic Stress Bacteria Results in bleeding Caused by breaks in the mucosa and corrosive secretions 17. What is a duodenal ulcer? Erosion in the duodenum, sometimes caused by NSAID use 18. How is NSAID use related to ulcers? Can erode the stomach lining  19. What does liver cirrhosis cause? Vomiting blood, portal vein hypertension a. Also liver hepatitis is viral, causes inflammation of the liver b. There is also biliary cirrhosis- caused by the biliary duct blockage so bile cannot be released Liver dysfunction issues include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, jaundice and hepatorenal syndrome 20. What are gallstones made of? Cholesterol 21. What does the pancreas produce that is related to digestion? Lipase a. Too little lipase production indicates pancreatic insufficiency b. This can cause malabsorption of fat and fat-soluble vitamins, lactose intolerance and steatorrhea (fatty stools) 22. What does parasympathetic stimulation of the pancreas cause? Enzyme secretion – this makes sense if you think about it 23. What is a hiatal hernia? Protrusion of the intestines thru the abdomen, causes heartburn and difficulty swallowing 24. What is alcoholic steatohepatitis? Inflamed liver, necrotic hepatocytes caused by alcoholism 25. What are the quadrants and areas of the abdomen? Where is epigastric pain, visceral – (pain acting on an organ), somatic, parietal and hypogastric pain? a. Where is pain felt most from acute pancreatitis? epigastric 26. Right lower abdominal quadrant pain, tenderness, fever. What do you suspect? Appendicitis! 27. Resistance to what hormone is related to the development of obesity? leptin 28. What are the phases of digestion? Cephalic phase, gastric phase, intestinal phase a. Understand the role of the vagus nerve and the actions of the gallbladder  29. In digestion, gallbladder contraction is medicated by which nerve? Vagus nerve 30. What is gastritis? Inflammation of the stomach lining 31. Which reflex inhibits gastric motility when the ileum is overdistended? Ileogastric 32. Narrowing of the opening between stomach and duodenum is a pyloric obstruction 33. Why is gastrectomy dangerous? Complications can be malabsorption of nutrients, vitamin B12 deficiency and dumping syndrome 34. What are UC and Crohn’s disease? How are they different? These cause inflammation and dysfunction in different parts of the intestine, one is continuous and one is patchy with the inflammation and one goes deeper in the wall of the intestine 35. What are diverticulitis, appendicitis, IBS and vascular insufficiency? Inflammation of different parts of the intestine with different levels of vascular compromise Week 4 need to know questions 1. What are the common symptoms of nephritic syndrome? Hematuria due to inflammation of the glomerulus 2. What causes urinary retention most commonly? Formation of renal calculi 3. What are the common types of incontinence? Stress incontinence 4. What is pyelonephritis? Inflammation and infection of the renal pelvis  5. What are most renal stones made of? Calcium, they are caused by an accumulation of minerals and salts in the kidneys 6. What is water balance most regulated by in a dehydrated person? Sodium 7. What does the release of ADH cause? Increased plasma osmolality, increase water reabsorption in the kidneys 8. What is hyponatremia? Low sodium content in blood, is a risk for dehydrated patients, so is hypernatremia If the balance of fluids and sodium is upset, you can experience hypernatremia – having too much sodium and not enough fluid. Or you can experience hyponatremia – having too much fluid and not enough sodium. Both of these conditions can be the result of dehydration. 9. What does vomiting do to increase the risk of metabolic alkalosis? The chloride ion content of the blood gets low when people vomit a lot Metabolic alkalosis is primary increase in bicarbonate (HCO3−) with or without compensatory increase in carbon dioxide partial pressure (Pco2); pH may be high or nearly normal. Common causes include prolonged vomiting, hypovolemia, diuretic use, and hypokalemia 10. What is hyperkalemia and how is it related to acute acidosis? Caused by hypoaldosteronism, this is potassium levels too high in the blood. Hyperaldosteronism causes loss of potassium and high levels of sodium. Advanced kidney disease is a common cause of hyperkalemia. A diet high in potassium. Eating too much food that is high in potassium can also cause hyperkalemia, especially in people with advanced kidney disease. Foods such as cantaloupe, honeydew melon, orange juice, and bananas are high in potassium 11. Kidney failure with edema, know the role of increase capillary hydrostatic pressure and how this is different to oncotic pressure- in patients with kidney failure and edema, it is increased capillary hydrostatic pressure that is the cause of the edema Oncotic pressure is pressure generate by plasma proteins- large molecules in solution In a patient with both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis, check for kidney failure. 12. How do the kidney activate vitamin d? why are bone fractures a risk in kidney failure? In kidney failure the kidneys fail to activate vitamin D. 25-Hydroxyvitamin D is further hydroxylated by the enzyme 1-α-hydroxylase in the kidney, to yield 1,25-dihyroxyvitamin D, which is the active form of vitamin D, the major endocrine form of vitamin D, and this metabolite is responsible for the effects of vitamin D on calcium and phosphorus metabolism, bone health 13. What is the renin-angiotensin system activated by? Decrease in blood pressure in afferent arterioles 14. What disorder is characterized by cloudy urine, flank pain and hematuria? Acute cystitis, is associated with pyelonephritis, caused by bacteria, fungi, viruses, mainly E. Coli 15. What happens when one kidney is removed? The other one grows to compensate and the person will have almost 100% of normal kidney function- hypertrophy 16. What does a blockage of the renal calculus (kidney stone) cause? Flank pain, urinary retention 17. When is glucose excreted in urine? When carrier molecules reach their max 18. Which bacteria is commonly cultured in a UTI? Urinary tract infection= e. coli 19. What does a problem or blockage of the renal calculus cause? flank pain 20. What is a symptom of kidney failure with edema? increased capillary hydrostatic pressure 21. What is a common condition associated with the development of acute pyelonephritis? Where is the site of infection in pyelonephritis? renal pelvis UTI’s can be caused by bacteria. E coli mainly Chronic pyelonephritis is longer duration, more severe symptoms and leads to kidney scarring  22. Know what a urinary tract obstruction is, what it causes and why. Hydronephrosis, decreased glomerular filtration rate, due to dilation of the renal pelvis and calyxes proximal to the blockage The prostate, urethral stricture (constriction) and bladder outlet obstruction and can make urine flow difficult Neurogenic bladder= dysfunction of the coordination between the bladder muscles and the nerves that control them 23. Know what kidney/renal stones are made of, and gallstones. One is calcium, one is cholesterol. 24. Know what hyperkalemia is, hypernatremia, and hyperaldosteronism are. Hyperaldosteronism occurs when the adrenal glands release too much aldosterone. Primary hyperaldosteronism is due to a problem of the adrenal glands themselves. Most cases are caused by a noncancerous (benign) tumor of the adrenal gland. 25. know the fluid compartments. Three major body fluid compartments: Intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, and intravascular/ plasma. In the human body plan, there are three major fluid compartments that are functionally interconnected. These are the (1) intracellular fluid compartment, (2) interstitial fluid, and (3) intravascular/ plasma 26. What is uremia? The build up of waste products in the blood when the kidneys are not filtering properly 27. What causes edema? a. Excess water/fluid retention b. Fluid accumulation in the tissues due to kidney disfunction 28. Hyperthyroidism is: excess thyroid hormone production 29. Acute Diabetes Mellitus complications include : a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. HHS- Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) is a life-threatening complication of diabetes — mainly Type 2 diabetes. HHS happens when your blood glucose (sugar) levels are too high for a long period, leading to severe dehydration and confusion. HHS requires immediate medical treatment. Without treatment, it can be fatal c. Hypoglycemia  Chronic complications : retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy Atherosclerosis is a complication of chronic type 2 diabetes 30. What is the difference between type 1 and 2 diabetes? In diabetes type 1, the pancreas does not make insulin, because the body's immune system attacks the islet cells in the pancreas that make insulin. In diabetes type 2, the pancreas makes less insulin than used to, and your body becomes resistant to insulin 31. Hyperaldosteronism is: excessive aldosterone due to adrenal gland dysfunction 32. Addison’s disease is: dysfunction of the adrenal cortex, causing too little cortisol and aldosterone production 33. ADH effects: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a chemical produced in the brain that causes the kidneys to release less water, decreasing the amount of urine produced. A high ADH level causes the body to produce less urine. A low level results in greater urine production. 34. What is the role of physical activity in the prevention of colon cancer? Decrease transit time 35. What is neurogenic bladder? A dysfunction in the normal coordingation between the bladder and the nerves that control the bladder Week 5 questions – the endocrine system 1. What does stress cause the adrenal cortex to secrete? Cortisol 2. What are the signs and symptoms of neurogenic diabetes insipidus? Polyuria and thirst, usually given ADH 3. What does stress cause the adrenal medulla to secrete? Epinephrine. Norepinephrine 4. What is Graves’ disease and the signs and symptoms? Would expect to see high levels of circulating thyroid stimulating auto-antibodies 5. What are the complications of long term, poorly controlled Type II diabetes mellitus? Increased blood glucose causes a lot of damage- atherosclerosis and nerve damage 6. What are the signs and symptoms of a new case of type I diabetes in a child? Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia and weight loss  7. What is the cause of type 1 diabetes? Viral or autoimmune destruction of the pancreas, islet cells which make insulin 8. What is an early sign of kidney issues in a person with diabetes? microalbuminuria 9. What is a common cause of hypoparathyroidism? Parathyroid gland injury 10. What does Cushing’s syndrome look like in a person? Moon face and trunk obesity 11. If a person has Graves Disease, what would their T3 levels look like? high 12. With Cushing’s disease and Addisons’s disease, which hormone increase?ACTH 13. If you have your thyroid removed, you will have low blood calcium, what else would be a sign to look for? Laryngeal spasms and hyper-reflexia 14. With excess catecholamine release, what do you look for in the bloodwork? hyperglycemia 15. Which hormone prevents uterine bleeding? oxytocin 16. Which hormone enhances myocardial contractility?, the strength of contraction of the heart? epinephrine 17. Why would glucose be excreted through the kidneys in people with diabetes? Diabetes causes glycosuria because there either isn't enough insulin, or your body can't use what's available. Without insulin, blood glucose levels become too high, and your kidneys can't filter and reabsorb it. Your body gets rid of the excess through your urine. 18. What does damage to the posterior pituitary cause? Dehydration from polyuria  19. What do people with diabetes ultimately die from? Heart disease Week 7 need to know questions: 1. What are the signs and symptoms of anemia? Fatigue weakness, pallor and spoon shaped nails 2. What are the signs and symptoms of pernicious anemia?- fatigue, weight loss, tingling in extremities, lab tests show decreased Hb, decreased hematocrit, increased MCV, and NORMAL iron, it is congenital intrinsic factor deficiency 3. Anemia is: a deficiency in RBC’s or hemoglobin 4. Anemia results in decreased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood 5. In Normocytic-normochromic anemia RBC’s are: normal in size and normal colour 6. What is primary thrombocythemia? What would a blood smear show? Overproduction of platelets 7. Causes of thrombocytopenia include: immune-related destructions of platelets, bone marrow disorder and medications 8. Hemostasis, or blood clotting issues can be caused by: vitamin K deficiency, liver disease and platelet dysfunction 9. What is infectious mononucleosis and what should a person do to stop the spread? Don’t share utensils or glasses 10. Complications of mono: musculoskeletal system complaints like sore joints 11. What causes candidiasis and what are the symptoms? Yeast-like fungal overgrowth, causes mouth and vaginal pustular lesions for example and itching 12. What is a sign of iron-deficiency anemia, along with fatigue and weakness? Koilonychia 13. Nail infections can be caused by: fungi, bacteria and viruses 14. What is lymphadenopathy? Enlarged lymph nodes 15. What is another term for male-pattern baldness? Androgenic alopecia 16. If someone has red hands, red face, feet, ears, headache and drowsiness, what do you suspect? Increased number of erythrocytes on blood smear ,Polycythemia vera- this is increased rbc production 17. What are the clinical signs of cellulitis? Warm, swollen and erythematous skin 18. What is discoid lupus erythematosus? Autoimmune disease that causes red lesions with brownish scales 19. What adaptation does chronic blood loss lead to? Peripheral vasoconstriction 20. In a person with chronic hepatitis C, which vitamin is decreased? K 21. What are carbuncles? Infected hair follicles 22. What do the rule of nines, the Lund and the Browder charts help identify? Amount of surface area burned of skin 23. What is the deadliest form of skin cancer? melanoma 24. What is related to pruritis (itching) ? An increase in histamine release- hives!  25. What is leukocytosis? High leukocyte count 26. What causes aplastic anemia? Stem cell deficiency 27. What are red blood cells called that have low Hb Concentration? hypochromic 28. Which layer of skin has the fat? Subcutaneous layer 29. Which cells of the skin are involved in the immune response? Langerhans 30. Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are different : in the diagnosis, symptoms, treatments and prognosis. 31. Splenomegaly is caused by: liver disease, hemolytic anemias, and infections 32. Clots or Thrombi are more likely in people who are: immobile, have endothelial damage and have hypercoagulation 33. what are pressure ulcers and what causes them? Dermal ulcers caused by shearing forces, friction, moisture and unrelieved pressure, associated with bed rest etc. more likely in people with reduced mobility, excessive moisture on skin, inflammation due to infection and mechanical friction, advanced age and poor nutrition/hydration 34. What are the signs and symptoms of herpes zoster? Also known as shingles.- vesicular eruptions on face and trunk, hx of chicken pox Who would be at risk for developing this disorder? People with compromised immune systems, older people, people with transplants etc. Week 8 need to know questions: Musculoskeletal system disorders and pain, temp, sleep and sensory function 1. What type of fracture results in a bone sticking through the skin? compound 2. What is sleep walking also referred to as? Somnambulism 3. If you hurt your knee, but feel the pain in your ankle, what is that called? Referred pain 4. What type of pain is it when you have abdominal pain? Visceral pain 5. If you snore loudly, feel tired in the morning and may stop breathing at night for periods of time, what is that called? Obstructive sleep apnea 6. What is a linear fracture? Parallel to the long bone 7. Why does osteoporosis occur? Increase bone resorption of calcium, characterized by decreased bone density and increased risk of fracture 8. What is osteomalacia? Soft bones due to inadequate bone mineralization 9. What crystalizes in the joints to cause gouty arthritis? Monosodium urate (uric acid) 10. How is sensorineural hearing loss different from conductive hearing loss in older adults? a. Blockage between outer/middle ear to inner ear 11. What causes rheumatoid arthritis? Inflammatory joint disease caused by auto-immune condition 12. Where do we find nociceptors and what do they do? Skin, pain receptors  13. What is rhabdomyolysis and what are the signs of it? Blood in urine due to breakdown of muscle tissue leading to release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, coke coloured pee is the sign 14. What organ helps us generate heat? hypothalamus 15. What is macular degeneration and what makes you more at risk for it? Degeneration of the part of the retina that allows us to see clearly, caused by hypertension and smoking 16. What is glaucoma? Increased intraocular pressure in the eye, can lead to blindness 17. What does febrile mean? Having a fever 18. Is a neurologist tells you why a pin prick is less painful than a deep cut, what theory is this? Specificity theory 19. What is a joint separation with bone partial loss of contact called? subluxation 20. What is a dislocation? complete separation of the ends of the bone in a joint 21. Strain, sprain and avulsion are different in the type of tissue affected 22. What is epicondylopathy and what are the signs and symptoms? Pain and weakness in joint, inflammation of the tendon, microtears in the attachments 23. What is a fatigue fracture? Know the different classifications of fracture: transverse, oblique, spiral, open, closed, compression, impacted and greenstick 24. The process of bone healing? Formation of a hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus, bone remodeling 25. What is fibromyalgia characterized by? Widespread musculoskeletal pain and tenderness 26. What causes osteoarthritis? Chronic degeneration of joint cartilage 27. Types of joint inflammation include osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, gouty arthritis, synovitis, bursitis, tendinitis, septic arthritis, reactive arthritis and psoriatic arthritis 28. What causes myasthenia gravis? Autoimmune injury of the neuromuscular junction 29. What is a common form of sensorineural hearing loss in an older adult? presbycusis 30. Contractures can be caused by prolonged immobility or immobilization. 31. Myositis is inflammation of the muscle tissue 32. Metabolic diseases of the musculoskeletal system are osteoporosis and osteomalacia. Week 9 need to know questions 1. What is Huntington’s disease and what are the symptoms? Also known as chorea Autosomal dominant hereditary degenerative disorder Severe degeneration of the basal ganglia (caudate nucleus) and cerebral cortex Symptoms are uncontrolled excess movement, progressive dysfunction of intellect/thought, symptoms usually appear around age 30- know this  2. What is a metabolically induced coma and the signs? a. Metabolic- drug-induced etc. i. Signs: decreased LOC after taking drugs, negative Babinski sign, reactive pupils, roving eye movements- know 3. What is the specificity theory of pain? The explanation that a pin-prick is less painful than a deep cut 4. If a person has a severe closed head injury in an MVA leading to a vegetative state, what brain structure is damaged? Structural- brainstem injury- patients are non-responsive to stimuli, often from a closed head injury- 5. What type of memory loss results in memory loss of events occurring after a head injury, affecting ability to perform new memories? Anterograde amnesia-results in inability to form new memories- know this 6. What is the Cheyne-stokes breathing pattern? i. Cheyne-Stokes respirations (CSR)- respirations based primary on levels of CO2 in blood- know this Cheyne-Stokes respiration is characteristic of damage to the respiratory center located in the medulla oblongata and pons, in the brainstem. Other causes include heart failure and central sleep apnea. It requires immediate provision of vital signs if the patient is Unconscious at the same time. Ataxic breathing= This is an agonal pattern of breathing that often occurs before impending cardiac arrest. It is completely irregular and is observed with medullary lesions. 7. What is a seizure caused by? Sudden, transient alteration of brain function caused by abnormal excessive discharges of cortical neurons- Metabolic disorders, Congenital malformations Genetic predisposition, Perinatal injury; postnatal trauma Myoclonic syndromes, Infection Brain tumour, Vascular disease, Substance abuse 8. What is a subarachnoid hemorrhage and the signs? Blood escapes from defective or injured vasculature into the subarachnoid space Severe headache, nausea, photophobia, nuchal rigidity- 9. What is a TIA and the signs? a. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) i. Neurological dysfunction lasting