PATH 2210 Exam Questions PDF

## 40 Multiple Choice Questions: Inflammation, Anatomical Pathology, and Congenital Diseases Instructions: Choose the best answer for each multiple-choice question. 1. Which of the following best describes the primary goal of inflammation? a) To initiate an immune response against a specific patho...

## 40 Multiple Choice Questions: Inflammation, Anatomical Pathology, and Congenital Diseases Instructions: Choose the best answer for each multiple-choice question. 1. Which of the following best describes the primary goal of inflammation? a) To initiate an immune response against a specific pathogen. b) To repair damaged tissue and restore normal function. c) To deliver white blood cells and plasma proteins to the site of injury or infection. d) To increase blood flow and raise the temperature of the affected area. 2. Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation? a) Redness b) Heat c) Numbness d) Swelling 3. During inflammation, which cellular event allows white blood cells to squeeze through the blood vessel walls and into the surrounding tissues? a) Chemotaxis b) Phagocytosis c) Vasodilation d) Emigration 4. Which two types of leukocytes are MOST important for phagocytosis during the inflammatory process? a) Lymphocytes and eosinophils b) Neutrophils and macrophages c) Basophils and mast cells d) Natural killer cells and dendritic cells 5. Chronic inflammation can occur when: a) The inflammatory response is excessive. b) The causative agent is not eradicated. c) The inflammatory response is inappropriately directed. d) All of the above 6. Which type of inflammation is characterised by thin, watery fluid with few cells? a) Purulent inflammation b) Fibrinous inflammation c) Serous inflammation d) Ulcerative inflammation 7. What distinguishes fibrinous inflammation from other types of inflammation? a) Presence of pus b) Formation of fibrin sheets c) Accumulation of serous fluid d) Loss of tissue surface 8. Which of the following is NOT a major focus of anatomical pathology? a) Identifying potential pathological changes in tissues and organs. b) Understanding the systemised nomenclature of pathology. c) Investigating the genetic basis of disease. d) Appreciating the physical changes that occur during disease manifestation. 9. A congenital disease is defined as a condition: a) Present at birth. b) Caused by a genetic defect. d) Inherited from a parent. c) Resulting from environmental exposure. 10. Which of the following is an example of a teratogen? a) Folic acid b) Rubella virus c) Genetic mutation d) Chromosomal abnormality 11. TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that can cause congenital malformations when the fetus is exposed in utero. Which of the following is NOT part of the TORCH complex? a) Toxoplasmosis b) Rubella c) Tuberculosis d) Herpes simplex virus 12. What is the potential consequence of maternal rubella infection during the first 11 weeks of pregnancy? a) Congenital Rubella Syndrome b) Mental retardation in the child c) Cardiac defects in the child d) All of the above 13. Thalidomide exposure during pregnancy is known to cause severe birth defects. Which of the following is a characteristic malformation associated with thalidomide? a) Neural tube defects b) Cleft palate c) Amelia (absence of limbs) d) Congenital heart defects 14. Amniotic band syndrome is a mechanical cause of congenital malformations. What is the primary mechanism by which it causes these malformations? a) Genetic mutations b) Infectious agents c) Ischemia due to amniotic band entanglement d) Maternal exposure to teratogens 15. Oligohydramnios, a condition characterised by low amniotic fluid, can lead to various congenital malformations. Which of the following is a potential consequence of oligohydramnios? a) Limb deformities b) Hypoplasia (underdevelopment of organs) c) Premature delivery d) All of the above 16. Which of the following is a common congenital malformation that is the leading cause of infant death? a) Neural tube defects b) Cleft palate c) Congenital heart defects d) Down syndrome 17. What is the most common type of chromosomal abnormality? a) Deletions b) Duplications c) Translocations d) Nondisjunction 18. What is the most significant risk factor for nondisjunction during meiosis? a) Paternal age b) Maternal age c) Exposure to radiation d) Previous aneuploidy 19. Which of the following genetic disorders is caused by a trisomy (an extra chromosome)? a) Turner syndrome b) Klinefelter syndrome c) Down syndrome d) Williams-Beuren syndrome 20. Which of the following statements accurately describes Klinefelter syndrome? a) It is caused by an extra X chromosome in males. b) It is characterised by distinctive facial features and cardiovascular disease. c) It results from a deletion of multiple genes. d) It is a trisomy of chromosome 13. 21. The "central dogma" of molecular biology describes the flow of genetic information. Which of the following represents the correct order of this flow? a) Protein → RNA → DNA b) RNA → DNA → Protein c) DNA → RNA → Protein d) Protein → DNA → RNA 22. A missense mutation is a type of genetic mutation that results in: a) A premature stop codon in the mRNA sequence. b) A change in a single amino acid in the protein sequence. c) A shift in the reading frame of the mRNA sequence. d) No change in the amino acid sequence of the protein. 23. What is the difference between homozygous and heterozygous genotypes? a) Homozygous individuals have two different alleles of a gene, while heterozygous individuals have two identical alleles. b) Homozygous individuals have two identical alleles of a gene, while heterozygous individuals have two different alleles. c) Homozygous individuals have only one copy of a gene, while heterozygous individuals have two copies. d) Homozygous individuals are always affected by a genetic disorder, while heterozygous individuals are never affected. 24. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an example of which type of inheritance pattern? a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) X-linked dominant d) X-linked recessive 25. Which of the following genetic disorders is characterised by a deficiency in clotting factors? a) Cystic fibrosis b) Achondroplasia c) Haemophilia d) Sickle cell disease 26. Which inheritance pattern is associated with a disease allele located on the X chromosome and manifests primarily in males? a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) X-linked dominant d) X-linked recessive 27. What is the defining characteristic of codominant inheritance? a) Both alleles of a gene are fully expressed in the heterozygous state. b) The phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between the homozygous phenotypes. c) Only one allele is expressed in the heterozygous state. d) The disease allele is located on a sex chromosome. 28. What is the term for the proportion of individuals with a specific mutation who actually develop the associated disease? a) Expressivity b) Penetrance c) Mosaicism d) Genotype-phenotype correlation 29. Which of the following statements about mitochondrial inheritance is TRUE? a) Both males and females can transmit mitochondrial disorders. b) Mitochondrial disorders are always inherited from the mother. c) Mitochondrial DNA mutations are not associated with disease. d) Mitochondrial disorders only affect muscle tissue. 30. Which of the following is a key characteristic of multifactorial inheritance? a) It follows Mendelian inheritance patterns. b) It involves the interaction of multiple genes and environmental factors. c) It is solely determined by genetic factors. d) It is a rare occurrence in human diseases. 31. Cleft palate is an example of a multifactorial disorder. What factors contribute to its development? a) Genetic predisposition b) Environmental factors during pregnancy c) Timing of palatal fusion during embryonic development d) All of the above 32. Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and producing urine? a) Glomerulus b) Nephron c) Ureter d) Bladder 33. Which of the following clinical manifestations is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome? a) Haematuria b) Proteinuria c) Oedema d) All of the above 34. What is the term for the accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the blood, often indicative of renal failure? a) Proteinuria b) Haematuria c) Azotemia d) Hydronephrosis 35. What is the primary mechanism of damage in glomerulonephritis? a) Formation of cysts in the kidneys b) Immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli c) Obstruction of the urinary tract d) Bacterial infection of the kidneys 36. Which of the following is a common cause of acute kidney injury, often reversible with appropriate treatment? a) Glomerulonephritis b) Renal tubular necrosis c) Polycystic kidney disease d) Urinary tract infection 37. What is the most common type of simple cyst in the kidney? a) Acquired cyst b) Medullary cyst c) Polycystic kidney d) Simple cyst 38. What is the most serious complication of urinary tract obstruction that can be fatal if left untreated? a) Urinary tract infection b) Hydronephrosis c) Kidney stone formation d) Haematuria 39. What is the medical term for a bacterial infection of the bladder? a) Pyelonephritis b) Cystitis c) Urethritis d) Nephrolithiasis 40. Which of the following is a non-invasive procedure used to break down kidney stones into smaller, more easily excreted fragments? a) Lithotripsy b) Dialysis c) Nephrectomy d) Ureteroscopy ## ANSWER KEY: 1. c) 2. c) 3. d) 4. b) 5. d) 6. c) 7. b) 8. c) 9. a) 10. b) 11. c) 12. d) 13. c) 14. c) 15. d) 16. c) 17. d) 18. b) 19. c) 20. a) 21. c) 22. b) 23. b) 24. b) 25. c) 26. d) 27. a) 28. b) 29. b) 30. b) 31. d) 32. b) 33. d) 34. c) 35. b) 36. b) 37. d) 38. b) 39. b) 40. a) "Please ensure that you carefully review your questions and answers before utilizing them."