Anganwadi Supervisor Recruitment Nutrition and Health PDF
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This document covers nutrition and health topics. Questions are included to test the reader's understanding of different foods, vitamins, and minerals.
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Anganwadi Supervisor Recruitment Nutrition and Health Nutrition and Health 1. A substance needed by the body for growth, energy, repair and maintenance is called a _______________. A: nutrient B: carbohydrate C: calorie D: fatty acid Ans: A 2. All of the following ar...
Anganwadi Supervisor Recruitment Nutrition and Health Nutrition and Health 1. A substance needed by the body for growth, energy, repair and maintenance is called a _______________. A: nutrient B: carbohydrate C: calorie D: fatty acid Ans: A 2. All of the following are nutrients found in food except _____. A: plasma B: proteins C: carbohydrates D: vitamins Ans: A 3. A diet high in saturated fats can be linked to which of the following? A: kidney failure B: bulimia C: anorexia D: cardiovascular disease Ans: D 4. Amylases in saliva begin the breakdown of carbohydrates into __________. A: fatty acids B: polypeptides C: amino acids D: simple sugars Ans: D 5. Your body needs vitamins and minerals because ___________. A: they give the body energy B: they help carry out metabolic reactions C: they insulate the body’s organs D: they withdraw heat from the body Ans: B 6. Food passes through the stomach directly by _________. A: the large intestine B: the small intestine C: the heart D: the pancreas Ans: B 7. About half of your diet should be made up of __________. A: grains and vegetables B: fruits and milk C: milk and cheese D: fats and sugars Ans: A 8. A mineral that the body needs to work properly is _____________. A: calcium B: silver C: gold D: lead Ans: A 9. According to the MyPyramind food guidance system, a person should obtain most of their fat from ____________. A: beef, chicken, and fish B: vegetables oils, nuts, and fish C: fats, oils, and sweets D: milk, yogurt, and cheese Ans: B 10. A(n) ___________ is a unit of energy that indicates the amount of energy contained in food. A: label B: food guide pyramid C: calorie D: basket Ans: C 11. This food group is our body’s best source of energy? A. Meat Group B. fats,oils and sweets C. breads and cereals D. milk and cheese Ans: C 12. Which of these is NOT considered a nutrient? A. vitamins B. minerals C. fiber D. fats Ans: C 13. Which of these is added to the food label because people sometimes don’t eat ENOUGH of this? A. fat B. calcium C. sodium D. cholesterol Ans: B 14. Which of these is required on the food label? A. total carbohydrate B. sugars C. iron D. all of the above Ans: D 15. The bread, cereal, rice and pasta group is a good source of _______? A. carbohydrate B. vitamin C C. calcium D. vitamin D Ans: A 16. Citrus fruits are an excellent source of _______? A. calcium B. vitamin c C. vitamin B D. calories Ans: B 17. Foods from the meat, poultry, fish dry beans, eggs and nuts group are an important source of ________? A. iron B. fiber C. beta carotene D. calcium Ans: A 18. Which food contains the most fat? A. graham crackers B. brownies C. pudding D. angel food cake Ans: B 19. The milk, cheese & yogurt group are important for ________? A. strong bones B. teeth C. muscles D. all of the above Ans: D 20. How many servings of vegetables do we need each day? A. 611 B. 23 C. 35 D. 12 Ans: C 21. Which of the following nutrients is needed to build and maintain the structural components of the body? A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fat D. Fiber Ans: B 22. Which of the following nutrients is known as the sunshine vitamin? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin D Ans: D 23. All of the following are needed for strong bones except: A. Thiamin B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Vitamin D Ans: A 24. Which of these nutrients is the preferred energy source for the body? A. B Complex Vitamins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Fiber Ans: B 25. This nutrient is needed for a healthy immune system and strong connective tissue: A. Fiber B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin C D. Fluoride Ans: C 26. Which of the following is the best source for omega3 fatty acids? A. Corn oil B. Wheat products C. Pork D. Sardines Ans: D 27. This mineral is essential for healthy red blood cells and a deficiency might cause anemia. A. Iron B. Magnesium C. Iodine D. Chromium Ans: A 28. This vitamin is needed to prevent a birth defect called Spina Bifida A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A C. Folate D. Vitamin E Ans: C 29. This nutrient is needed for making hormones, healthier skin, and to make cell membranes: A. Fat B. Carbohydrate C. Fiber D. Vitamin B12 Ans: A 30. This nutrient is most important for healthy vision: A. Vitamin K B. Iron C. Calcium D. Vitamin A Ans: D 31. The United States Department of Agriculture’s Daily Food Guide suggests that the Fats, Oils and Sweets Group be used ___. A. once a week B. four times a day C. never on Sundays D. sparingly E. every Tuesday Ans: D 32. The United States Department of Agriculture’s Daily Food Guide calls for eating ___ servings of the Bread, Cereal, Rice and Pasta Group. A. 13 B. 45 C. 611 D. 1215 E. 1620 Ans: C 33. The United States Department of Agriculture’s Daily Food Guide calls for eating ___ servings of the Milk, Yogurt, and Cheese Group. A. 01 B. 23 C. 34 D. 56 E. 67 Ans: B 34. The United States Department of Agriculture’s Daily Food Guide calls for eating ___ servings of the Fruit Group every day. A. 01 B. 24 C. 45 D. 56 E. 67 Ans: B 35. Which of the following beverages has no fat, sugar, or oils? A. milk B. root beer C. coffee with cream D. iced tea unsweetened E. lemonade Ans: D 36. What food doesn’t belong to this food group? A. noodles B. crackers C. scallion D. macaroni E. cous cous Ans: C 37. What food doesn’t belong to this food group? A. cookies B. candy C. sald dressing D. cherries E. butter Ans: D 38. What food doesn’t belong to this food group? A. chocolate milk B. cream cheese C. ice cream D. salad dressing E. yogurt Ans: D 39. _________is an example of a hydrogenated fat. A. Butter B. Margarine C. Olive oil Ans: B 40. If you order hot oatmeal in a restaurant it may taste flat because A. no sugar was added. B. no salt was added. C. it was cooked in a microwave. Ans: B 41. Fruits and vegetables are usually considered as good sources of A. protein. B. vitamins & minerals. C. unsaturated fats. Ans: B Q.1) If ‘P’ means ‘×’, ‘Q’ means ‘÷’ T means of and ‘V’ means +, then what will be the value of 85 Q 17 P 3 V 1 T 4 = ? (1) 62 (2) 31 (3) 17 (4) 19 (5) None of these Q.2) Early morning after sunrise, Rajesh was standing infront of his house in such a way that his shadow was falling exactly behind him. He starts walking straight and walks 5 metres. He turns to his left and walks 3 metres and again turning to his left walks 2 metres. Now in which direction is he from his starting point? (1) South (2) West (3) South-East (4) North-East (5) South-West Q.3) In a class of 39 students the ratio of boys and girls is 2 : 1. Radhika ranks 15th among all the students from top and 8th among girls from bottom. How many boys are there below Radhika? (1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Q.4) In a certain code language AUTHORITY is written as YTUROHTIA. How will DESIGNATE be written in that code language? (1) ESENGATDI (2) ESEGNITAD (3) ESENGITAD (4) ESNEIGTDA (5) None of these Directions (5-7) : Read the following letter-number sequence carefully and answer the question given below: 73PN4 263 1MLBT45 GACD FJ K1 982 Q.5) If the first fifteen elements of the above sequence is written in the reverse order which of the following elements will be sixth to the left of twelfth element from your right? (1) J (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) None of these Q.6) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) GDK (2) 7N6 (3) B5C (4) AF9 (5) TGD Q.7) If we interchange the first and the seventh elements, the second and the eighth elements and so on upto 2 and B from your left, which of the following will be twelfth to left of eighth element from your right? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 2 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Q.8) If it is possible to make a meaningful word with second, the third, the sixth and the ninth letters of the word PSYCHOMETRIC using each letter only once, what will be the first letter of the word can be formed. If more than one word can be formed mark M as your answer and if no such word can be formed mark X as your answer. (1) X (2) M (3) R (4) T (5) S Q.9) If ‘M S N’ means ‘M is the father of N’, ‘M ≠ N’ means ‘M is the sister of N’ and ‘M * N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’ then what is the relation of C with A in A # B $ C * D? (1) Niece (2) Nephew (3) Aunt (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Q.10) How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPRESSION which have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet? (1) Four (2) Five (3) Three (4) Two (5) None of these Directions (11-13) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: (i) There are five buildings – A, B, C, D and E in a row facing towards East but not necessarily in the same order. Five other buildings – P, Q, R and T are in another row facing towards West. The buildings in each row are arranged infront of one another. (ii) B is at one of the end. There is only C between B and D. A is to the immediate left of D. (iii) R is just opposite to C and is between P and Q. S is to the immediate right of P. Q.11) Which of the following pairs is at both the ends in any of the two rows? (1) B and A (2) Q and S (3) P and T (4) B and E (5) None of these Q.12) A is in front of which of the following buildings? (1) S (2) P (3) T (4) Q (5) R Q.13) Which of the following buildings? (1) S (2) R (3) T (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Q.14) “Some stones are rocks” and “Some rocks are clouds”. If both the statements are true, then which of the following statements is DEFINITELY TRUE? (1) Some clouds are stones (2) All clouds are rocks (3) No rock is stone (4) All clouds are stones (5) None of that Q.15) It is given that M is either greater than or equal to P. P is smaller than Q and Q is not greater than R. Which of the following is DEFINITELY TRUE? (1) M is either greater than or equal to R. (2) M is either greater than or equal to Q. (3) R is greater than P. (4) R is either greater than or equal to P. (5) None of these Q.16) The students of a class are divided into two groups-A and B. If Sangita is included in the group A then her rank is 7th from the top and if she in included in the group B, her rank is 13th from the top. If the students of both groups are brought together, what will be the rank of Sangita? (1) 20 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Q.17) In a certain code language “Jo re ka” means “sweet nice sugar”, “la fi de” means “tasty sour lemon”, “fi ka tip” means “sugar and lemon” and “la re” means “nice tasty”. How will “sweet and sour” be written in that code language? (1) Data inadequate (2) jo re ka (3) la re ka (4) la re tip (5) None of these Directions (18-20) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Five flats – A, B, C, D, E. which are at equi-distance, are arranged in a semi-circle but not necessarily in the same order. The middle falt B faces towards North-East and is immediate right to D while C is to the immediate right of B. Q.18) D faces which direction? (1) North (2) North-East (3) East (4) West (5) North-west Q.19) Which of the following two flats are at both the ends? (1) A and D (2) C and D (3) B and E (4) A and E (5) Data inadequate Q.20) What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following letter series? ADG CFI ? QJM (1) EGJ (2) EHK (3) DFI (4) DCH (5) None of these Directions (21-23) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In order or organize a competition, 26 students were divided into four groups a, b, c and d. AB CD EFGH IJ KLM cabdcacdbabcd NOPQRSTUVWXYZ adacbdabcadda Q.21) If such groups are formed by selecting one students from each group, then how many such groups are possible? (1) Seven (2) Six (3) Four (4) Five (5) None of these Q.22) If one students from each group is selected for inter-school competition, then which of the following groups is possible? (1) Seven (2) Six (3) Four (4) Five (5) None of these Q.23) Four of the following fives are alike in certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? (1) BHF (2) LDJ (3) OKG (4) ZTY (5) JEN Directions (24-25) : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? Q.24) 52 × 87 – 5000 = ? (1) 4000 (2) 4124 (3) 3924 (4) 4024 (5) None of these Q.25) 2.56 ×(13)2 = ? (1) 270.4 (2) 432.64 (3) 26.14 (4) 208.00 (5) None of these ANSWERS 1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (5) 14. (5) 15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (5) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (4) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (5) Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper Jan 16, 2009 | Sample Question Papers Almost exams like Bank PO, Clerical, CDS, NDA, B. Ed., ETT comprise of questions from Reasoning (also known as Mental Ability or Aptitude). Here we provide a set of fifty Solved Sample Questions. The first forty Questions are from verbal reasoning and last ten from non-verbal reasoning. 1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code? (1) %4$# (2) $3%# (3) $64% (4) %3$# (5) None of these 2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ‘She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother's daughter'. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita? (1) Sister (2) Niece/ daughter (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) Pineapple (2) Guava (3) Grapes (4) Papaya (5) Pear 5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end? (1) S (2) B (3) A (4) K (5) None of these 6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code? (1) DIBJS (2) SBJID (3) SHBGD (4) SJBID (5) None of these 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) FH (2) KM (3) PR (4) CE (5) JM 8. If ‘ P Q' means ‘P is wife of Q', ‘P+Q' means ‘P is father of Q' and ‘P Q' means ‘P is sister of Q' then in G H +R D, how is G related to D? (1) Cannot be determined (2) Mother (3) Niece (4) Aunt (5) None of these 9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) 17 (2) 19 (3) 23 (4) 29 (5) 27 11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three 12. If ‘' means ‘x', $ means ‘+', # means ‘ ' and ‘©' means ‘-‘ then what is the value of 360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48? (1) 253 (2) 242 (3) 247 (4) 285 (5) None of these 13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric? (1) green (2) yellow (3) red (4) pink (5) None of these 14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y. (1) A (2) E (3) L (4) X (5) Y 15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row? (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 18 (5) None of these Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows: ‘A © B' means ‘A is smaller than B' ‘A # B' means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B' ‘A « B' means ‘A is greater than B' ‘A $ B' means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B' ‘A @ B' means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B' In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J Conclusions: I. V © L II. S © J 17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H Conclusions: I. M #H II. R © H 18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M Conclusions: I. H «M II. H «G 19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L Conclusions: I. R @ T II. J @ l 20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F Conclusions: I. W $ K II. W @ K Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows. Give answer (5) if both I and II follow. 21. Statements: Some pens are books. All books are pencils. All pencils are jars. Conclusions: I. All books are jars. II. Some pens are pencils. 22. Statements: Some bowls are spoons Some spoons are forks All forks are plates. Conclusions: I. Some bowls are forks. II. Some spoons are plates. 23. Statements: Some bottles are jars. All jars are buckets. All buckets are tanks. Conclusions: I. All jars are tanks. II. Some buckets are tanks. 24. Statements: Some phones are mobiles. Some mobiles are computers. Some computers are keys. Conclusions: I. Some phones are keys. II. Some computes are phones. 25. Statements: All papers are files. Some files are folders. All folders are bags. Conclusions: I. Some files are bags. II. Some papers are folders. Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita? I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita. II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita. 27. What is the code for ‘Play' in the code language? I. In the code language ‘play and dance' is written as ‘ka to pe' II. In the code language enjoy the dance' is written as ‘pe jo ra'. 28. How many children are there in the class? I. Vandana's rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom. II. Nandini's rank is seventeenth from the top. 29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta? I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta. II. Neeta is not the tallest. 30. How many sons does Ramesh have? I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh. II. R is brother of H. Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow: 5DGE«79$F16R%LIAJ3B#4@KP8UM2 31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (1) $9F (2) R6% (3) 8PU (4) #B4 (5) 3BJ 32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left? (1) L (2) R (3) 6 (4) I (5) None of these 33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? EDH 9 « 7 I$F ? (1) 6RI (2) %R6 (3) R16 (4) %6R (5) None of these 34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement? (1) K (2) @ (3) P (4) # (5) None of these 35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N. 36. Who is to the immediate left of L? (1) Q (2) O (3) K (4) N (5) None of these 37. Who is to the immediate left of K? (1) N (2) J (3) Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 38. Which of the following is the correct position of N? (1) Second to the right of K (2) To the immediate left of K (3) To the immediate right of M (4) To the immediate right of K (5) None of these 39. Who is third to the right of P? (1) L (2) J (3) Q (4) N (5) None of these 40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two? (1) PJO (2) OPJ (3) OPM (4) MPO (5) None of these Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? Answers for Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper: 1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2) 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5) 11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1) 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1) 21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1) 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5) 31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2) 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2) 41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1) 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)