Past Paper DERMA 2022/23 PDF

## PASTPAPERS DERMA 2022/23 super exclusive ;) 1. The skin is one of the largest organs in the body in surface area and weight a) True b) False 2. Mark true statements (more than 1 answer is correct) a) The skin is an organ of protection b) The skin is an organ of sensation c) T...

## PASTPAPERS DERMA 2022/23 super exclusive ;) 1. The skin is one of the largest organs in the body in surface area and weight a) True b) False 2. Mark true statements (more than 1 answer is correct) a) The skin is an organ of protection b) The skin is an organ of sensation c) The skin is an organ of thermoregulation 3. Localized discoloration of the skin smaller than 1 cm is called a) Urtica b) Bulla c) Ulcer d) Macule e) Crust 4. What does the term veneerology mean? a) Science about skin appendages b) Science about STD 5. Scar belongs to a) Primary skin lesions b) Secondary skin lesions c) Final stages 6. Scale belongs to primary skin lesions a) True b) False 7. Epidermis is avascular a) True b) False 8. Macule belongs to primary skin lesions a) True b) False 9. The main difference between bulla and vesicle is in a) Size b) Content 10. Physiological process of keratinitation takes a) 28 hours b) 28 days c) 28 minutes 11. Erythroderma is a) Intense and usually widespread reddening of the skin due to inflammatory skin disease b) Synonym to itching 12. Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale are the sublayers of a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Subcutis 13. Erythroderma can be due to: a) Bullous pemphigoid b) Erysipelas c) Atopic eczema d) Dishydrotic eczema e) Pemphigus vulgaris 14. Margins of the ulcer a) are not well defined can be elevated b) never change c) are not described d) can be mixed 15. Loss of part of the epidermis; depressed, moist, glistening; follows rupture of a vesicle or bulla is: a) Eschara b) Erosion c) Crust d) Telangiectasia e) Cyst 16. Elevated, circumscribed, superficial, not into dermis; filled with serous fluid; more than 1cm in diameter is: a) Vesicle b) Cyst c) Bulla d) Papule e) Tuber 17. Macule Is a primary lesion seen in: a) Impetigo b) Acne c) Folliculitis d) drug eruption e) herpes 18. What is typical for superficial fungal infections? a) severe subjective symptoms b) involving stratum corneum, hairs and nails c) so called mycosis fungoldes d) always treated topically e) always treated systemically 19. Impetigo is a common, highly contagious, superficial skin infection produce by: a) Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes b) Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae c) Staphyiococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae d) Staphylococcus epidermidis, Propionibacterium acnes e) Staphylococcus epidermids, Staphylococcus aureus 20. Condylomata lata: a) disease of viral aetiology b) are non-infectious epithellomas c) manifestation appeares in early state of secondary syphilis d) disease of fungal aetiology e) are infected epitheliomas caused by HPV (human papilomavirus) 21. Choose true statement for scables: a) vesicles are usually on the trunk wheals with hemorrhagic dot are present b) papules are predominantly on extensor parts of the limbs c) excoriated papules on the wrists are present d) typical are wheals with vesicles 22. What medications are usually used as the first choice for treatment of hives? a) allergy shots (immunotherapy) b) antihistamines c) topical creams d) steroid injections e) anti-inflammatory medications like Ibuprofen 23. Epidermal barrier in atopic dermatitis: a) allows better lipids absorption b) is equivalent to healthy skin c) is not impaired d) allows entrance of irritants e) lipids in epidermal barrier are increased 24. Mark the correct statement about the patch testing: a) It is used to validate irritant contact dermatitis b) Itis used to validate an immediate - type allergy to inhalant allergens c) the test substances are applied on the skin surface d) It is used to validate an immediate - type allergy to food allergens e) the lest substances are applied into dermis with the injection needle 25. Which clinical features are characteristic for lichen planus? a) Herald patch b) Wickham striae c) Auspitz sign d) Carpet tack sign e) Collarette scales 26. The important feature of psoriasis is: a) Scaling b) Scarring c) Crusting d) Lichenification e) Oozing 27. Treatment of psoriasis includes: a) Systemic steroids b) Terbinafine c) Antihistamines d) Methotrexate e) Vitamin B analogue 28. Intrapidermal bullas are seen in: a) pytiriasis versicolor b) dermatitis herpetiformis Duhring c) pemphigus vulgaris d) pytiriasis rosea Glibert e) bullous pemphigoid 29. Mark the incorrect statement according to Tzanck smear: 30. Melanocytes are present in: a) lower part of the dermis b) stratum lucidum c) stratum granulosum d) stratum corneum e) stratum basale 31. Which of the following is secondary efflorescence? a) Bulla b) Pustule c) Lichenification d) Fissure e) tuber 32. Mark correct statement about petechia: a) circumscribed ulcerated lesion > 1cm b) circumscribed discoloration > 1cm c) circumscribed eroded lesion > 1cm d) circumscribed spotty lesion < 1cm e) circumscribed elevated lesion > 1cm 33. Papillomatosis is sign of: a) Verruca vulgaris b) Condylomata accuminata c) Pemphigus vegetans d) Fibroma molle e) All of the above 34. Fine, irregular red lines produced by capillary dilation is: a) Telangiestasia b) Excoriation c) Patch d) Macule e) keloid 35. Following statements about kerion are true except: a) is assosiated with systeic manifestations b) may lead to scarring alopecia c) involves scalp d) is usually caused by fungi of animal origin e) is a swelling simulating an abscess 36. Mark the disease in which the virus as an atiological agent has not been proved so far: a) condylomata acuminata b) herpes simplex c) warts d) molluscum contagiosum e) dermatitis herpetiformis 37. Favourite affected area of ecthyma simplex is: a) on hands b) on scalp c) on face d) on the dorsum of foot e) on shins 38. Choose the group of people in which Microsporum gypseum cause a disease most frequently: a) Gardeners b) Children c) Housewives d) Confectioners e) adolescents 39. What is the most common cause of an allergy to jewelry? a) Silver b) stainless steel c) soap getting stuck under jewelry with hand washing gold d) nickel 40. Which changes can be found in chronic allergic contact dermatitis in local finding? a) small blisters b) hyperkeratosis and scaling c) impregnation d) exfoliation e) madidation 41. What is the meaning of the term phototoxic dermatitis? a) reaction of skin caused by direct interaction of radiation and photosensitizing substance producing a type of sunburn reaction. b) reaction of skin after too intense exposition to infrared radiation c) reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a consequence of genetic higher sensibility d) reaction of skin when because of sun radiation arise metabolites, that cause abnormal inflammatory reaction e) reaction of skin after longterm exposition to intense sun radiation 42. Which forms of psoriasis do you know? a) Hair psoriasis b) Bullous psoriasis c) Inverse psoriasis d) Vesicular psoriasis e) All of the above 43. All are presentation in psoriasis except: a) Nail changes b) CNS Involvement c) Hypercholesterolemia d) Arthritis e) Skin Involvement 44. Which of the followings is in the group of erythematosquamous diseases? a) Urticaria b) dermatitis herpetiformis c) contagious impetigo d) pityriasis rosea e) pemphigus vulgaris 45. Which condition is typical in pemphigus erythematosus: a) subepidermal bulla b) vegetating lesions c) frequently occurs on areas of friction d) Intradermal bulla e) ANA positive in 30%-80% of cases 46. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by: 47. typical white net a) Inflamated hypertrophic red plaques on the .... b) Vesicles in the final phase c) Subjective symptom is dry mouth d) Subjective symptom is burning sensation 48. Kobner's phenomenon is seen in: a) Urticaria b) Herpes simplex c) Human papilloma virus infection d) Psoriasis e) All the above 49. Comedones are characteristics of: a) Rosacea b) Impetigo c) Acne vulgaris d) ???? 50. ..... is increased.. a) Fluoridated mouthwash, dyspeptic issues b) Is not fixed to follicules c) Is leaving out peroral area d) Involving the skin around the mouth 51. What causes blockage of sebum in hair follicle in acne? a) Applied products on the skin b) Colonization by streptococcus pyogenes c) All answers are correct d) Colonisation by Propionibacterium acnes e) Follicular plugging by hyperkeratosis 52. Perioral dermatitis may be induced by a) Fluorinated toothpaste b) Bacterial infection c) Acquired immune disorder d) Herpes simplex e) Cold weather and frost 53. Acne fulminans is characterized by: a) Inflammatory nodular acne on the chest only b) Angioedema c) Slow onset d) Fluctuating fever e) Rasion on upper trunk 54. Irritant contact dermatitis is characterized by: a) Severe itching b) Lesions spread to surrounding c) Lesions occur only in the location of the irritant d) Non well demarcated edges of the lesion e) Polymorphic lesions are distributed evenly around the area 55. Individuals with atopic dermatitis are prone to develop: a) Bacterial infections b) Viral infections c) Fungal infections d) Allergic rhinitis e) All of the above 56. Hydrocortisone is good to treat... a) Allergic dermatitis b) Bacterial infection c) Tinea pedis d) viral infection e) xerosis 57. Signs of contact toxic dermatitis include: a) Lesions do not spread beyond the contact with allergen b) Lesions are well circumscribed c) Lesions are not well circumscribed d) Lesions are monomorphous e) Lesions are painful 58. Which condition belongs to endogenous eczemas: a) Allergic contact dermatitis b) Pityriasis rubra pilaris c) Hyperhidrosis d) Dyshidrotic eczema e) Anhidrosis 59. ......? a) Pitting of hair plate is most common b) Oily spots of nail plate are most common c) Wickham striae d) Violaceous lesions on mucous membrane 60. Impetigo herpetiformis is a form of: a) Bacterial infection b) Herpetic infection c) Eczema herpeticum d) Psoriasis e) Herpes zoster 61. Histopathology in lichen planus reveals: a) Finger-like papilomatosis b) Saw-tooth acanthosis c) Infiltration by mast cells in the dermis d) Munro's microabcesses in the epidermis e) None of the above 62. Dermatophytes cause infection of: a) Non-hairy skin b) Hairs c) Nails d) A,b e) A,b,c 63. Which disease fluoresces under the Wood's light? a) Pityriasis rubra pilaris b) Pityriasis rosea c) Erythrasma d) Erysipelas e) Scabies 64. Mark true statement about scrophuloderma: a) There is no previous contact with Mycobacterium b) Histological examination is not specific c) Tuberculin test is positive d) Lesions are very contagious e) Tuberculin test is negative 65. Angiolupoid sarcoidosis is characterized by: a) Typical localization on fingers b) Telangiectases c) Soft reddish-brown nodules d) Typical localization in oral cavity e) Solid yellow nodules 66. Which test is used in pityriasis versicolor? a) Preparation stained by Giemsa b) Wood's light examination c) Dermatoscopy d) Serological test e) Examination in dark field 67. Grouped vesicles on an erythematous base with common recurrences at the same site is typical for: a) Herpes simplex b) Allergic contact dermatitis c) Herpes zoster d) Pemphigus vulgaris e) Bullous impetigo 68. The four cardinal signs of cellulitis do not include a) Pain b) Redness c) Itch d) Swelling e) All of the above 69. Erythema induratum is usually caused by: a) Sarcoidosus b) Tuberculosis c) Cutaeous lymphoma d) Non Langerhans cell histiocytosis e) *None of the above* 70. Surface of verrucae vulgares is: a) Gradually cornifies and becomes rough and verrucous b) Smooth with depression c) Smooth with pearl appearance d) Smooth only initially e) Surface is not characteristic 71. For which population is Varciela-zoster-virus most dangerous? a) Young healthy individuals b) Patients with verucca vulgaris c) Pregnant women d) Individuals with strong immune system e) None of the above 72. Mark the correct statement about Molluscum contagiosum: a) Papule is firm and smooth umbilicated usually 2-6mm in diameter b) Manifestations are painful c) HPV is a trigger d) Clear vesicles are seen e) Popular and pustular lesions are typical 73. Choose the appropriate treatment of candidiasis: a) Corticosteroids b) Erythromycin c) Tetracycline d) Fluconazole e) Sulfonamides 74. Candidal paronychia et onychia is most common in: a) Infants b) Adolescents c) Masons d) Students e) Confectioners 75. Human papillomavirus: a) It infects skin and mucous membranes with warts b) It can not be sexually transmitted c) It induces molluscum contagiosum d) HPV infection never develops into the malignancy e) It is RNA virus 76. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by: a) Human papilloma virus b) Coxsackie virus c) Poxvirus d) EBV e) Cytomegalovirus 77. Pustule is: a) Fluid- containing elevation b) Pus-containing elevation c) Small soft elevation d) Small hard elevation e) Fluid-containing elevation with .... 78. Mark the correct statement - ecchymosis: a) Spotty bleeding into a skin <1 cm b) Nodule c) Papule d) Ulcer e) Larger bleeding into a skin >1cm 79. Wheal lesion visible in: a) Acute urticaria b) Shingles c) Vasculitis d) Pemphigus e) A,c 80. What is seborrhoea? a) Occlusion of the sebaceous glands terminals b) Increased sebum production due to its drying on the... c) Transitional short-term increase of sebum by neuroti... d) Increased function of sebaceous glands by therapeu.... e) Increased production of pathologically changed seb.... 81. A bulla may be the primary lesion of all of the following a) Molluscum contagiosum b) IgA linear dermatosis c) Drug eruption d) Impetigo e) Erythema multiforme 82. Thin to thick fibrous tissue that replaces normal skin following: a) Eschara b) Plaque c) Scar d) Tumor e) Papule 83. Which location is typical for discoid lupus erythematosus? a) Seborrhoeic b) Embolic c) Unilateral d) Sun-exposed e) Intertriginous 84. Mark the secondary lesion: a) Ulcer b) Wheal c) Vesicle d) Nodule e) Blister 85. Which of the followings related to vascular spot? a) Lentigo b) Chloasma c) Teleangietasia d) Vitiligo e) Freckles 86. Which of the following expresses primary lesion? a) Pyoderma gangrenosum b) Striae distense c) Chancre d) Lichen ruber planus e) Morphoea 87. Clinical feature of Lyme borreliosis is: a) Erythema centrifugum b) Lymphadenosis cutis benigna c) Dermatitis acuta atrophicans d) Pityriasis rosea e) Pityriasis versicolor 88. Which symptoms does not occur in ery...? a) sharply defined erythema with oedema b) shiver c) fever d) painfulness to touch e) pruritus 89. In which age group herpes simplex virus primoinfection usually occurs? a) 6-10 years b) Up to 12 months c) 11-15 years d) 15-20 years e) 1-5 years 90. Mark the false statement about scabies: a) The symptoms of scabies are intense itching, especially at night b) Is contagious and can spread quickly through close physical contact in a family c) Rash usually spreads across the whole body, apart from the head d) Scabies is non-contagious inflammatory skin condition e) The female mite burrows just beneath your skin and makes a tunnel where it deposits 91. Onychomycosis is: a) Ringworm of the scalp b) Ringworm of the face c) Ringworm of the feet d) Ringworm of the groin e) None of the above 92. Mark the correct statement about tuberculosis cutis luposa a) Course is short and heals ad integrum b) Serious complication may be development of malignancy melanoma c) Is Most infected stage of tuberculosis 93. What is relevant for the diagnosis of Scabies? a) Positive family history b) Night itching c) Distribution of the lesions d) All of the above e) None of the above 94. Which of the following factor is predisposing in the development of candidiasis a) Cytostatics b) Diabetes mellitus c) Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics d) Long lasting treatment with corticosteroids e) All of the above 95. Warts can be treated by all of the following except: a) Cryotherapy b) Intralesional steroids c) Keratolytics d) Laser e) Electriauthery 96. Clinical feature of Lyme borreliosis is: a) anulare b) Acrodematitis chronica atrophicans c) Pseudolymphadenosis maligna 97. Herpes zoster affects: a) Mostly young individuals b) Symmetrically both extremities c) Patients with hematooncological disease as paraneoplastic disease d) Unilateral dermatome e) Answers c,d are correct 98. Irritant contact dermatitis is characterized by: a) severe itching b) lesions spread to surrounding c) lesions occur only in the location of the irritant d) non well demarcated edges of the lesion e) polymorphic lesions are distributed eventy around the area 99. Individuals with atopic dermatitis are prone to develop: a) Bacterial infections b) Viral infections c) Fungal infections d) Allergic rhinitis e) All of the above 100. Hydrocortisone is goos to treat: a) Allergic dermatitis b) Bacterial infection c) Tinea pedis d) Viral infection e) xerosis 101. Signs of contact toxic dermatitis include: a) lesions do not spread beyond the contact with allergen b) lesions are well circumscribed c) lesions are not well circumscribed d) lesions are monomorphous e) lesions are painful 102. Which condition belongs to endogenous eczemas: a) allergic contact dermatitis b) pityriasis rubra pilaris c) hyperhidrosis d) dyshidrotic eczema e) anhidrosis 103. What causes blockage of sebum in hair follicle in acne vulgaris? a) Applied products on the skin b) Colonization by streptococcus pyogenes c) All answers are correct d) Colonization by Propionibacterium acnes e) Follicular plugging by hyperkeratosis 104. Perioral dermatitis may be induced by: a) Fluorinated toothpaste b) Bacterial infection c) Acquired immune disorder d) Herpes simplex e) Cold weather and frost 105. Acne fulminans is characterized by: a) Inflammatory nodular acne on chest only b) Angioedema c) Slow onset d) Fluctuating fever e) Rasion on upper trunk 106. Choose the appropriate treatment of candidiasis a) Corticosteroids b) Erythromycin c) Tetracycline d) Fluconazole e) Sulfonamides 107. Candidal paronchia et onchya is most in