AIAPGET 2020 Homeopathy PDF

AIAPGET 2020 Homeopathy Topic:‐ AIAPGET_Homeopathy 1) Thoracic duct drains the following areas except:‐ [Question ID = 8] 1. Left upper limb [Option ID = 29] 2. Left lower limb [Option ID = 30] 3. Right upper limb [Option ID = 31] 4. Right lower limb...

AIAPGET 2020 Homeopathy Topic:‐ AIAPGET_Homeopathy 1) Thoracic duct drains the following areas except:‐ [Question ID = 8] 1. Left upper limb [Option ID = 29] 2. Left lower limb [Option ID = 30] 3. Right upper limb [Option ID = 31] 4. Right lower limb [Option ID = 32] 2) “Charcot’s artery of cerebral haemorrhage” is a branch of:‐ [Question ID = 9] 1. Anterior cerebral artery [Option ID = 33] 2. Middle cerebral artery [Option ID = 34] 3. Anterior choroidal artery [Option ID = 35] 4. Posterior cerebral artery [Option ID = 36] 3) Uterine artery is a branch of which artery? [Question ID = 10] 1. Common iliac [Option ID = 37] 2. External iliac [Option ID = 38] 3. Abdominal aorta [Option ID = 39] 4. Internal iliac [Option ID = 40] 4) Transpyloric plane passes through:‐ [Question ID = 11] 1. Tip of 10th rib [Option ID = 41] 2. Midway between sternal angle and pubic symphysis [Option ID = 42] 3. Body of 1st lumbar vertebra near its lower border [Option ID = 43] 4. Body of 2nd lumbar vertebra near its upper border [Option ID = 44] 5) Given below are two statements. Statement I: Saphenous nerve is a branch of femoral nerve. Statement II: Extensor digitorum brevis is present on the dorsum of foot. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 12] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 45] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 46] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 47] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 48] 6) Which one of the following muscle is a flexor of elbow joint despite being supplied by an ‘extensor’ nerve? [Question ID = 13] 1. Triceps [Option ID = 49] 2. Anconeus [Option ID = 50] 3. Brachioradialis [Option ID = 51] 4. Supinator [Option ID = 52] 7) The taste sensation from the anterior two third of the tongue is transmitted through:‐ [Question ID = 14] 1. Vagus nerve [Option ID = 53] 2. Facial nerve [Option ID = 54] 3. Glossopharyngeal nerve [Option ID = 55] 4. Hypoglossal nerve [Option ID = 56] 8) Features of Cushing’s syndrome include:‐ [Question ID = 15] 1. Thickening of skin [Option ID = 57] 2. Salt and water retention [Option ID = 58] 3. Hypoglycemia [Option ID = 59] 4. Hypotension [Option ID = 60] 9) Regarding composition of Bile, the Gallbladder Bile when compared to Liver bile has:‐ A. More water B. More Bile Salts C. More calcium D. More Bicarbonate Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 16] 1. A, B and C Only [Option ID = 61] 2. B and C only [Option ID = 62] 3. A and D only [Option ID = 63] 4. B, C and D only [Option ID = 64] 10) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A: ADH is a water insoluble hormone. Reason R: ADH is a polypeptide and needs receptors on the cell membrane to work on DCT. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 17] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 65] 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 66] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 67] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 68] 11) Given below are two statements. Statement I: Basophils release Bradykinin, Secretin, Major Basic Protein and Heparin. Statement II: Eosinophil release Bradykinin, Secretin, Major Basic Protein and Heparin. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 18] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 69] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 70] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 71] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 72] 12) The major contributor of weight gain in the first trimester of pregnancy is:‐ [Question ID = 19] 1. Fetal weight [Option ID = 73] 2. Placental weight [Option ID = 74] 3. Fat deposition [Option ID = 75] 4. Uterine weight [Option ID = 76] 13) Bone tumour arising from epiphysis is:‐ [Question ID = 20] 1. Osteosarcoma [Option ID = 77] 2. Chondrosarcoma [Option ID = 78] 3. Ewing’s Sarcoma [Option ID = 79] 4. Giant cell tumour of bone [Option ID = 80] 14) Among the following, what are the changes seen in iron deficiency anemia? [Question ID = 21] 1. Serum Iron‐decreased & Iron binding Capacity‐decreased [Option ID = 81] 2. Serum Iron‐Increased & Iron binding Capacity‐decreased [Option ID = 82] 3. Serum Iron‐decreased & Iron binding Capacity‐Increased [Option ID = 83] 4. Serum Iron‐decreased & Iron binding Capacity‐Normal [Option ID = 84] 15) Match List I with List II. Match Carcinogenic factors with Histologic types. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 22] 1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ III [Option ID = 85] 2. A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ III, D ‐ II [Option ID = 86] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 87] 4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ I [Option ID = 88] 16) Commonest benign tumor of placenta is:‐ [Question ID = 23] 1. Adenoma [Option ID = 89] 2. Papilloma [Option ID = 90] 3. Chorioangioma [Option ID = 91] 4. Hamartoma [Option ID = 92] 17) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Chemical mediators of inflammation are derived from cells or plasma proteins. Statement II : Leukotrines LT C4, LT D4, LT E4 & Thromboxane A2 cause vasodilatation. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 24] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 93] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 94] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 95] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 96] 18) Apoptosis in isolated cell is:‐ [Question ID = 25] 1. Degeneration [Option ID = 97] 2. Activation [Option ID = 98] 3. Death [Option ID = 99] 4. Regeneration [Option ID = 100] 19) The dye used for production of Green tattoo is:‐ [Question ID = 26] 1. Chromic acid [Option ID = 101] 2. Indian ink [Option ID = 102] 3. Vermilion [Option ID = 103] 4. Cobalt [Option ID = 104] 20) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Adipocere is most commonly seen in bodies immersed in water or in a damp warm environment. Statement II : In adipocere, hydrogenation and hydrolysis of fats into higher fatty acids occur. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options below:‐ [Question ID = 27] 1. Both statement I and statement II are true [Option ID = 105] 2. Both statements I and statement II are false [Option ID = 106] 3. Statement I is correct but statement II is false [Option ID = 107] 4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true [Option ID = 108] 21) Match list I with list II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 28] 1. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 109] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I [Option ID = 110] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 111] 4. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II [Option ID = 112] 22) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A : Viscera should not be preserved in formaldehyde. Reason R: Extraction of nonvolatile organic poisons become difficult. In the light of above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 29] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 113] 2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 114] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 115] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 116] 23) "Quickening'' is felt by a primigravida by about:‐ [Question ID = 30] 1. 18th week [Option ID = 117] 2. 24th week [Option ID = 118] 3. 28th week [Option ID = 119] 4. 32nd week [Option ID = 120] 24) Arrange the series of movements in normal labour in correct order. A. Restitution B. External rotation C. Engagement D. Crowning E. Delivery of the head by extension Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 31] 1. C, D, E, A, B [Option ID = 121] 2. B, A, D, E, C [Option ID = 122] 3. D, E, A, C, B [Option ID = 123] 4. A, C, E, D, B [Option ID = 124] 25) 'Powder Burns' are pathognomonic of which one of the following condition? [Question ID = 33] 1. TB of genital tract [Option ID = 129] 2. Pelvic endometriosis [Option ID = 130] 3. Chronic PID [Option ID = 131] 4. Uterine fibroid [Option ID = 132] 26) High risk factors for placenta praevia are:‐ A. Primigravida B. Smoking C. Maternal age > 35 years D. Prior curettage E. African women Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 34] 1. A, B, E Only [Option ID = 133] 2. A, C, E Only [Option ID = 134] 3. D, C, E Only [Option ID = 135] 4. B, C, D Only [Option ID = 136] 27) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 35] 1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ III [Option ID = 137] 2. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I  [Option ID = 138] 3. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ II [Option ID = 139] 4. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III [Option ID = 140] 28) A 28 years old lady presents with second trimester miscarriage, commonest cause of the same may be:‐ [Question ID = 36] 1. Luteal phase defect [Option ID = 141] 2. Bicornuate uterus [Option ID = 142] 3. Monosomy X [Option ID = 143] 4. Autosomal trisomy [Option ID = 144] 29) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Triple test includes maternal serum Alpha feto protein, hCG and unconjugated estriol. Statement II : It is done between 30‐32 weeks of pregnancy. In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 37] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 145] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 146] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false [Option ID = 147] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true [Option ID = 148] 30) The parameters for APGAR scoring are:‐ A. Heart rate B. Colour C. Temperature D. Muscle tone E. Reflex irritability Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 38] 1. A, B, C, D Only [Option ID = 149] 2. B, D, E Only [Option ID = 150] 3. A, B, D, E Only [Option ID = 151] 4. B, C, E Only [Option ID = 152] 31) In a lady suspected to be suffering from genital TB, the best time to do diagnostic Uterine curettage is:‐ [Question ID = 39] 1. Day 2‐4 of menstrual cycle [Option ID = 153] 2. Day 8‐10 of menstrual cycle [Option ID = 154] 3. Day 14‐16 of menstrual cycle [Option ID = 155] 4. Day 21‐23 of menstrual cycle [Option ID = 156] 32) Which renal stones are characteristically radiolucent? [Question ID = 40] 1. Uric acid stones [Option ID = 157] 2. Oxalate stones [Option ID = 158] 3. Phosphate stones [Option ID = 159] 4. Cystine stones [Option ID = 160] 33) Among the following, which organism invades intact corneal epithelium? [Question ID = 41] 1. Streptococcus [Option ID = 161] 2. Staphylococcus [Option ID = 162] 3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae [Option ID = 163] 4. Pneumococcus [Option ID = 164] 34) Curling ulcer is:‐ [Question ID = 42] 1. Acute peptic ulcer which develops after major burns [Option ID = 165] 2. Acute peptic ulcer which develops after cerebral trauma [Option ID = 166] 3. Acute peptic ulcer which develops after use of NSAID [Option ID = 167] 4. Occurs due to Helicobacter pylori infection [Option ID = 168] 35) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A : Pain due to ureteric calculus is referred to the antero‐medial aspect of thigh. Reason R : Common innervation of lower ureter and inner side of the upper part of thigh is through Genitofemoral nerve. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 43] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 169] 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 170] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 171] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 172] 36) A 30 year old male presented with painless swelling in the right groin region. On examination, the swelling exhibits impulse on coughing and reducibility. The swelling doesn’t come out on coughing when the deep inguinal ring is occluded. The probable diagnosis is:‐ [Question ID = 44] 1. Direct inguinal hernia [Option ID = 173] 2. Indirect inguinal hernia [Option ID = 174] 3. Lumbar hernia [Option ID = 175] 4. Femoral hernia [Option ID = 176] 37) Consider the following statements regarding Rinne Test. A. Positive in case of normal hearing B. Positive in Sensorineural hearing loss C. Negative in conductive hearing loss D. Negative in otosclerosis E. Positive in Perforation of tympanic membrane Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 45] 1. A, B, C, D ONLY [Option ID = 177] 2. B, C, D, E ONLY [Option ID = 178] 3. A, B, D, E ONLY [Option ID = 179] 4. A, C, D, E ONLY [Option ID = 180] 38) A 25 year old cyclist was struck in a road accident and is brought to the hospital. On examination his perineum and scrotum are swollen and bruised, there is streak of blood at the external meatus and he is unable to pass urine. The patient most likely has:‐ [Question ID = 46] 1. Femoral neck fracture [Option ID = 181] 2. Femoral shaft fracture [Option ID = 182] 3. Femoral head fracture [Option ID = 183] 4. Pelvic fracture [Option ID = 184] 39) A 40 year old lady presented with colicky abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant of abdomen, radiating backwards to right shoulder blade. She gives history of food intolerance to fat and flatulence. The most probable diagnosis is:‐ [Question ID = 47] 1. Right lower lobe pneumonia [Option ID = 185] 2. Pancreatitis [Option ID = 186] 3. Liver abscess [Option ID = 187] 4. Biliary colic [Option ID = 188] 40) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Basal cell carcinoma arise from the basal layer of Rete Malpighii of the skin. Statement II : Basal cell carcinoma spreads rapidly through lymphatics and blood vessels. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 48] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 189] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 190] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 191] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 192] 41) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A : Diarrhoea is a feature in 30% of patients with Medullary carcinoma of thyroid. Reason R : In medullary carcinoma of thyroid, the tumour cells produce 5‐Hydroxytryptamine or prostaglandin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 49] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 193] 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 194] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 195] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 196] 42) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular tumour of childhood. Statement II : Retinoblastoma gene has been identified as 14 band on the long arm of chromosome 10. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 50] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 197] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 198] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 199] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 200] 43) A 60 year old male with a history of myocardial infarction presented with sudden onset pain in the right leg. On examination, the leg is cold to touch, peripheral leg pulsations are absent and he can’t raise his legs. The most probable diagnosis is:‐ [Question ID = 51] 1. Varicose Veins [Option ID = 201] 2. Deep vein thrombosis [Option ID = 202] 3. Arterial occlusion [Option ID = 203] 4. Sciatica [Option ID = 204] 44) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A : Verification of the diagnosis is the first step in an epidemic investigation. Reason R : The epidemiologic investigation should be delayed till the laboratory results are available. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 52] 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 205] 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 206] 3. A is correct but R is not correct [Option ID = 207] 4. A is not correct but R is correct [Option ID = 208] 45) Home based Pregnancy test kits (PTKs) was labeled under NRHM by the name of:‐ [Question ID = 53] 1. NIRBHAY [Option ID = 209] 2. NIKSHAY [Option ID = 210] 3. CHHAYA [Option ID = 211] 4. NISCHAY [Option ID = 212] 46) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 54] 1. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ III [Option ID = 213] 2. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 214] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 215] 4. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 216] 47) Consider the following statements: Statement I : In standard normal curve, the total area of curve is 100. Statement II : In standard normal curve, the mean, median and mode all coincide. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 55] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 217] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect  [Option ID = 218] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 219] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 220] 48) Consider the following statements. A. Epstein Barr virus is associated with Burkitt’s Lymphoma B. Epstein Barr virus is associated with Nasophyarngeal carcinoma C. Mongols are more likely to develop Leukemia than normal children. D. Thermography is more sensitive technique of Breast cancer screening than Mammography Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 56] 1. B, C & D only [Option ID = 221] 2. A, B & D only [Option ID = 222] 3. A, B & C only [Option ID = 223] 4. A, C & D only [Option ID = 224] 49) Which among the following vaccine is least sensitive to heat? [Question ID = 57] 1. Oral polio vaccine [Option ID = 225] 2. Influenza [Option ID = 226] 3. Hepatitis B [Option ID = 227] 4. Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) [Option ID = 228] 50) Wilson’s disease can be described as:‐ [Question ID = 58] 1. Autosomal recessive [Option ID = 229] 2. Autosomal dominant [Option ID = 230] 3. X ‐ linked [Option ID = 231] 4. Trisomy of 18th chromosome [Option ID = 232] 51) The mode of transmission of causative agent of typhoid fever is:‐ [Question ID = 59] 1. Air borne [Option ID = 233] 2. Blood borne [Option ID = 234] 3. Fecal‐oral route [Option ID = 235] 4. Droplet [Option ID = 236] 52) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 60] 1. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 237] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 238] 3. A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ III [Option ID = 239] 4. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 240] 53) A 12 lead electrocardiogram showed normal atrio‐ventricular ratio and abnormally long P‐R interval. The most likely diagnosis is:‐ [Question ID = 61] 1. First‐ degree AV Block [Option ID = 241] 2. Second‐degree AV Block (Type I) [Option ID = 242] 3. Second‐degree AV Block (Type II) [Option ID = 243] 4. Third‐degree AV Block [Option ID = 244] 54) The most likely cause of isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in the absence of hemolysis in an otherwise healthy patient is:‐ [Question ID = 62] 1. Gilbert’s syndrome [Option ID = 245] 2. Crigler – Najjar syndrome type I [Option ID = 246] 3. Crigler – Najjar syndrome type II [Option ID = 247] 4. Dubin – Johnson syndrome [Option ID = 248] 55) Dyspnea accompanied by cough with production of thick brownish plugs of mucus is typically found in:‐ [Question ID = 63] 1. Chronic Bronchitis [Option ID = 249] 2. Bronchial Asthma [Option ID = 250] 3. Pneumococcal Pneumonia [Option ID = 251] 4. Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis [Option ID = 252] 56) A 65 years old male with history of exertional dyspnea and chest pain developed syncope while walking. Examination revealed a slow rising, low volume carotid pulse and an ejection mid‐systolic murmur. The most likely diagnosis is:‐ [Question ID = 64] 1. Mitral stenosis [Option ID = 253] 2. Mitral regurgitation [Option ID = 254] 3. Aortic stenosis [Option ID = 255] 4. Aortic regurgitation [Option ID = 256] 57) Which of the following statements are true for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease? A. Changes in large airways cause cough and sputum. B. Mucus gland enlargement and goblet cell hyperplasia cause airflow limitation. C. Major site of increased resistance is in airways ≤ 2mm diameter. D. Centriacinar emphysema is frequently associated with cigarette smoking. Choose the correct answer from the options below:‐ [Question ID = 65] 1. A, C, D only [Option ID = 257] 2. A, B, D only [Option ID = 258] 3. B, C, D only [Option ID = 259] 4. A, B, C only [Option ID = 260] 58) In Chronic Hepatitis B, the serological marker which correlates with level of liver injury and risk of disease progression is:‐ [Question ID = 66] 1. HBeAg [Option ID = 261] 2. HBV DNA [Option ID = 262] 3. HBcAg [Option ID = 263] 4. HbsAg [Option ID = 264] 59) Stroke manifesting with pure sensory symptoms results from infarction of:‐ [Question ID = 67] 1. Posterior limb of internal capsule [Option ID = 265] 2. Ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus [Option ID = 266] 3. Ventral pons [Option ID = 267] 4. Genu of internal capsule [Option ID = 268] 60) Thought broadcasting is known to be an important feature of:‐ [Question ID = 68] 1. Anxiety disorder [Option ID = 269] 2. Alcoholism [Option ID = 270] 3. Alzheimer’s disease [Option ID = 271] 4. Schizophrenia [Option ID = 272] 61) A middle aged female presented with intermittent pain and swelling in finger joints and photosensitive rash on face. Detection of which autoantibody is most important for diagnosis in above case:‐ [Question ID = 69] 1. Anti‐Sm antibodies [Option ID = 273] 2. Anti‐Ro antibodies [Option ID = 274] 3. Anti‐nuclear antibodies [Option ID = 275] 4. Anti‐c1q antibodies [Option ID = 276] 62) Which of the following statements regarding Bronchial asthma are correct? A. Peak incidence of asthma is in childhood. B. Lower levels of infection in early childhood increases the risk for asthma. C. Allergic reaction to food leads to increased asthma symptoms D. Exercise is a common trigger of asthma in children. E. The most common allergen to trigger asthma are pollens. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 70] 1. A, B & D only [Option ID = 277] 2. A, B & C only [Option ID = 278] 3. B, C & D only [Option ID = 279] 4. B, C & E only [Option ID = 280] 63) The most widely used test for diagnosis of stable angina pectoris is:‐ [Question ID = 71] 1. 12‐lead ECG at rest [Option ID = 281] 2. Exercise ECG [Option ID = 282] 3. Chest X‐ray [Option ID = 283] 4. Coronary Arteriography [Option ID = 284] 64) The CSF analysis of patient revealed WBC count more than 1000 per microliter. The most likely cause is:‐ [Question ID = 72] 1. Viral meningitis [Option ID = 285] 2. Fungal meningitis [Option ID = 286] 3. Bacterial meningitis [Option ID = 287] 4. Tuberculous meningitis [Option ID = 288] 65) A middle aged female presented with persistent productive cough with production of thick, tenacious sputum. Examination revealed wheezing on lung auscultation and clubbing of fingers. Her chest x‐ray shows ‘tram tracks” sign. The most likely diagnosis is:‐ [Question ID = 73] 1. Chronic bronchitis [Option ID = 289] 2. Bronchiectasis [Option ID = 290] 3. Bronchial asthma  [Option ID = 291] 4. Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis [Option ID = 292] 66) Acute cerebral or Basilar Meningitis, with threatened effusion, nocturnal hallucination; wakes from sleep frightened, screaming; when Apis, Helleborus or Sulphur, though well selected, fail to improve, is a symptom of:‐ [Question ID = 74] 1. Tuberculinum [Option ID = 293] 2. Natrum Sulph [Option ID = 294] 3. Kali Brom [Option ID = 295] 4. Zincum Met [Option ID = 296] 67) A man aged 40 years came to OPD complaining of headache, vertigo with a sense of stupefaction because of which he was unable to think or perform any mental labour and the headache was apt to be worse on exposure to the sun rays or under gas light. The patient was greatly depressed in spirits; wholly occupied with sad thoughts. Suggest the remedy from following option:‐ [Question ID = 75] 1. Mag. carb. [Option ID = 297] 2. Glonoine [Option ID = 298] 3. Natrum carb. [Option ID = 299] 4. Lac can. [Option ID = 300] 68) Children pale, rachitic, dwarfed and stunted in growth; mentally dull and weak is found in:‐ [Question ID = 76] 1. Tuberculinum [Option ID = 301] 2. Medorrhinum [Option ID = 302] 3. Syphilinum [Option ID = 303] 4. Psorinum [Option ID = 304] 69) According to J.T. Kent, the antidote for the poisonous effects of the sting of the honey bee, in persons who are sensitive to it, is:‐ [Question ID = 77] 1. Argentum met [Option ID = 305] 2. Carbolic acid [Option ID = 306] 3. Apis mel [Option ID = 307] 4. Ledum pal [Option ID = 308] 70) Which of the following is the vegetable analogue of Magnesia Phos.? [Question ID = 78] 1. Chamomilla [Option ID = 309] 2. Colocynth [Option ID = 310] 3. Conium mac. [Option ID = 311] 4. Ferrum met. [Option ID = 312] 71) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Spigelia is a good remedy for symptoms due to the presence of worms. Reason R : Neuralgia of fifth nerve is very prominent in its effects. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 79] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 313] 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 314] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 315] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 316] 72) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 80] 1. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 317] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II [Option ID = 318] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 319] 4. A ‐ I, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 320] 73) Vomiting in any position except lying on right side, followed by drowsiness and prostration is a symptom of:‐ [Question ID = 81] 1. Ipecac [Option ID = 321] 2. Ars.alb [Option ID = 322] 3. Antim tart [Option ID = 323] 4. Colchicum [Option ID = 324] 74) Headache begins in the occiput and extends over head. Headache of schoolgirls < 10‐11am or 4 to 5 pm. The indicated remedy is:‐ [Question ID = 82] 1. Magnesia phos [Option ID = 325] 2. Calcarea phos [Option ID = 326] 3. Natrum mur [Option ID = 327] 4. Sanicula [Option ID = 328] 75) Loose cough with badly smelling sputa; the breath and sputa smell badly to the patient himself is characteristic feature of:‐ [Question ID = 83] 1. Kreosotum [Option ID = 329] 2. Sanguinaria canadensis [Option ID = 330] 3. Causticum [Option ID = 331] 4. Psorinum [Option ID = 332] 76) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 84] 1. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 333] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 334] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ II [Option ID = 335] 4. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 336] 77) This remedy is a cardiac stimulant affecting the peripheral vessels and coronary arteries:‐ [Question ID = 85] 1. Aurum met [Option ID = 337] 2. Squilla [Option ID = 338] 3. Phosphorus [Option ID = 339] 4. Lachesis [Option ID = 340] 78) Crops of small boils, intensely painful, successively appear in the nose; green foetid pus is the symptom of:‐ [Question ID = 86] 1. ARNICA MONTANA [Option ID = 341] 2. TUBERCULINUM [Option ID = 342] 3. BELLADONNA [Option ID = 343] 4. HEPAR SULPH [Option ID = 344] 79) “Painless haematuria; blood thoroughly mixed with urine; sediment, like coffee grounds; cloudy, smoky, albuminous; profuse, dark or black” is the symptom of:‐ [Question ID = 87] 1. COLCHICUM [Option ID = 345] 2. APIS MEL [Option ID = 346] 3. CANTHARIS [Option ID = 347] 4. TEREBINTH [Option ID = 348] 80) According to “Lectures on Materia Medica” by J. T.Kent on Aconitum nap. A. Aconite is a short acting remedy B. Aconite is suited to the complaints that come on suddenly from the very cold weather of winter, or from the intensely hot weather of summer. C. Aconite belongs to RUBIACEAE family D. Aconite is one of the best remedies for retention of urine in the newborn. E. In Aconite everything tastes bitter, except water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 88] 1. A, C, D, E only [Option ID = 349] 2. A, B, C, D only [Option ID = 350] 3. A, B, D, E only [Option ID = 351] 4. B, C, D, E only [Option ID = 352] 81) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 89] 1. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 353] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 354] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 355] 4. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 356] 82) The apparent symptoms caused by excess of appropriate homoeopathic remedy, during the administration of Fifty millesimal scale of potencies, are known as:‐ [Question ID = 90] 1. Pathological Generals [Option ID = 357] 2. Keynotes [Option ID = 358] 3. Schein Symptome [Option ID = 359] 4. Alternating symptoms [Option ID = 360] 83) According to Hahnemann, ‘so called Local maladies’ belong to class of:‐ [Question ID = 91] 1. Indisposition [Option ID = 361] 2. Animal magnetism [Option ID = 362] 3. Internal one‐sided diseases [Option ID = 363] 4. External one‐sided diseases [Option ID = 364] 84) A patient suffering from acute viral rhinitis responds to indicated homoeopathic remedy with no aggravation whatever. This corresponds to which of the following Kent’s observation:‐ [Question ID = 92] 1. First [Option ID = 365] 2. Fourth [Option ID = 366] 3. Ninth [Option ID = 367] 4. Tenth [Option ID = 368] 85) Administration of analgesic in a patient suffering from pain in abdomen with vomiting, vertigo and dyspnea is an example of:‐ [Question ID = 93] 1. Symptomatic treatment [Option ID = 369] 2. Totality of symptom [Option ID = 370] 3. Mesmerism [Option ID = 371] 4. Psychical remedy [Option ID = 372] 86) A child complains of colicky pain in abdomen better by lying on abdomen, with sour smelling stool. He wants constant attention and must be rocked or carried. The predominant miasm is:‐ [Question ID = 94] 1. Psora [Option ID = 373] 2. Sycosis [Option ID = 374] 3. Syphilis [Option ID = 375] 4. Tubercular [Option ID = 376] 87) Vis medicatrix refers to:‐ [Question ID = 95] 1. Inappropriately named chronic disease [Option ID = 377] 2. Acute individual disease [Option ID = 378] 3. Homoeopathic aggravation [Option ID = 379] 4. Nature’s self‐help in diseases [Option ID = 380] 88) Which of the following is feature of Second edition of Organon of Medicine? [Question ID = 96] 1. Published in 1810 [Option ID = 381] 2. Contained 291 aphorisms [Option ID = 382] 3. Was translated in English by William Boericke [Option ID = 383] 4. Latin words ‘Aude sapere’ were introduced [Option ID = 384] 89) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The best provings of pure effects of simple medicines are those which healthy, unprejudiced and sensitive physician institutes on himself with all caution. Reason R : Stimulating drinks, spices and herb soups should be given regularly to prover during drug proving. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 97] 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 385] 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 386] 3. A is correct but R is not correct [Option ID = 387] 4. A is not correct but R is correct [Option ID = 388] 90) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Hahnemann administered small dose of Aconite as Genus epidemicus in epidemic of smooth scarlatina in Konigslutter in 1801. Reason R : Hahnemann has given directions for investigating the totality of symptoms of Epidemic diseases in Organon of Medicine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 98] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 389] 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 390] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 391] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 392] 91) Given below are two statements. Statement I : The symptoms appearing during apyretic interval of Intermittent fever must be chief guide for the selection of most appropriate homoeopathic remedy. Statement II : A patient suffering from intermittent fever should be administered appropriate homoeopathic remedy in the beginning of paroxysm. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 99] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 393] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 394] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 395] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 396] 92) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Alternating action of medicine is the alternating state of various paroxysms of its Primary action. Statement II : Homoeopathic cure takes place during alternating action of medicine. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 100] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 397] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 398] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false [Option ID = 399] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true [Option ID = 400] 93) Consider the following statements regarding Magnets and Mesmerism. A. Hahnemann never recommended power of magnet for healing purposes. B. According to Hahnemann, too violent action of magnets can be antidoted by application of plate of polished zinc. C. Mesmerism is performed by massaging hands and feet of the patient D. Negative mesmerism can be used to rouse patient from somnambulic sleep Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 101] 1. A & C Only [Option ID = 401] 2. B & C only [Option ID = 402] 3. B & D Only [Option ID = 403] 4. A & D Only [Option ID = 404] 94) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 102] 1. A ‐ IV, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ II [Option ID = 405] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 406] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I [Option ID = 407] 4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ III, D ‐ II [Option ID = 408] 95) In which of the following aphorism, Hahnemann mentioned about the indiscriminate use of high potencies that bring about dangerous consequences? [Question ID = 103] 1. Aph. 275 [Option ID = 409] 2. Aph. 276 [Option ID = 410] 3. Aph. 277 [Option ID = 411] 4. Aph. 278 [Option ID = 412] 96) In case of proving of narcotic substances, the symptoms are observed during which action of medicine? [Question ID = 104] 1. Primary [Option ID = 413] 2. Secondary [Option ID = 414] 3. Concordance [Option ID = 415] 4. Alternating [Option ID = 416] 97) Given below are two statements. Statement I : Hahnemann’s masterly work “Chronic Disease : Their peculiar nature & Their homoepathic cure” describes the nature & cause of Chronic diseases along with their homoeopathic treatment. Statement II : In the chronic diseases, Hahnemann stresses upon the use of antimiasmatic remedies & the maxim "cessante causa, cessant effectus”. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 105] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [Option ID = 417] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 418] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 419] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct [Option ID = 420] 98) In which chapter of the Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book, “Insanity” is mentioned? [Question ID = 106] 1. Mind [Option ID = 421] 2. Intellect [Option ID = 422] 3. Sensation [Option ID = 423] 4. Aggravation [Option ID = 424] 99) “Pyromania” is mentioned in which repertory:‐ [Question ID = 107] 1. Kent’s repertory [Option ID = 425] 2. Boger Boenninghausen Characteristics & repertory [Option ID = 426] 3. Therapeutic pocket Book [Option ID = 427] 4. Boericke repertory [Option ID = 428] 100) Which of the following cross reference is given for the rubric “Absent minded” in Kent’s repertory? [Question ID = 108] 1. Memory weakness of [Option ID = 429] 2. Forgetful [Option ID = 430] 3. Answers slowly [Option ID = 431] 4. Abstraction of mind [Option ID = 432] 101) First English repertory was published in Allentown by:‐ [Question ID = 109] 1. A. Lippe [Option ID = 433] 2. C.Lippe [Option ID = 434] 3. T F Allen [Option ID = 435] 4. C. Hering [Option ID = 436] 102) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A : Different kinds of sensations or pain, if noticed at many parts, can be taken as “General”. Reason R : All the rubrics mentioned in “Sensations & Complaints in General” in BBCR are not ''Pathological General''. In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 110] 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 437] 2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 438] 3. A is correct but R is not correct [Option ID = 439] 4. A is not correct but R is correct [Option ID = 440] 103) Given below are two statements. Statement I : 'Awkwardness' is mentioned in 'Extremities' section of Kent’s Repertory. Statement II : 'Awkwardness' is mentioned in 'Mind' section of BBCR. In the light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 111] 1. Both statement I and statement II are correct [Option ID = 441] 2. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect [Option ID = 442] 3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect [Option ID = 443] 4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct [Option ID = 444] 104) 'Sucking the thumb’ is mentioned in which chapter of Boger Boenninghausen's Characteristics and Repertory? [Question ID = 112] 1. Mouth [Option ID = 445] 2. Sensorium [Option ID = 446] 3. Upper Extremities [Option ID = 447] 4. Mind [Option ID = 448] 105) The only remedy mentioned in Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book for Aggravation from Lemonade is:‐ [Question ID = 113] 1. Belladonna [Option ID = 449] 2. Hepar sulph. [Option ID = 450] 3. Selenium [Option ID = 451] 4. Antim crud [Option ID = 452] 106) How many gradation of medicine is given in 'The Homoeopathic Therapeutics of Diarrhoea' by James Bell? [Question ID = 114] 1. One [Option ID = 453] 2. Two [Option ID = 454] 3. Three [Option ID = 455] 4. Four [Option ID = 456] 107) How will you arrange the rubric for Sciatica pain which is aggravated in the morning according to Kent’s repertory? A. Sciatica B. Extremities C. Lower limbs D. Pain E. Morning Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 115] 1. C‐B‐D‐A‐E [Option ID = 457] 2. B‐C‐D‐A‐E [Option ID = 458] 3. B‐C‐D‐E‐A [Option ID = 459] 4. B‐D‐C‐A‐E [Option ID = 460] 108) Match List I (Rubric) with List II (Chapter) from Kent’s Repertory. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 116] 1. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 461] 2. A ‐ I, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 462] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV [Option ID = 463] 4. A ‐ II , B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ III [Option ID = 464] 109) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 117] 1. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 465] 2. A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ I, D ‐ III [Option ID = 466] 3. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 467] 4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III [Option ID = 468] 110) Which of the following chapter in Kent’s repertory does not start with the rubric ‘Daytime’? [Question ID = 118] 1. Cough [Option ID = 469] 2. Expectoration [Option ID = 470] 3. Respiration [Option ID = 471] 4. Generality [Option ID = 472] 111) The Concordance Repertory of the Materia Medica by William D Gentry was published in which year? [Question ID = 119] 1. 1879 [Option ID = 473] 2. 1881 [Option ID = 474] 3. 1890 [Option ID = 475] 4. 1896 [Option ID = 476] 112) Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. Assertion A : Symptoms which are expected to be present in a case but remain absent are called Negative symptoms. Reason R : Long standing symptoms, which the patient think are part and parcel of their normal functioning, are known as Accidental symptoms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 120] 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 477] 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A [Option ID = 478] 3. A is true but R is false [Option ID = 479] 4. A is false but R is true [Option ID = 480] 113) The only remedy in rubric “Shrieking, screams, cries out, paroxysmal’ in Boger Boenninghausen Characteristics and Repertory is:‐ [Question ID = 121] 1. Natrum mur [Option ID = 481] 2. Stramonium [Option ID = 482] 3. Ignatia [Option ID = 483] 4. Apis mell [Option ID = 484] 114) Who authored the first Homoeopathic Pharmacopoea? [Question ID = 122] 1. Dr. C. Hering [Option ID = 485] 2. Dr. C. Caspari [Option ID = 486] 3. Dr. H. C. Allen [Option ID = 487] 4. Dr. J. H Clarke [Option ID = 488] 115) Drug power of Moschus, according to the new method of preparation of homoeopathic medicine is:‐ [Question ID = 123] 1. 1/10 [Option ID = 489] 2. 1/20 [Option ID = 490] 3. 1/60 [Option ID = 491] 4. 1/100 [Option ID = 492] 116) Which class of nosodes are prepared from microorganism, viruses, clinical material from human convalescence or diseased subjects? [Question ID = 124] 1. N‐I [Option ID = 493] 2. N‐II [Option ID = 494] 3. N‐III [Option ID = 495] 4. N‐IV [Option ID = 496] 117) Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 125] 1. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I [Option ID = 497] 2. A ‐ III, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ I [Option ID = 498] 3. A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II [Option ID = 499] 4. A ‐ IV, B ‐ I, C ‐ II, D ‐ III [Option ID = 500] 118) Arrange the following oils according to their descending saponification value. A. Lanolin B. Olive oil C. Almond oil D. Coconut oil Choose the correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 126] 1. A, B, C, D [Option ID = 501] 2. B, A, D, C [Option ID = 502] 3. C, D, A, B [Option ID = 503] 4. D, B, C, A [Option ID = 504] 119) Statement I : An ideal prescription consist of four parts, i.e superscription, inscription, subscription and signature. Statement II : Signature part of prescription gives direction to be given to the patient regarding the administration of the drug. In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:‐ [Question ID = 127] 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true [Option ID = 505] 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false [Option ID = 506] 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false [Option ID = 507] 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true [Option ID = 508] 120) Match the List I with List II : List I List II A. Kallmann syndrome I. Pituitary destruction by ischemia B. Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome II. Low or absent GnRH C. Sheehan’s syndrome III. Uterine synechiae D. Ashermann syndrome IV. Absence of uterus Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [Question ID = 616] 1. A ­ III, B ­ IV, C ­ I, D ­ II [Option ID = 2461] 2. A ­ II, B ­ IV, C ­ I, D ­ III [Option ID = 2462] 3. A ­ II, B ­ III, C ­ I, D ­ IV [Option ID = 2463] 4. A ­ II, B ­ III, C ­ IV, D ­ I [Option ID = 2464]