Patho Exam 1 PDF

1. Which of the following cellular adaptations involves a decrease in cell size? a) Atrophy b) Hypertrophy c) Hyperplasia d) Metaplasia 2. Which cellular adaptation occurs due to increased workload or hormone stimulation? a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Atrophy d) Dysplasia 3. Which of the following is a reversible form of cell injury? a) Necrosis b) Apoptosis c) Dysplasia d) Ischemia 4. Which of the following occurs in cellular injury due to hypoxia? a) Increase in ATP production b) Decrease in lactic acid c) Cell membrane integrity is preserved d) Decrease in ATP production 5. Which of the following is a type of irreversible cell injury leading to death? a) Metaplasia b) Apoptosis c) Necrosis d) Hyperplasia 6. Which type of necrosis is typically associated with ischemic injury? a) Liquefactive necrosis b) Coagulative necrosis c) Fat necrosis d) Caseous necrosis 7. What is the most common cause of cellular hypoxia? a) Ischemia b) Hyperglycemia c) Hypercapnia d) Oxidative stress 8. Which of the following is an example of hormonal hyperplasia? a) Enlarged prostate b) Skin calluses c) Thickened uterine lining during pregnancy d) Liver regeneration after partial removal 9. Which is the most common type of cellular death seen in tuberculosis? a) Coagulative necrosis b) Liquefactive necrosis c) Caseous necrosis d) Fat necrosis 10. Which stage of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) involves the release of cortisol and catecholamines? a) Resistance b) Alarm c) Exhaustion d) Adaptation 11. In which GAS phase does the body attempt to resist or adapt to the stressor? a) Alarm b) Resistance c) Exhaustion d) Resolution 12. Which of the following is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress? a) Epinephrine b) Norepinephrine c) Cortisol d) Dopamine 13. What role does cortisol play in the stress response? a) Increases glucose production b) Decreases blood pressure c) Promotes protein synthesis d) Increases inflammatory response 14. Catecholamines are released during the stress response. Which of the following is a catecholamine? a) Cortisol b) Norepinephrine c) Aldosterone d) Insulin 15. Which system is activated in response to stress to regulate body functions such as heart rate and digestion? a) Sympathetic nervous system b) Parasympathetic nervous system c) Endocrine system d) Lymphatic system 16. Which hormone is secreted in response to activation of the HPA axis? a) Insulin b) Cortisol c) Thyroxine d) Oxytocin 17. What is the primary role of catecholamines in the stress response? a) Lower blood pressure b) Increase heart rate and blood pressure c) Inhibit glucose production d) Promote the inflammatory response 18. Which of the following conditions results from excessive cortisol secretion? a) Addison’s disease b) Cushing’s syndrome c) Hyperthyroidism d) Hypoglycemia 19. During cellular injury, which of the following enzymes become activated to degrade cell components? a) Kinases b) Proteases c) Lipases d) Phosphatases 20. Which of the following best describes ischemia? a) Inadequate tissue perfusion b) Abnormal blood oxygen levels c) Decreased blood glucose d) Increased blood carbon dioxide levels 21. Which type of cellular adaptation is seen in a smoker's lung tissue? a) Hypertrophy b) Hyperplasia c) Atrophy d) Metaplasia 22. Which cellular adaptation is a pre-cancerous condition? a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Dysplasia d) Metaplasia 23. Which cellular injury mechanism results from chemical or drug toxicity? a) Hypoxic injury b) Free radical injury c) Ischemic injury d) Osmotic injury 24. A client with myocardial infarction is experiencing cell death due to prolonged ischemia. Which type of necrosis is most likely occurring? a) Coagulative necrosis b) Liquefactive necrosis c) Caseous necrosis d) Fat necrosis 25. Which of the following contributes to cellular swelling during injury? a) ATP depletion b) Increased sodium excretion c) Increased calcium influx d) Decreased lactic acid production 26. What is the key difference between necrosis and apoptosis? a) Necrosis involves programmed cell death b) Apoptosis is always a pathological process c) Necrosis causes inflammation d) Apoptosis leads to cell swelling 1. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign? a) Hypocalcemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hyponatremia d) Hypermagnesemia 2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most often associated with dehydration? a) Hypokalemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hyponatremia d) Hypernatremia 3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating sodium and water balance in the body? a) Insulin b) ADH c) Aldosterone d) Cortisol 4. Which of the following describes third spacing? a) Fluid accumulation in the intravascular space b) Fluid accumulation in the interstitial space c) Fluid accumulation in the intracellular space d) Fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity 5. What is the most common cause of isotonic fluid loss? a) Hemorrhage b) Hypervolemia c) Vomiting d) Dehydration 6. Edema occurs due to which of the following? a) Decreased capillary permeability b) Increased capillary oncotic pressure c) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure d) Decreased lymphatic drainage 7. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with muscle weakness and arrhythmias? a) Hypokalemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hypermagnesemia d) Hypernatremia 8. Which of the following is a symptom of hypernatremia? a) Confusion b) Edema c) Muscle cramps d) Tetany 9. What is the normal range of sodium in the blood? a) 136-145 mEq/L b) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L c) 8.5-10.5 mg/dL d) 4.5-5.5 mg/dL 10. Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperkalemia? a) Renal failure b) Dehydration c) Diuretic use d) Hyperaldosteronism 11. Which of the following is a common symptom of hypokalemia? a) Bradycardia b) Muscle weakness c) Hypertension d) Confusion 12. In a patient with SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone), which electrolyte imbalance is likely? a) Hypernatremia b) Hyponatremia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypocalcemia 13. Which electrolyte imbalance is most often caused by the overuse of magnesium antacids? a) Hypocalcemia b) Hypermagnesemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hypokalemia 14. Which of the following is a major complication of untreated fluid volume overload? a) Renal failure b) Pulmonary edema c) Hypercalcemia d) Liver failure 15. What is the primary action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? a) Promotes sodium excretion b) Increases water reabsorption c) Increases potassium secretion d) Promotes calcium absorption 16. Which of the following conditions results in respiratory acidosis? a) Hyperventilation b) Hypoventilation c) Diarrhea d) Vomiting 17. Which electrolyte is essential for muscle contraction and nerve function? a) Potassium b) Calcium c) Magnesium d) Sodium 18. Which electrolyte imbalance presents with peaked T waves on an ECG? a) Hypokalemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hypocalcemia 19. What is the normal range for potassium in the blood? a) 136-145 mEq/L b) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L c) 8.5-10.5 mg/dL d) 4.5-5.5 mg/dL 20. Which of the following is most likely to cause metabolic acidosis? a) Diarrhea b) Vomiting c) Hypoventilation d) Hyperventilation 1. Which cells are the first to arrive at the site of inflammation? a) Neutrophils b) Lymphocytes c) Basophils d) Eosinophils 2. Which of the following is considered the second line of defense in the immune system? a) Physical barriers b) Inflammatory response c) Adaptive immune system d) Phagocytosis 3. Which cells release histamine during the inflammatory response? a) Neutrophils b) Macrophages c) Mast cells d) T cells 4. Which of the following immunoglobulins is associated with allergic reactions? a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM 5. Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies? a) T lymphocytes b) B lymphocytes c) Macrophages d) Dendritic cells 6. What is the main function of phagocytes during an immune response? a) Produce antibodies b) Present antigens c) Engulf and destroy pathogens d) Secrete histamine 7. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? a) Short duration b) Increased neutrophils c) Fibrosis and tissue repair d) Hyperplasia of lymph nodes 8. Which type of immunity results from vaccination? a) Active natural immunity b) Active artificial immunity c) Passive natural immunity d) Passive artificial immunity 9. Which of the following is considered a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a) Anaphylaxis b) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia c) Contact dermatitis d) Rheumatoid arthritis 10. Which of the following cells are responsible for killing virus-infected cells? a) T helper cells b) B lymphocytes c) Cytotoxic T cells d) Macrophages 11. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity? a) Vaccination b) Breastfeeding c) Exposure to pathogens d) Booster shot 12. Which of the following occurs during an anaphylactic reaction? a) Bronchoconstriction b) Increased blood pressure c) Decreased heart rate d) Fluid retention 13. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by immune complexes? a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV 14. Which of the following is a key component of the inflammatory response? a) Antibody production b) Neutrophil recruitment c) B cell maturation d) Activation of the complement system 15. Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in the bloodstream? a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM 16. Which of the following is a hallmark of acute inflammation? a) Fibrosis b) Granuloma formation c) Increased vascular permeability d) Lymphocyte infiltration 17. Which cells release cytokines to coordinate the immune response? a) Macrophages b) Neutrophils c) T helper cells d) Mast cells 18. Which of the following is a characteristic of adaptive immunity? a) Immediate response b) Non-specific defense c) Memory response d) No antigen specificity 19. Which of the following is a clinical sign of anaphylaxis? a) Hypertension b) Tachycardia c) Edema d) Bradycardia 20. Which cells are primarily involved in the allergic response? a) Mast cells and basophils b) T helper cells and macrophages c) B cells and neutrophils d) Dendritic cells and cytotoxic T cells 1. What is pathophysiology? a) Study of anatomy b) Study of normal physiology c) Study of abnormalities in physiological functioning d) Study of anatomy and physiology 2. The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) consists of which stages? a) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion b) Alarm, rest, recovery c) Resistance, rest, recovery d) Fight, flight, freeze 3. During the alarm stage of GAS, what is activated? a) Parasympathetic nervous system b) Sympathetic nervous system and HPA axis c) Immune response d) Cortisol receptors 4. What hormone is mainly responsible for the stress response? a) Cortisol b) Insulin c) Dopamine d) Testosterone 5. Which of the following describes allostasis? a) Body's process of achieving stability through change b) Maintenance of a constant internal environment c) Immune system suppression d) Reduction in hormone levels 6. What is the term for the overload of stress adaptation leading to disease? a) Exacerbation b) Allostatic overload c) Homeostasis d) Resistance phase 7. Which hormone is released by the adrenal cortex in response to stress? a) Epinephrine b) Cortisol c) Insulin d) Growth hormone 8. The “fight or flight” response is initiated by which hormone? a) Dopamine b) Cortisol c) Epinephrine d) Thyroxine 9. The hormone released during stress that increases glucose metabolism is: a) Insulin b) Cortisol c) Oxytocin d) Glucagon 10. A chronic stress response can lead to: a) Obesity b) Hypoglycemia c) Hyperthermia d) Tachycardia 11. Which of the following is the body's first line of defense against infection? a) T-cells b) Skin and mucous membranes c) Phagocytes d) Antibodies 12. What are the local signs of inflammation? a) Redness, heat, swelling, pain b) Chills, fever, nausea, fatigue c) Vomiting, diarrhea, headache, fever d) Fever, leukocytosis, malaise, fatigue 13. Which cells are the first responders in acute inflammation? a) Basophils b) Neutrophils c) Eosinophils d) Lymphocytes 14. What is the role of mast cells in inflammation? a) Secrete antibodies b) Produce leukotrienes c) Release histamine and cytokines d) Attack pathogens directly 15. Which system forms a fibrin mesh to trap microorganisms? a) Complement system b) Kinin system c) Coagulation system d) Lymphatic system 16. The process by which white blood cells ingest bacteria is called: a) Opsonization b) Phagocytosis c) Chemotaxis d) Diapedesis 17. What is exudate? a) Fluid and debris from inflamed tissue b) Bacteria on the skin c) Hormonal secretion d) Scar tissue formation 18. What does chronic inflammation typically lead to? a) Full recovery b) Suppuration and tissue damage c) Healing without scar formation d) Normal immune response 19. What is the difference between primary and secondary wound healing? a) Primary heals with scar tissue, secondary doesn’t b) Primary heals faster with minimal scarring c) Primary requires surgical intervention d) Secondary healing forms less scar tissue 20. Which of the following is a systemic sign of inflammation? a) Heat b) Pain c) Leukocytosis d) Loss of function 21. What is an example of a nosocomial infection? a) Flu caught from a family member b) Infection acquired in a hospital c) Infections from pets d) Airborne viral infection 22. Autoimmune diseases occur due to: a) The immune system attacking self-antigens b) An infection caused by bacteria c) A weakened immune system d) Excessive inflammatory responses 23. Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by which antibody? a) IgA b) IgM c) IgE d) IgG 24. A common cause of anaphylaxis is: a) Bee stings b) Fungal infection c) Viral pneumonia d) Antibiotics 25. What causes cell damage in a Type III hypersensitivity reaction? a) Mast cells releasing histamine b) Antibody-antigen complex deposition in tissues c) Phagocytosis d) T-cell activation 26. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection? a) Candida albicans in immunocompromised individuals b) Staphylococcus aureus c) E. coli in healthy individuals d) Human papillomavirus (HPV) 27. What is the role of T lymphocytes in viral infections? a) Attack and destroy virus-infected cells b) Produce antibodies c) Enhance histamine production d) Stimulate bacterial growth 28. Gram-negative bacteria release: a) Exotoxins b) Endotoxins c) Antigens d) Antibodies 29. Staphylococcus aureus is an example of: a) A viral infection b) A nosocomial infection c) An autoimmune disease d) A parasitic infection 30. Which of the following infections is classified as a parasitic infection? a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) HIV d) Herpes 31. What is the normal range of pH in the human body? a) 6.8-7.2 b) 7.35-7.45 c) 7.5-8.0 d) 6.5-7.0 32. What is respiratory acidosis caused by? a) Hyperventilation b) Hypoventilation c) Diarrhea d) Vomiting 33. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis? a) Increased CO2 retention b) Hyperventilation c) Hypoventilation d) Increased HCO3 excretion 34. In metabolic alkalosis, which electrolyte imbalance is commonly observed? a) Hypokalemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hyponatremia d) Hypercalcemia 35. Which condition is most likely to cause metabolic acidosis? a) Vomiting b) Diarrhea c) Anxiety d) Hyperventilation 36. What is the primary cause of hypernatremia? a) Sodium loss b) Fluid retention c) Water deficit d) Potassium excess 37. What electrolyte imbalance can occur with excess diuretic use? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hypocalcemia 38. What is a common sign of hypokalemia? a) Muscle weakness b) Confusion c) Bradycardia d) Tetany 39. Which of the following is a cause of hypercalcemia? a) Chronic kidney disease b) Hypoparathyroidism c) Malignancy d) Low vitamin D intake 40. Which electrolyte imbalance can lead to cardiac arrhythmias? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hyponatremia 41. Which condition is commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis? a) Anxiety attacks b) Diarrhea c) Renal failure d) Diabetic ketoacidosis 42. What compensatory mechanism occurs during respiratory alkalosis? a) Hypoventilation b) Hyperventilation c) Increased bicarbonate excretion d) Increased CO2 retention 43. What is a symptom of hyperkalemia? a) Muscle cramps b) Bradycardia c) Tachycardia 1. A patient presents with Kussmaul respirations. Which of the following acid-base imbalances is most likely? a) Respiratory acidosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Metabolic alkalosis 2. Which of the following ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis? a) pH 7.50, PaCO2 40, HCO3 22 b) pH 7.30, PaCO2 50, HCO3 24 c) pH 7.48, PaCO2 30, HCO3 18 d) pH 7.40, PaCO2 45, HCO3 26 3. A client with severe vomiting is at risk for which acid-base disturbance? a) Metabolic acidosis b) Respiratory acidosis c) Metabolic alkalosis d) Respiratory alkalosis 4. A nurse is caring for a patient with metabolic acidosis. Which system will attempt to compensate? a) Renal system b) Cardiovascular system c) Respiratory system d) Digestive system 5. Which condition is most likely to cause metabolic acidosis? a) Vomiting b) Diarrhea c) Anxiety d) Hyperventilation 6. A patient is hypoventilating due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What acid-base imbalance is likely? a) Metabolic alkalosis b) Respiratory alkalosis c) Respiratory acidosis d) Metabolic acidosis 7. What is the normal range of pH in the human body? a) 6.8-7.2 b) 7.35-7.45 c) 7.5-8.0 d) 6.5-7.0 8. Which acid-base imbalance is likely in a patient with hyperventilation due to anxiety? a) Respiratory acidosis b) Respiratory alkalosis c) Metabolic acidosis d) Metabolic alkalosis 9. In metabolic alkalosis, the body compensates by: a) Hyperventilation b) Hypoventilation c) Increased bicarbonate excretion d) Increased CO2 retention 10. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is likely to present with which acid-base imbalance? a) Respiratory acidosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Metabolic alkalosis 11. Which of the following is the most common cause of hypovolemia? a) Excessive fluid intake b) Blood loss c) Renal failure d) SIADH 12. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with dehydration? a) Hypernatremia b) Hyponatremia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypokalemia 13. Which condition is most likely to cause fluid volume overload? a) Diabetes insipidus b) Congestive heart failure c) Severe burns d) Vomiting 14. Which hormone regulates water retention in the kidneys? a) Aldosterone b) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c) Renin d) Cortisol 15. A patient with fluid overload is at risk for which respiratory complication? a) Hypoxia b) Pulmonary edema c) Pneumothorax d) Atelectasis 16. A patient receiving diuretics is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance? a) Hypercalcemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hypokalemia d) Hypernatremia 17. Which organ is primarily responsible for regulating fluid balance? a) Liver b) Kidneys c) Heart d) Lungs 18. What is a common cause of third spacing? a) Liver disease b) Renal failure c) Heart failure d) Malnutrition 19. Which of the following is a sign of fluid volume deficit? a) Jugular vein distention b) Edema c) Decreased skin turgor d) Crackles in the lungs 20. Which intravenous solution is isotonic? a) 0.45% NaCl b) D5W c) 0.9% NaCl d) 3% NaCl 21. A patient with hypokalemia is likely to exhibit: a) Muscle weakness b) Tachycardia c) Hyperreflexia d) Hypertension 22. Which of the following foods is highest in potassium? a) Apples b) Bananas c) Rice d) Chicken 23. Hyperkalemia can cause: a) Bradycardia b) Tachycardia c) Hypotension d) Cardiac arrhythmias 24. A patient with hyponatremia may present with: a) Restlessness b) Hypertension c) Muscle twitching d) Seizures 25. Which electrolyte imbalance is common with excess diuretic use? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hypocalcemia 26. Hypercalcemia is most commonly associated with: a) Renal failure b) Malignancy c) Hypertension d) Hyperthyroidism 27. Which electrolyte imbalance may lead to a positive Chvostek’s sign? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypercalcemia d) Hypocalcemia 28. Which condition is associated with hypernatremia? a) Water retention b) Water deficit c) Excessive sweating d) Hyponatremia 29. A patient with hypocalcemia is at risk for: a) Osteoporosis b) Cardiac arrest c) Tetany d) Muscle weakness 30. What is a classic sign of hypomagnesemia? a) Bradycardia b) Tetany c) Nausea d) Muscle twitching 31. Which organelle is the powerhouse of the cell? a) Ribosome b) Mitochondria c) Nucleus d) Endoplasmic reticulum 32. The process by which cells take in the material through invagination is called: a) Phagocytosis b) Pinocytosis c) Exocytosis d) Diffusion 33. Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA replication? a) G1 phase b) S phase c) G2 phase d) M phase 34. What is the role of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a) Protein synthesis b) Lipid production c) DNA replication d) Waste disposal 35. Which of the following best describes cellular apoptosis? a) Uncontrolled cell division b) Programmed cell death c) Infection of cells d) Lack of cellular oxygen 36. What is the primary function of lysosomes? a) Store energy b) Protein synthesis c) Digest waste and foreign materials d) Transport genetic material 37. Which cellular organelle is responsible for the production of ATP? a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Lysosome 38. What is the role of the Golgi apparatus? a) Protein packaging and shipping b) DNA replication c) Energy production d) Lipid synthesis 39. Which of the following is the primary transport mechanism for oxygen in cells? a) Diffusion b) Active transport c) Osmosis d) Endocytosis 40. What happens during the M phase of the cell cycle? a) DNA replication b) Protein synthesis c) Cell division (mitosis) d) Apoptosis 41. Respiratory alkalosis is commonly caused by: a) Hyperventilation b) Hypoventilation c) Diarrhea d) Vomiting 42. In metabolic acidosis, the body compensates by: a) Retaining CO2 b) Excreting bicarbonate c) Hyperventilation d) Increasing renal acid secretion 43. Which of the following is most likely to cause metabolic alkalosis? a) Diarrhea b) Vomiting c) Hypoventilation d) Kidney failure 44. A client with chronic lung disease is at risk for: a) Metabolic alkalosis b) Respiratory alkalosis c) Metabolic acidosis d) Respiratory acidosis 45. Which of the following is a normal bicarbonate (HCO3) range? a) 22-26 mEq/L b) 35-45 mEq/L c) 7.35-7.45 mEq/L d) 3.5-5.5 mEq/L 46. The normal partial pressure of CO2 (PaCO2) in arterial blood is: a) 20-30 mm Hg b) 35-45 mm Hg c) 45-55 mm Hg d) 50-60 mm Hg 47. What is a common symptom of metabolic acidosis? a) Muscle cramps b) Confusion c) Hyperactivity d) Seizures 48. A patient is admitted with severe diarrhea. What acid-base imbalance do you suspect? a) Respiratory acidosis b) Respiratory alkalosis c) Metabolic acidosis d) Metabolic alkalosis 49. Which electrolyte imbalance is most often associated with metabolic acidosis? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hypocalcemia 50. Which of the following conditions is associated with increased lactic acid production? a) Hyperventilation b) Tissue hypoxia c) Vomiting d) Hyperthermia 1. Which of the following is an example of cellular atrophy? - A) Increase in cell size due to weightlifting - B) Replacement of one cell type with another - C) Decrease in cellular size due to disuse - D) Increase in the number of cells due to hormonal changes 2. What is the most common cause of hypoxic cellular injury? - A) Bacterial infection - B) Ischemia - C) Chemical exposure - D) Autoimmune reaction 3. Which type of necrosis is most commonly associated with tuberculosis? - A) Coagulative necrosis - B) Liquefactive necrosis - C) Caseous necrosis - D) Fat necrosis 4. Which of the following is a reversible cellular change? - A) Necrosis - B) Hypertrophy due to increased demand - C) Coagulative necrosis - D) Gangrenous necrosis 5. Which of the following injuries is characterized by the formation of free radicals and reactive oxygen species during the restoration of blood flow? - A) Hypoxic injury - B) Ischemia-reperfusion injury - C) Chemical injury - D) Infectious injury 1. Which of the following terms describes the process where a cell decreases in size due to decreased demand? - A) Hypertrophy - B) Hyperplasia - C) Atrophy - D) Metaplasia 2. *The most common cause of cellular injury is: - A) Chemical injury - B) Hypoxic injury - C) Infectious injury - D) Nutritional deficiency 3. Which type of cellular adaptation involves an increase in the number of cells in a tissue? - A) Atrophy - B) Hyperplasia - C) Dysplasia - D) Metaplasia 4. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of ischemia-reperfusion injury? - A) Oxidative stress - B) Increased intracellular calcium - C) Decreased oxygen supply - D) Complement activation 5. Fat necrosis is most commonly seen in which organs? - A) Kidneys and heart - B) Liver and spleen - C) Breast and pancreas - D) Brain and lungs 6. Rigor mortis begins to develop within how many hours postmortem? - A) 1-2 hours - B) 6-8 hours - C) 12-14 hours - D) 24-48 hours 7. The most common cause of gangrenous necrosis is: - A) Viral infection - B) Severe hypoxic injury - C) Bacterial toxins - D) Immune complex deposition 8. Which of the following describes a reversible change in cells lining the bronchi due to chronic irritation, such as smoking? - A) Atrophy - B) Dysplasia - C) Metaplasia - D) Necrosis 9. Which term refers to the abnormal, disorganized growth of cells that is strongly implicated as a precursor to cancer? - A) Hyperplasia - B) Metaplasia - C) Dysplasia - D) Neoplasia 10. Which of the following is a characteristic of liquefactive necrosis? - A) Protein denaturation - B) Occurs in the brain due to ischemia - C) Involves fatty tissues - D) Associated with tuberculosis 1. The type of necrosis characterized by the action of lipases, often seen in the pancreas, is called __________. 2. The process of eliminating unwanted or damaged cells, also known as programmed cell death, is called __________. 3. An irreversible injury leading to the death of cells in living tissue by autolysis is known as __________. 4. The type of adaptation where one differentiated cell type is replaced by another due to chronic irritation is called __________. 5. The most common cause of cellular hypoxic injury is __________. 1. **Atrophy** A) Increase in cell size B) Decrease in cell size C) Increase in number of cells D) Replacement of one cell type with another 2. **Hypertrophy** A) Increase in cell size B) Decrease in cell size C) Increase in number of cells D) Replacement of one cell type with another 3. **Hyperplasia** A) Increase in cell size B) Decrease in cell size C) Increase in number of cells D) Replacement of one cell type with another 4. **Metaplasia** A) Increase in cell size B) Decrease in cell size C) Increase in number of cells D) Replacement of one cell type with another 5. **Necrosis** A) Programmed cell death B) Accumulation of fat within cells C) Uncontrolled cell death due to injury D) Replacement of damaged cells 1. What is the primary function of antibodies? a. Destroy bacteria b. Destroy viruses c. Protect individuals from infection d. Prevent antibody production 2. What immunoglobulin is most abundant in the body? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgE d. IgG 3. Which type of immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells? a. Cellular b. Humoral c. Innate d. Passive 4. What cells are responsible for the direct destruction of target cells in adaptive immunity? a. B cells b. T cells c. Macrophages d. Dendritic cells 5. Which antibody is involved in allergic responses and parasitic defense? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgM d. IgG 6. What are the primary cells involved in humoral immunity? a. T cells b. B cells c. Macrophages d. Dendritic cells 7. Which antibody is typically the first to respond during a primary immune response? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of active immunity? a. It is short-lived b. It is acquired through vaccination or infection c. It is passed from mother to child d. It does not involve memory cells 9. Which type of T cells directly kill infected or abnormal cells? a. Helper T cells b. Cytotoxic T cells c. Memory T cells d. Regulatory T cells 10. Which class of immunoglobulins crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgM d. IgG 11. Which cell type presents antigens to helper T cells to initiate the adaptive immune response? a. Natural killer cells b. Macrophages c. Neutrophils d. Erythrocytes 12. Which type of immunity involves the transfer of preformed antibodies from one individual to another? a. Active immunity b. Passive immunity c. Innate immunity d. Cell-mediated immunity 13. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for mucosal immunity? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgG d. IgE 14. Which cells are primarily involved in allergic reactions? a. T cells b. B cells c. Mast cells d. Dendritic cells 15. What is the role of memory B cells in the adaptive immune system? a. Directly attack pathogens b. Activate T cells c. Produce a faster immune response upon re-exposure to an antigen d. Stimulate the production of antibodies 16. Which type of immunity involves the activation of T cells without the production of antibodies? a. Humoral immunity b. Innate immunity c. Cell-mediated immunity d. Passive immunity 17. Which cells are involved in the activation of helper T cells? a. Macrophages and dendritic cells b. Plasma cells and B cells c. Eosinophils and basophils d. Natural killer cells and mast cells 18. Which of the following is the primary function of IgM antibodies? a. Neutralizing toxins b. Opsonizing bacteria c. First line defense during primary immune response d. Protecting mucosal surfaces 19. What is the role of regulatory T cells in the immune system? a. Suppress the immune response to prevent excessive damage b. Stimulate the production of antibodies c. Initiate the inflammatory response d. Directly attack infected cells 20. Which class of immunoglobulin is involved in hypersensitivity reactions, such as asthma? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE 21. Which part of the immune system provides long-term protection by remembering previous exposures to pathogens? a. Natural killer cells b. Memory cells c. Neutrophils d. Platelets 22. Which type of immune response is faster upon re-exposure to a pathogen? a. Primary immune response b. Secondary immune response c. Innate immune response d. Complement-mediated response 23. What type of cells are produced by B cells and secrete antibodies? a. Helper T cells b. Plasma cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Dendritic cells 24. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for providing protection in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE 25. What happens when an individual receives preformed antibodies from an external source, such as through a blood transfusion? a. Active immunity is developed b. Passive immunity is developed c. Cell-mediated immunity is activated d. Adaptive immunity is suppressed 26. Which immune system component is most effective at recognizing and destroying cancerous cells? a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Red blood cells 27. In response to a vaccination, which type of immunity is produced? a. Passive immunity b. Cell-mediated immunity c. Active immunity d. Innate immunity 28. Which immunoglobulin is associated with the body's allergic response? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE 29. Which type of cells produce cytokines that regulate the immune response? a. Helper T cells b. B cells c. Platelets d. Neutrophils 30. What is the main role of antigen-presenting cells in the immune response? a. Directly attack pathogens b. Produce antibodies c. Present antigens to T cells d. Activate complement 31. Which cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity? a. B cells b. Plasma cells c. T cells d. Mast cells 32. Which type of T cells help activate B cells to produce antibodies? a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Helper T cells c. Memory T cells d. Suppressor T cells 33. Which immune cells directly destroy infected or abnormal host cells? a. Plasma cells b. Helper T cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Memory B cells 34. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity? a. Receiving a vaccine b. Exposure to a pathogen c. Transfer of antibodies from mother to infant through breast milk d. Development of immunity after recovering from an illness 35. Which class of immunoglobulins is found in mucosal secretions and provides protection against pathogens entering the body? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE 36. Which immune system component is responsible for initiating an immune response by presenting antigens to T cells? a. Plasma cells b. Dendritic cells c. B cells d. Neutrophils 37. Which of the following occurs when memory cells are activated during a secondary immune response? a. A slower, weaker response to the pathogen b. A rapid and strong immune response c. A decrease in antibody production d. Delayed activation of helper T cells 38. What is the role of antibodies in the immune system? a. Directly attack pathogens b. Bind to antigens and neutralize them c. Destroy infected host cells d. Stimulate the production of T cells 39. Which class of immunoglobulin is involved in hypersensitivity reactions like asthma and allergies? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE 40. How do cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells? a. By producing antibodies b. By releasing perforins and granzymes c. By stimulating B cell activation d. By releasing histamines 41. During the inflammatory process, which cells are the first to arrive at the injury site? a. Macrophages b. Neutrophils c. B cells d. Fibroblasts 42. Which phase of wound healing is characterized by collagen production and epithelialization? a. Inflammatory phase b. Proliferative phase c. Maturation phase d. Hemostasis phase 43. Which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for vasodilation during inflammation? a. Histamine b. Bradykinin c. Serotonin d. Prostaglandin 44. Which type of exudate is associated with a bacterial infection? a. Serous exudate b. Purulent exudate c. Fibrinous exudate d. Hemorrhagic exudate 45. What is the role of macrophages during wound healing? a. Secrete antibodies b. Phagocytose pathogens and dead cells c. Produce collagen fibers d. Release histamines 46. Which of the following is a hallmark of chronic inflammation? a. Rapid resolution b. Presence of neutrophils c. Tissue destruction d. Lack of macrophage activity 47. Which type of healing occurs when a wound is left open to heal naturally without surgical closure? a. Primary intention b. Secondary intention c. Tertiary intention d. Delayed primary closure 48. Which factor is most likely to delay wound healing? a. Increased blood flow b. Low protein intake c. Use of corticosteroids d. Adequate oxygen supply 49. Granulation tissue forms during which phase of wound healing? a. Inflammatory phase b. Proliferative phase c. Maturation phase d. Hemostasis phase 50. Which type of scar results from excessive collagen deposition during wound healing? a. Keloid scar b. Hypertrophic scar c. Atrophic scar d. Contracture 1. What is the most common cause of cellular injury? a. Physical injury b. Hypoxia c. Genetic mutations d. Chemical toxins 2. Which type of necrosis is commonly associated with tuberculosis? a. Liquefactive b. Coagulative c. Caseous d. Gangrenous 3. Cellular atrophy results from: a. Increased cell demand b. Disuse or decreased demand c. Increased nutrient supply d. Enhanced blood flow 4. What is metaplasia? a. Increase in cell number b. Cell death c. Change from one cell type to another d. Cell enlargement 5. Which injury mechanism involves the generation of free radicals during blood flow restoration? a. Hypoxic injury b. Chemical injury c. Ischemia-reperfusion injury d. Infectious injury 6. What type of necrosis is typically seen in the brain following ischemic injury? a. Fat necrosis b. Caseous necrosis c. Liquefactive necrosis d. Coagulative necrosis 7. Which of the following best describes apoptosis? a. Accidental cell death b. Programmed cell death c. Death from ischemia d. Death from infection 8. Which cellular adaptation involves an increase in cell number due to increased demand? a. Hypertrophy b. Hyperplasia c. Atrophy d. Dysplasia 9. What cellular change occurs as a result of chronic irritation and inflammation, where one cell type is replaced by another? a. Metaplasia b. Dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy 10. Which term describes cell death resulting from factors external to the cell or tissue, such as injury or infection? a. Apoptosis b. Necrosis c. Autophagy d. Metaplasia 11. Which of the following describes the cellular change known as dysplasia? a. Increase in cell size b. Increase in cell number c. Abnormal cell growth with variations in size and shape d. Decrease in cell size 12. What is the most common cause of ischemic cellular injury? a. Infection b. Chemical exposure c. Reduced oxygen supply d. Physical trauma 13. Which type of necrosis occurs primarily in the pancreas and breast tissue? a. Coagulative necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Fat necrosis d. Gangrenous necrosis 14. What is the key difference between apoptosis and necrosis? a. Apoptosis is accidental, while necrosis is programmed b. Necrosis results in inflammation, while apoptosis does not c. Necrosis is caused by genetic mutations d. Apoptosis always leads to cancer 15. Which injury mechanism involves damage caused by free radicals and reactive oxygen species during reperfusion? a. Hypoxic injury b. Ischemia-reperfusion injury c. Chemical injury d. Infectious injury 16. Which of the following is a reversible type of cellular adaptation? a. Atrophy b. Necrosis c. Apoptosis d. Somatic death 17. What is the primary cause of coagulative necrosis? a. Ischemia b. Infection c. Chemical injury d. Physical trauma 18. Which of the following is the most common cause of chemical cellular injury? a. Drugs b. Lead exposure c. Alcohol d. Carbon monoxide 19. Which type of cellular injury occurs as a result of impaired oxygen delivery to tissues? a. Chemical injury b. Hypoxic injury c. Infectious injury d. Physical injury 20. What is the first cellular change to occur following hypoxic injury? a. Cell death b. Cellular swelling c. Lipid accumulation d. Hyperplasia 21. Which of the following types of necrosis involves a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis? a. Caseous necrosis b. Fat necrosis c. Gangrenous necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis 22. Which cellular adaptation involves a decrease in cell size in response to decreased demand? a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Dysplasia d. Metaplasia 23. Which of the following processes is responsible for removing cells that are no longer needed or that have been damaged beyond repair? a. Necrosis b. Apoptosis c. Phagocytosis d. Hyperplasia 24. What is the key difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia? a. Hypertrophy involves increased cell size, while hyperplasia involves increased cell number b. Hypertrophy is reversible, while hyperplasia is irreversible c. Hypertrophy involves cell death, while hyperplasia involves cell survival d. Hypertrophy occurs only in response to disease, while hyperplasia is normal 25. What is the primary cause of cellular injury from lead poisoning? a. Increased oxygen delivery to cells b. Impaired DNA synthesis c. Disruption of calcium homeostasis d. Blockage of glucose metabolism 26. Which type of injury results from prolonged exposure to low levels of radiation? a. Chemical injury b. Infectious injury c. Ionizing radiation injury d. Hypoxic injury 27. Which of the following is an example of pathologic hypertrophy? a. Enlargement of the uterus during pregnancy b. Enlargement of muscle fibers from weightlifting c. Cardiac hypertrophy due to hypertension d. Increase in breast tissue during lactation 28. What occurs in cellular adaptation known as dysplasia? a. Cells shrink due to lack of nutrients b. Cells increase in size and number c. Cells mutate with abnormal variations in size and shape d. Cells are replaced by a different type of cell 29. What type of necrosis is caused by severe hypoxic injury and results in tissue death? a. Coagulative necrosis b. Fat necrosis c. Gangrenous necrosis d. Liquefactive necrosis 30. Which type of injury occurs due to the buildup of reactive oxygen species? a. Hypoxic injury b. Oxidative stress c. Chemical injury d. Physical injury 31. Cellular injury caused by the restoration of blood flow after ischemia is known as: a. Hypoxic injury b. Reperfusion injury c. Chemical injury d. Mechanical injury 32. What is the primary cause of tissue hypoxia? a. Increased oxygen demand b. Reduced oxygen supply c. Excessive carbon dioxide d. Bacterial infection 33. Which type of cellular adaptation is characterized by cells replacing one differentiated cell type with another? a. Hyperplasia b. Dysplasia c. Metaplasia d. Atrophy 34. In cellular injury, what is the effect of free radicals and reactive oxygen species (ROS)? a. Repair cellular membranes b. Cause oxidative damage to cell components c. Protect the cell from apoptosis d. Stimulate cell growth 35. Which type of injury is most commonly associated with the buildup of lactic acid in cells? a. Chemical injury b. Hypoxic injury c. Reperfusion injury d. Thermal injury 36. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by an increase in the number of cells? a. Hypertrophy b. Hyperplasia c. Metaplasia d. Atrophy 37. Which of the following conditions can lead to irreversible cell injury? a. Hypoxia b. Chronic inflammation c. Necrosis d. Metaplasia 38. Which cellular adaptation is most likely to be seen in the heart muscle of an individual with chronic hypertension? a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Atrophy d. Dysplasia 39. What is the primary cellular event that occurs during ischemia? a. Decreased ATP production b. Increased oxygen availability c. Increased protein synthesis d. Enhanced calcium uptake 40. Which of the following is the most common cause of cell injury in ischemic conditions? a. Accumulation of waste products b. Increased protein synthesis c. Lack of oxygen d. Excess calcium influx 41. Which type of cellular injury is caused by toxins produced by bacteria or viruses? a. Hypoxic injury b. Infectious injury c. Physical injury d. Chemical injury 42. Which cellular injury mechanism involves the excessive accumulation of substances like lipids, water, and proteins? a. Oxidative stress b. Cellular swelling c. Hyperplasia d. Necrosis 43. Which condition is most likely to result in cellular apoptosis? a. Normal development b. Infection c. Severe hypoxia d. Mechanical injury 44. What is the primary difference between apoptosis and necrosis? a. Apoptosis is accidental, while necrosis is programmed b. Apoptosis involves no inflammation, while necrosis does c. Apoptosis occurs in response to injury, while necrosis occurs naturally d. Apoptosis leads to tissue scarring, while necrosis does not 45. Which type of cellular adaptation is associated with cancer development? a. Hyperplasia b. Metaplasia c. Dysplasia d. Hypertrophy 46. What is the primary role of cortisol during the stress response? a. Reduce heart rate b. Stimulate immune function c. Increase blood glucose levels d. Decrease metabolic rate 47. Chronic stress can lead to which of the following conditions? a. Decreased blood pressure b. Enhanced immune response c. Hypertension d. Hypoglycemia 48. Which of the following hormones is released during the "fight or flight" response? a. Aldosterone b. Cortisol c. Epinephrine d. Insulin 49. Which organ is primarily responsible for regulating the body's response to chronic stress? a. Pancreas b. Adrenal gland c. Kidneys d. Liver 50. Which of the following occurs during the resistance phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? a. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system b. Decreased cortisol production c. Enhanced immune system function d. The body attempts to restore homeostasis 51. Chronic exposure to stress hormones can result in: a. Enhanced digestion b. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease c. Reduced cortisol levels d. Improved cognitive function 52. Which of the following is a physiological effect of acute stress? a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased insulin sensitivity c. Increased respiratory rate d. Decreased blood pressure 53. Which neurotransmitter is released during the alarm stage of stress and is responsible for increased heart rate and blood pressure? a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Norepinephrine d. Acetylcholine 54. Prolonged exposure to cortisol can result in: a. Decreased blood glucose levels b. Increased muscle mass c. Impaired wound healing d. Enhanced immune function 55. Which condition is most commonly associated with chronic stress? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoglycemia c. Anxiety disorders d. Weight gain 1. Which ion is the primary determinant of osmotic pressure in the extracellular fluid? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Chloride 2. Hypokalemia is associated with which of the following? a. Increased muscle excitability b. Decreased muscle excitability c. Increased blood pressure d. Hyperglycemia 3. A patient with hypernatremia would most likely exhibit: a. Low blood pressure b. Confusion and agitation c. Muscle spasms d. Hyperreflexia 4. Which of the following best describes homeostasis? a. The body's response to infection b. Maintenance of a stable internal environment c. The mechanism for electrolyte imbalance d. Cellular adaptation to injury 5. Which electrolyte is most important in maintaining cardiac function? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Magnesium d. Phosphate 6. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with muscle weakness, fatigue, and flattened T waves on an ECG? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyponatremia 7. What is the main electrolyte found in intracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Magnesium 8. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypernatremia? a. Water retention b. Cellular dehydration c. Increased serum potassium d. Decreased serum calcium 9. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating sodium and water balance in the body? a. Aldosterone b. Insulin c. Cortisol d. Parathyroid hormone 10. In response to a decrease in blood pressure, the body releases: a. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. Parathyroid hormone c. Renin d. Glucagon 11. A patient with hyponatremia would most likely exhibit: a. Increased muscle strength b. Decreased serum osmolality c. Increased heart rate d. Elevated blood pressure 12. Which electrolyte is essential for proper muscle contraction? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Magnesium 13. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia? a. Excess water intake b. Renal failure c. Diarrhea d. Dehydration 14. Which of the following imbalances is most likely to cause confusion and lethargy? a. Hypercalcemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyponatremia 15. Which hormone regulates calcium levels in the body? a. Insulin b. Parathyroid hormone c. Cortisol d. Aldosterone 16. Which of the following is a common symptom of hypercalcemia? a. Muscle cramps b. Fatigue and weakness c. Tachycardia d. Hyperreflexia 17. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with prolonged QT intervals on an ECG? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hyponatremia 18. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with edema? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypoalbuminemia d. Hypocalcemia 19. What is the most common cause of hypernatremia? a. Fluid loss b. Renal failure c. Overhydration d. Potassium deficiency 20. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating potassium levels in the body? a. Aldosterone b. Cortisol c. Insulin d. Thyroxine 21. Which of the following symptoms is most likely associated with hypokalemia? a. Muscle twitching b. Constipation and weakness c. Increased heart rate d. Restlessness 22. Which condition is most commonly associated with respiratory acidosis? a. Hypoxia b. Hyperventilation c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Diabetic ketoacidosis 23. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis? a. Hypokalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hyponatremia 24. Which hormone acts on the kidneys to retain water and regulate fluid balance? a. Aldosterone b. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. Cortisol d. Renin 25. Which condition is most likely to result in hyponatremia? a. Overhydration b. Dehydration c. Renal failure d. Potassium deficiency 26. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with flattened T waves and the presence of U waves on an ECG? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypophosphatem 27. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is associated with muscle tetany? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hypercalcemia 28. Which electrolyte is primarily responsible for maintaining resting membrane potential in muscle and nerve cells? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Magnesium 29. What is the primary cause of fluid shifts that result in edema? a. Increased plasma protein concentration b. Decreased capillary permeability c. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure d. Decreased tissue oncotic pressure 30. Which condition is most likely to result in hyperkalemia? a. Diarrhea b. Renal failure c. Hyperaldosteronism d. Excessive insulin administration 31. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with a positive Chvostek sign? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypomagnesemia 32. Which of the following conditions is a common cause of metabolic acidosis? a. Vomiting b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Hyperventilation d. Hypoventilation 33. In which condition would you most likely see a shift of potassium from the intracellular to the extracellular space? a. Alkalosis b. Acidosis c. Hypoglycemia d. Overhydration 34. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with hyperactive reflexes and seizures? a. Hypercalcemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypernatremia 35. What is the primary function of sodium in the body? a. Maintain intracellular fluid balance b. Maintain extracellular fluid volume c. Regulate calcium absorption d. Facilitate potassium excretion 36. Which condition is most likely to result from excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion? a. Hypernatremia b. Hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypokalemia 37. What is the expected clinical manifestation of hyperphosphatemia? a. Hypotension b. Muscle cramping and spasms c. Increased urine output d. Bradycardia 38. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypomagnesemia? a. Increased deep tendon reflexes b. Constipation c. Decreased neuromuscular excitability d. Muscle weakness 39. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is associated with ECG changes, including prolonged QT intervals and ventricular arrhythmias? a. Hypokalemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia 40. Which hormone regulates the balance of calcium and phosphate in the body? a. Antidiuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Parathyroid hormone d. Insulin 41. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with excessive water intake? a. Hypernatremia b. Hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypocalcemia 42. What is the effect of hyperaldosteronism on electrolyte balance? a. Increased potassium retention b. Decreased sodium reabsorption c. Increased sodium retention d. Decreased potassium reabsorption 43. Which condition is most commonly associated with hypophosphatemia? a. Alcoholism b. Renal failure c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Dehydration 44. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with hyperventilation? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hypophosphatemia 45. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances can lead to paresthesias and muscle weakness? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypocalcemia 46. Which of the following imbalances is associated with hyperreflexia and tetany? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hypomagnesemia 47. Which electrolyte imbalance can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle paralysis? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia 48. What is the most common cause of hypomagnesemia? a. Renal failure b. Chronic alcoholism c. Dehydration d. Excessive potassium intake 49. Which electrolyte is important in the transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contraction? a. Phosphate b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Calcium 50. Which electrolyte imbalance is characterized by muscle weakness, fatigue, and shallow respirations? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypophosphatemia 51. Which of the following conditions is associated with respiratory acidosis? a. Hyperventilation b. Excessive alcohol consumption c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Vomiting 52. Hypernatremia is most commonly caused by: a. Increased fluid intake b. Fluid loss c. Sodium deficiency d. Renal failure 53. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with increased thirst and decreased urine output? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypernatremia d. Hypophosphatemia 54. Which condition is most likely to result from excessive calcium intake or hyperparathyroidism? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperphosphatemia 55. Which electrolyte is primarily responsible for maintaining osmotic balance in the extracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Magnesium 1. Which of the following is a characteristic of opportunistic infections? a. They are caused by normally harmless organisms b. They only affect immunocompetent individuals c. They are easily treated with antibiotics d. They do not require immunosuppression to thrive 2. Which of the following is a common feature of primary immunodeficiency disorders? a. Frequent bacterial infections b. Enhanced response to vaccines c. Increased immunity to viruses d. Decreased risk of autoimmune diseases 3. Which microorganism is most likely to cause an opportunistic infection in an immunocompromised patient? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Candida albicans c. Escherichia coli d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 4. A defect in which component of the immune system could lead to recurrent bacterial infections? a. T cells b. Complement system c. Macrophages d. Natural killer cells 5. What type of infection would most likely occur in a patient with defective phagocytic function? a. Fungal infection b. Bacterial infection c. Viral infection d. Protozoan infection 6. Which immune deficiency is caused by a congenital genetic defect? a. Primary immune deficiency b. Acquired immune deficiency c. Secondary immune deficiency d. Opportunistic immune deficiency 7. Which of the following is an example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction? a. Anaphylaxis b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. Serum sickness d. Graft-versus-host disease 8. Which microorganism is most likely to cause infections in individuals with AIDS? a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Clostridium difficile 9. A patient is experiencing recurrent viral infections. This may indicate a defect in which immune cell type? a. T cells b. B cells c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils 10. Deficiency in which of the following immune components is most likely to lead to recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections? a. Macrophages b. Complement system c. Natural killer cells d. Dendritic cells 11. A deficiency in which immune component would most likely result in frequent fungal infections? a. T cells b. B cells c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils 12. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex formation and deposition in tissues? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 13. A patient with HIV is more susceptible to infections due to: a. Decreased production of antibodies b. Increased complement activity c. Destruction of helper T cells d. Excessive neutrophil production 14. Which immunodeficiency is caused by a lack of mature B cells? a. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) b. DiGeorge syndrome c. Chronic granulomatous disease d. X-linked agammaglobulinemia 15. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with poison ivy exposure? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 1. Which phase of wound healing involves fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition? a. Inflammation b. Proliferation c. Remodeling d. Hemostasis 2. What is the primary function of neutrophils during the inflammatory response? a. Secrete antibodies b. Release histamine c. Phagocytose bacteria d. Produce collagen 3. Which of the following is a hallmark of chronic inflammation? a. Rapid onset and resolution b. Predominance of neutrophils c. Involvement of macrophages and lymphocytes d. Lack of tissue destruction 4. Granulation tissue is most closely associated with which stage of wound healing? a. Inflammation b. Proliferation c. Maturation d. Hemostasis 5. Which mediator is primarily responsible for causing vasodilation during inflammation? a. Prostaglandin b. Histamine c. Serotonin d. Interleukin 6. Which of the following cells is most important during the early stages of the inflammatory response? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Macrophages d. Lymphocytes 7. Which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for pain during inflammation? a. Histamine b. Prostaglandins c. Serotonin d. Bradykinin 8. What is the primary function of macrophages in wound healing? a. Engulf pathogens b. Promote tissue remodeling c. Secrete antibodies d. Trigger coagulation 9. Which factor would most likely impair wound healing? a. Low blood glucose levels b. Chronic use of steroids c. High protein intake d. Adequate blood flow 10. Which phase of wound healing involves tissue remodeling and strengthening of the wound? a. Proliferation b. Maturation c. Inflammatory d. Hemostasis 11. What is the primary role of platelets during the initial inflammatory response? a. Promote vasodilation b. Facilitate phagocytosis c. Initiate blood clotting d. Release cytokines 12. What is the role of fibroblasts in wound healing? a. Produce collagen to strengthen the wound b. Recruit immune cells to the wound site c. Remove cellular debris d. Prevent infection 13. Which type of inflammatory mediator is responsible for increasing vascular permeability? a. Histamine b. Interferon c. Prostaglandin d. Complement 14. Which type of exudate is characterized by the presence of pus? a. Serous exudate b. Fibrinous exudate c. Purulent exudate d. Hemorrhagic exudate 15. Chronic inflammation is characterized by the predominant presence of: a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes and macrophages c. Mast cells d. Eosinophils 1. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the long-term effects of stress? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Cortisol d. Insulin 2. Chronic stress is associated with which condition? a. Decreased immune function b. Enhanced cognitive performance c. Reduced inflammation d. Increased muscle mass 3. What is the role of cortisol in the stress response? a. Suppresses the immune system b. Increases muscle tension c. Enhances digestion d. Increases insulin production 4. Which of the following occurs during the alarm phase of the stress response? a. Parasympathetic activation b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system c. Decreased heart rate d. Inhibition of glucose release 5. The exhaustion stage of the stress response is characterized by: a. Enhanced immune function b. Decreased cortisol production c. Depletion of energy reserves d. Increased resistance to disease 6. Which part of the brain is responsible for initiating the stress response? a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebellum c. Hippocampus d. Medulla oblongata 7. During a stress response, what is the role of epinephrine? a. Increase digestion b. Decrease blood glucose levels c. Increase heart rate and blood pressure d. Promote immune function 8. Which hormone is released in response to long-term stress and can suppress the immune system? a. Insulin b. Cortisol c. Epinephrine d. Aldosterone 9. Which of the following is a typical long-term consequence of chronic stress? a. Enhanced immune function b. Hypertension c. Increased bone density d. Decreased blood glucose levels 10. During the resistance phase of the stress response, the body: a. Attempts to restore homeostasis b. Experiences a "fight or flight" reaction c. becomes more vulnerable to infection d. Undergoes tissue repair 11. Which of the following is a primary physiological effect of the "fight or flight" response? a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased glucose availability c. Reduced muscle strength d. Increased digestion 12. Which hormone is responsible for increasing blood sugar levels during stress? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Cortisol d. Aldosterone 13. During the exhaustion phase of the stress response, individuals are most likely to experience: a. Improved immune function b. Decreased susceptibility to infections c. Fatigue and decreased resistance to stress d. Enhanced energy reserves 14. Which of the following is a typical psychological response to chronic stress? a. Euphoria b. Anxiety and depression c. Enhanced memory d. Reduced alertness 15. What is the primary role of norepinephrine in the stress response? a. Increase digestion b. Increase blood pressure c. Decrease respiration rate d. Suppress immune function 16. A deficiency in which of the following immune components would most likely lead to recurrent bacterial infections? a. T cells b. B cells c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils 17. Which of the following is characteristic of a primary immunodeficiency disorder? a. Increased risk of opportunistic infections b. Autoimmune disease development c. Enhanced response to vaccines d. Decreased risk of allergies 1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity? a) Specificity b) Memory c) Immediate response d) Self/non-self recognition 2. T cells mature in which organ? a) Bone marrow b) Thymus c) Spleen d) Lymph nodes 3. Which type of adaptive immune cell is responsible for antibody production? a) T helper cells b) T cytotoxic cells c) B cells d) Natural killer cells 4. The process by which B cells produce different antibody classes without changing antigen specificity is called: a) V(D)J recombination b) Somatic hypermutation c) Clonal selection d) Class switching 5. Which of the following is NOT a class of antibody? a) IgA b) IgB c) IgG d) IgE 6. The primary function of T helper cells is to: a) Directly kill infected cells b) Produce antibodies c) Activate and regulate other immune cells d) Engulf and destroy pathogens 7. Which of the following is a key difference between primary and secondary immune responses? a) Speed of response b) Specificity of response c) Types of cells involved d) Genetic basis of response 8. Immunological memory is primarily maintained by: a) Neutrophils b) Memory B and T cells c) Mast cells d) Eosinophils 9. The ability of the adaptive immune system to respond to a wide variety of antigens is due to: a) Increased production of immune cells b) Genetic recombination in lymphocytes c) Exposure to multiple pathogens d) Innate immune system activation 10. Which of the following is NOT a type of T helper cell? a) Th1 b) Th2 c) Th17 d) Th5 11. The process by which T cells learn to distinguish self from non-self occurs in the: a) Bone marrow b) Thymus c) Lymph nodes d) Spleen 12. Which of the following best describes the function of cytotoxic T cells? a) Produce antibodies b) Activate B cells c) Directly kill infected or abnormal cells d) Regulate immune responses 13. The presentation of antigen fragments on the surface of cells for recognition by T cells is accomplished by: a) Antibodies b) Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) molecules c) Toll-like receptors d) Cytokines 14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good vaccine? a) Induces long-lasting immunity b) Causes severe side effects c) Stimulates both humoral and cell-mediated immunity d) Is safe for the majority of the population 15. The phenomenon where the immune system attacks the body's own tissues is called: a) Allergy b) Autoimmunity c) Immunodeficiency d) Hypersensitivity 16. Which of the following is an example of passive immunity? a) Immunity developed after vaccination b) Transfer of maternal antibodies to a fetus c) Memory B cell response d) Production of antibodies after infection 17. The process by which B cells undergo rapid proliferation and differentiation upon antigen recognition is called: a) Affinity maturation b) Clonal expansion c) Isotype switching d) Somatic hypermutation 18. Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies? a) Neutralization of toxins b) Opsonization of pathogens c) Activation of complement system d) Direct killing of infected cells 19. T regulatory cells (Tregs) primarily function to: a) Stimulate immune responses b) Suppress immune responses c) Produce antibodies d) Present antigens 20. Which of the following best describes the concept of immunological tolerance? a) The ability to respond to all foreign antigens b) The lack of immune response to self-antigens c) The production of antibodies against all pathogens d) The activation of T cells in response to infection 21. The type of hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergies is: a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV 22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity? a) Antigen-specific responses b) Rapid response on first exposure c) Formation of memory cells d) Clonal expansion of lymphocytes 23. The primary site of B cell maturation is: a) Thymus b) Bone marrow c) Spleen d) Lymph nodes 24. Which of the following cells is responsible for presenting antigens to T cells? a) B cells b) Neutrophils c) Dendritic cells d) Eosinophils 25. The process by which B cells improve their affinity for antigens over time is called: a) Clonal selection b) Affinity maturation c) Isotype switching d) V(D)J recombination 26. Which of the following antibody classes is most abundant in human serum? a) IgA b) IgD c) IgE d) IgG 27. The ability of the adaptive immune system to distinguish between self and non-self is crucial for preventing: a) Allergies b) Autoimmune diseases c) Immunodeficiencies d) Vaccine responses 28. Which of the following is NOT a function of T helper cells? a) Activation of B cells b) Direct killing of infected cells c) Cytokine production d) Activation of macrophages 29. The process by which T cells become activated upon recognizing their specific antigen is called: a) Positive selection b) Negative selection c) Clonal selection d) Affinity maturation 30. Which of the following best describes the concept of immunological memory? a) The ability to respond more quickly and effectively to subsequent exposures to an antigen b) The process of developing tolerance to self-antigens c) The production of antibodies against all possible antigens d) The innate immune system's ability to recognize pathogens 31. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a secondary immune response? a) Faster response time b) Higher antibody titers c) Predominant IgM production d) Longer-lasting protection 32. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules primarily present antigens to: a) B cells b) T helper cells c) T cytotoxic cells d) Natural killer cells 33. Which of the following is an example of cell-mediated immunity? a) Antibody production b) Complement activation c) Cytotoxic T cell killing of infected cells d) Mast cell degranulation 34. The process by which B cells switch from producing IgM to other antibody classes is called: a) V(D)J recombination b) Somatic hypermutation c) Class switching d) Affinity maturation 35. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of IgA antibodies? a) Found in high concentrations in mucous secretions b) Provides protection at mucosal surfaces c) Primarily found in serum d) Can be transported across epithelial surfaces 36. The phenomenon where exposure to one pathogen provides protection against a related pathogen is called: a) Passive immunity b) Cross-reactivity c) Autoimmunity d) Immunological tolerance 37. Which of the following best describes the function of memory B cells? a) Immediate antibody production upon antigen exposure b) Rapid proliferation and differentiation upon re-exposure to an antigen c) Suppression of immune responses d) Presentation of antigens to T cells 38. The process of generating antibody diversity through random combination of gene segments is called: a) Somatic hypermutation b) Class switching c) V(D)J recombination d) Clonal selection 39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity in newborns? a) Fully developed and functional b) Reliance on passive immunity from the mother c) Limited repertoire of antigens recognized d) Gradual development over time 40. The concept of "original antigenic sin" in immunology refers to: a) The first exposure to an antigen always produces the strongest immune response b) The tendency of the immune system to preferentially utilize memory responses to previously encountered antigens c) The inability of the immune system to respond to certain antigens d) The process by which autoimmune diseases develop 41. Which of the following is NOT a type of cellular adaptation? a) Atrophy b) Hypertrophy c) Metaplasia d) Apoptosis 42. The reversible cellular change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type is called: a) Hyperplasia b) Dysplasia c) Metaplasia d) Anaplasia 43. Which of the following is an example of physiological hypertrophy? a) Enlarged heart due to hypertension b) Increased muscle mass due to exercise c) Enlarged prostate in older men d) Thickened skin on palms due to manual labor 44. The process of programmed cell death is known as: a) Necrosis b) Apoptosis c) Autophagy d) Oncosis 45. Which of the following is a characteristic of necrosis? a) ATP-dependent process b) Cellular swelling c) Chromatin condensation d) Formation of apoptotic bodies 46. Free radical damage to cell membranes primarily occurs through: a) Glycosylation b) Methylation c) Lipid peroxidation d) Protein denaturation 47. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of cellular injury? a) Hypoxia b) Chemical agents c) Hydration d) Infectious agents 48. The accumulation of fluid within cells, causing them to swell, is known as: a) Hydropic degeneration b) Fatty change c) Glycogen accumulation d) Hyaline change 49. Which of the following best describes the "point of no return" in cellular injury? a) Mild mitochondrial swelling b) Reversible cell membrane changes c) Extensive damage to lysosomes d) Slight changes in nuclear chromatin 50. Cellular adaptation characterized by an increase in the number of cells is called: a) Hypertrophy b) Hyperplasia c) Atrophy d) Metaplasia 51. Which of the following is a key difference between apoptosis and necrosis? a) Apoptosis requires energy, while necrosis does not b) Necrosis is programmed, while apoptosis is not c) Apoptosis causes inflammation, while necrosis does not d) Necrosis affects single cells, while apoptosis affects groups of cells 52. The brown pigment that accumulates in cells and tissues as a result of wear and tear is: a) Melanin b) Lipofuscin c) Hemosiderin d) Bilirubin 53. Which of the following is an example of pathological hyperplasia? a) Increased number of red blood cells at high altitudes b) Enlarged breasts during pregnancy c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia d) Increased muscle cells after exercise 54. The type of necrosis characterized by enzymatic digestion of cells, resulting in liquefactive debris, is: a) Coagulative necrosis b) Liquefactive necrosis c) Caseous necrosis d) Fat necrosis 55. Which of the following is NOT a cellular response to stress? a) Heat shock protein production b) Cell cycle arrest c) Uncontrolled cell division d) Autophagy 56. The process by which cells break down their own components through lysosomes is called: a) Apoptosis b) Necrosis c) Autophagy d) Oncosis 57. Which of the following is a characteristic of dysplasia? a) Increased cell size b) Abnormal cell organization c) Decreased number of cells d) Normal cell differentiation 58. The cellular adaptation in which cells decrease in size is: a) Atrophy b) Hypertrophy c) Hyperplasia d) Metaplasia 59. Which of the following is NOT a cause of fatty change in liver cells? a) Alcoholism b) Diabetes mellitus c) Protein deficiency d) Regular exercise 60. The accumulation of proteins in cells, appearing as glassy, pink areas in H&E stained tissues, is known as: a) Fatty change b) Hydropic degeneration c) Hyaline change d) Metaplasia 61. Which of the following best describes the function of caspases in apoptosis? a) Initiate DNA repair b) Activate cell survival pathways c) Cleave cellular proteins d) Promote cell membrane integrity 62. The type of cell death characterized by cell swelling, organelle swelling, and plasma membrane rupture is: a) Apoptosis b) Necrosis c) Autophagy d) Anoikis 63. Which of the following is an example of metaplasia? a) Increased heart muscle size due to exercise b) Replacement of squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium in Barrett's esophagus c) Decrease in muscle mass due to disuse d) Increase in the number of cells in the endometrium during the menstrual cycle 64. The cellular response to mild, sub-lethal injury that allows cells to survive is called: a) Necrosis b) Apoptosis c) Adaptation d) Transformation 65. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of apoptosis? a) Cell shrinkage b) Chromatin condensation c) Inflammation d) DNA fragmentation 66. The irreversible cellular injury characterized by the swelling of mitochondria and severe plasma membrane damage is known as: a) Reversible cell injury b) Apoptosis c) Necrosis d) Metaplasia 67. Which of the following is a common cause of hypertrophy? a) Hormonal stimulation b) Decreased workload c) Nutrient deficiency d) Denervation 68. The cellular adaptation in which mature cells are replaced by less differentiated, more unstable cells is: a) Metaplasia b) Dysplasia c) Hyperplasia d) Anaplasia 69. Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of severe cellular injury? a) Necrosis b) Apoptosis c) Cellular adaptation d) Autophagy 70. The accumulation of calcium in dead or dying cells is known as: a) Calcification b) Hyalinization c) Fatty change d) Glycogenosis 71. Which of the following best describes the role of lysosomes in cellular injury? a) Protection against oxidative stress b) Synthesis of new proteins c) Release of hydrolytic enzymes d) Regulation of cell division 72. The type of necrosis commonly seen in mycobacterial infections, such as tuberculosis, is: a) Coagulative necrosis b) Liquefactive necrosis c) Caseous necrosis d) Fat necrosis 73. Which of the following is an example of physiological atrophy? a) Decreased muscle mass due to aging b) Shrinkage of the thymus gland after puberty c) Reduced heart size in an athlete who stops training d) Brain atrophy in Alzheimer's disease 74. The cellular adaptation characterized by an increase in the size of cells and their organelles is: a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Atrophy d) Metaplasia 75. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of cellular injury? a) ATP depletion b) Membrane damage c) Protein synthesis d) DNA damage 76. The process by which cells adapt to chronic irritation by changing to a cell type better able to withstand the environment is: a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Metaplasia d) Dysplasia 77. Which of the following is a characteristic of reversible cell injury? a) Rupture of lysosomal membranes b) Severe mitochondrial damage c) Cellular swelling d) Irreversible nuclear changes 78. The type of cell death triggered by loss of contact with the extracellular matrix is: a) Necrosis b) Apoptosis c) Autophagy d) Anoikis 79. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of apoptosis? a) Activation of caspases b) Formation of apoptotic bodies c) Release of cellular contents into the extracellular space d) Phosphatidylserine exposure on the outer leaf of the plasma membrane 80. The cellular adaptation characterized by both an increase in cell number and cell size is: a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Metaplasia d) Hyperplasia and hypertrophy 81. Which of the following is the primary intracellular cation? a) Sodium b) Potassium c) Calcium d) Magnesium 82. Hyperkalemia is most likely to cause which of the following ECG changes? a) Prolonged QT interval b) Tall, peaked T waves c) Flattened T waves d) Shortened QT interval 83. Which of the following is a common cause of metabolic alkalosis? a) Diarrhea b) Renal failure c) Excessive vomiting d) Diabetic ketoacidosis 84. The condition characterized by low blood sodium levels is: a) Hypernatremia b) Hyponatremia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypokalemia 85. Which of the following is NOT a function of aldosterone? a) Increases sodium reabsorption b) Increases potassium excretion c) Decreases hydrogen ion excretion d) Increases water reabsorption 86. The most common cause of hypercalcemia is: a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Vitamin D toxicity c) Renal failure d) Hypoparathyroidism 87. Which of the following is a sign of severe hypokalemia? a) Muscle weakness b) Hyperreflexia c) Increased bowel motility d) Hypertension 88. The condition characterized by an abnormally low blood pH is: a) Acidosis b) Alkalosis c) Acidemia d) Alkalemia 89. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to cause tetany? a) Hypercalcemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hyponatremia 90. The primary buffer system in the blood is: a) Phosphate buffer system b) Protein buffer system c) Bicarbonate buffer system d) Ammonia buffer system 91. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of hypernatremia? a) Excessive water loss b) Diabetes insipidus c) Congestive heart failure d) Excessive sodium intake 92. The condition characterized by an increase in the total amount of body water relative to solute is: a) Isotonic dehydration b) Hypertonic dehydration c) Hypotonic hydration d) Hypertonic hydration 93. Which of the following is a common cause of hypophosphatemia? a) Renal failure b) Vitamin D deficiency c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Tumor lysis syndrome 94. The most common cause of hyponatremia is: a) Excessive sodium loss b) Excessive water intake c) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) d) Hyperaldosteronism 95. Which of the following is NOT a typical manifestation of hypercalcemia? a) Constipation b) Muscle weakness c) Polyuria d) Hyporeflexia 96. The condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH and bicarbonate concentration is: a) Respiratory acidosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Metabolic alkalosis 97. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias? a) Hyponatremia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypophosphatemia 98. The hormone primarily responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood is: a) Calcitonin b) Parathyroid hormone c) Vitamin D d) Aldosterone 99. Which of the following is a common cause of metabolic acidosis? a) Hyperventilation b) Chronic vomiting c) Diarrhea d) Use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 100. The condition characterized by an abnormally high blood pH is: a) Acidosis b) Alkalosis c) Acidemia d) Alkalemia 101. Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of hypomagnesemia? a) Tetany b) Hyperreflexia c) Seizures d) Hypertension 102. The primary mechanism for maintaining acid-base balance in the body is: a) Respiratory system b) Renal system c) Hepatic system d) Gastrointestinal system 103. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to cause muscle cramps? a) Hypernatremia b) Hypercalcemia c) Hypokalemia d) Hypermagnesemia 104. The condition characterized by an increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood is: a) Alkalemia b) Acidemia c) Alkalosis d) Acidosis 105. Which of the following is a common cause of hyperphosphatemia? a) Vitamin D deficiency b) Hypoparathyroidism c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Renal failure 106. The most immediate compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis is: a) Increased renal excretion of hydrogen ions b) Increased respiratory rate and depth c) Increased bicarbonate reabsorption in the kidneys d) Decreased production of organic acids 107. Which of the following is NOT a typical manifestation of severe hypernatremia? a) Seizures b) Coma c) Muscle weakness d) Increased thirst 108. The condition characterized by a decrease in total body potassium is: a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Pseudohyperkalemia d) Normokalemia

Document Details

Tags

Related

Summary

Full Transcript

Upgrade to continue