NEET Level Test 13-Oct (Bonus PYQ Only Online Test) PDF
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This is a physics exam paper, with questions on forces, particle motion and simple mechanics. The questions in this sample seem to be from an online NEET preparatory test.
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C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 P - S A...
C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 P - S A 4 The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due 1 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path, the angle at which are x = 5t − 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and he should make his strokes with respect to the north is y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the given by: particle at t = 2 s is: 1. 45∘ west of north 2. 30∘ west of north 1. 5^i m/s2 2. −4^i m/s2 2 3. 0∘ west of north 4. 60∘ west of north 3. −8^j m/s 4. 0 5 A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional 2 The force F acting on a particle of mass m is motion such that its velocity varies according to indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The v(x) = βx−2n where β and n are constants and x is the change in momentum of the particle over the time position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle interval from 0 to 8 s is: as a function of x is given by: 1. −2nβ2 x−2n−1 2. −2nβ2 x−4n−1 3. −2β 2 x−2n+1 4. −2nβ2 x−4n+1 6 A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined rough surface AC (as shown in the figure) of coefficient of friction μ. If g = 10 ms–1, the net force (in N) on the block will be: 1. 24 N-s 2. 20 N-s 3. 12 N-s 4. 6 N-s 3 Match List-I with List-II. 1. 10√3 List-I List-II 2. zero (a) Gravitational constant (G) (i) [L2 T −2 ] 3. 10 3 −2 4. 20 (b) Gravitational potential energy (ii) [M −1 L T ] (c) Gravitational potential (iii) [LT −2 ] 7 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the (d) Gravitational intensity (iv) [ML2 T −2 ] escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator Choose the correct answer from the options given takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk below: upon the moving escalator will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) t1 t2 t1 t2 1. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 1. 2. t2 − t1 t2 + t1 2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) t1 + t2 3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 3. t1 − t2 4. 2 4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Page: 1 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 8 The position-time (x-t) graph for positive 11 A ball is projected from point A with velocity 20 acceleration is: ms–1 at an angle 60∘ to the horizontal direction. At the highest point B of the path (as shown in figure), the velocity v (in ms–1) of the ball will be: 1. 2. 3. 4. 1. 20 9 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The 2. 10√3 road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction 3. zero between the tyre of the car and the road is μs. The 4. 10 maximum safe velocity on this road is: 12 In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total 1. √gR( μs + tan θ ) 1 − μs tan θ acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given 2. √ R ( μs + tan θ ) instant of time. The speed of the particle is: g 1 − μs tan θ 3. √ μs + tan θ ( ) g 2 R 1 − μs tan θ 4. √gR2 ( μs + tan θ ) 1 − μs tan θ 10 Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants kP and kQ , such that kP > kQ. They are stretched, first by the same amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ are 1. 4.5 m/s 2. 5.0 m/s related as, in case (a) and case (b), respectively: 3. 5.7 m/s 1. WP = WQ ; WP > WQ 4. 6.2 m/s 2. WP = WQ ; WP = WQ 3. WP > WQ ; WP < WQ 13 If F = αt2 − βt is the magnitude of the force 4. WP < WQ ; WP < WQ acting on a particle at an instant t then the time, at which the force becomes constant, is (where α and β are constants): β β 1. 2. α 2α 2β 3. 4. zero α Page: 2 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 14 The angular acceleration of a body, moving along 18 A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal the circumference of a circle, is: surface (coefficient of friction = μ). A horizontal force is 1. along the axis of rotation applied to the body, but it does not move. The resultant 2. along the radius, away from centre of normal reaction and the frictional force acting on the → 3. along the radius towards the centre object is given by F where: 4. along the tangent to its position → 1. |F | = mg + μmg → 15 A massless and inextensible string connects two 2. |F | = μmg → blocks A and B of masses 3m and m, respectively. The 3. |F | ≤ mg√1 + μ2 whole system is suspended by a massless spring, as → shown in the figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of 4. |F | = mg A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively: 19 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2^i + 3^j m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is: g 1. ,g 2. g, g 1. −2^i + 3^j 2. 2^i − 3^j 3 g g g 3. 2^i + 3^j 4. −2^i − 3^j 3. , 4. g, 3 3 3 20 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined 16 In an experiment, four quantities a, b, c and d are wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows: relation between a and θ for the block to remain a 3 b2 stationary on the wedge is: P= cd Percentage error in P is: 1. 10% 2. 7% 3. 4% 4. 14% 17 A particle moves so that its position vector is given g by, r→ = cos ωt x^ + sin ωt y^, where ω is a constant. 1. a = Which of the following is true? cosec θ g 1. Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r→. 2. a = sin θ Velocity is perpendicular to r→ and acceleration is 3. a = g cos θ 2. directed towards to origin. 4. a = g tan θ Velocity is parallel to r→ and acceleration is directed 3. away from the origin. 4. Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r→. Page: 3 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 ∘ 21 A rigid ball of mass M strikes a rigid wall at 60 25 The velocity (v)- time (t) plot of the motion of a and gets reflected without loss of speed, as shown in the body is shown below: figure. The value of the impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be: The acceleration (a)- time (t) graph that best suits this motion is: 1. Mv 2. 2Mv 1. 2. Mv Mv 3. 4. 2 3 22 The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second is: 1. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 3. 4. 2. 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 3. 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 4. 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 23 The position of a particle is given by; 26 A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius ^ r→(t) = 4t^i + 2t2 ^j + 5k (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The where t is in seconds and r in metre. Find the magnitude maximum possible percentage error in the measurement and direction of velocity v(t), at t = 1 s, with respect to of density will nearly be: x-axis: 1. 1.4% 1. 4√2 ms−1 , 45∘ 2. 4√2 ms−1 , 60∘ 2. 1.2% 3. 1.3% 3. 3√2 ms−1 , 30∘ 4. 3√2 ms−1 , 45∘ 4. 1.6% 24 A particle has initial velocity (2^i + 3^j) and 2 27 The area of a rectangular field (in m ) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value, acceleration (0. 3^i + 0. 2^j). The magnitude of velocity for correct significant digits is: after 10 s will be: 1. 9√2 units 1. 14 × 102 2. 5√2 units 2. 138 × 101 3. 5 units 3. 1382 4. 9 units 4. 1382.5 Page: 4 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 28 A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a 31 Taking into account the significant figures, what is uniform speed takes a time T to complete one the value of (9.99 m − 0.0099 m)? revolution. If this particle were projected with the same 1. 9.98 m speed at an angle θ to the horizontal, the maximum 2. 9.980 m height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, 3. 9.9 m θ is then given by: 4. 9.9801 m 1/2 1/2 2gT 2 ( ) ( ) π2R 1. θ = sin −1 2. θ = sin −1 32 Given below are two statements: gT 2 π2R A standing bus suddenly accelerates. If 1/2 1/2 2 there was no friction between the feet of θ = cos−1 ( ) θ = cos−1 ( ) gT π2R Assertion (A): 3. 4. a passenger and the floor of the bus, the π2R gT 2 passenger would move back. In the absence of friction, the floor of 29 When a body of mass m just begins to slide as Reason (R): the bus would slip forward under the shown, match List-I with List-II: feet of the passenger. List-I List-II (a) Normal reaction (i) P 1. (A) is True but (R) is False. (b) Frictional force (fs ) (ii) Q 2. (A) is False but (R) is True. (c) Weight (mg) (iii) R Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. explanation of (A). (d) mgsinθ (iv) S Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. explanation of (A). 33 A screw gauge has the least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale. The pitch of the screw gauge is: 1. 0.25 mm 2. 0.5 mm 3. 1.0 mm 4. 0.01 mm Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 34 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same (a) (b) (c) (d) time in a straight line and their positions are represented 1. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) by; xp (t) = at + bt2 and xQ (t) = ft − t2. At what time 2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) do the cars have the same velocity? 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) a−f 1. 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 1+b a+f 2. 30 If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is equal 2(b − 1) to the magnitude of the difference between the two 3. a + f vectors, the angle between these vectors is? 2(b + 1) 1. 90∘ f−a 2. 45∘ 4. 2(1 + b) 3. 180∘ 4. 0∘ Page: 5 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 35 In the diagram shown, the normal reaction force 37 A block of mass m is moving with initial velocity u between 2 kg and 1 kg blocks is: towards a stationary spring of stiffness constant k (Consider the surface to be smooth and g = 10 ms–2 ) attached to the wall as shown in the figure. Maximum compression of the spring is: (The friction between the block and the surface is negligible). u√ 4u√ m m 1. 2. k k 2u√ m 1 √ k 3. 4. u k 2 m 1. 25 N 2. 39 N 38 The potential energy of a long spring when 3. 6 N stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 4. 10 N cm, potential energy stored in it will be: 1. 16U 2. 2U P - S B 3. 4U 4. 8U 36 An object of mass 500 g initially at rest is acted 39 The potential energy of a particle in a force field is upon by a variable force whose x-component varies with A B x in the manner shown. The velocities of the object at U = r2 − r where A and B are positive constants and the points x = 8 m and x = 12 m would have the r is the distance of the particle from the centre of the respective values of nearly: field. For stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is: B B 1. 2. A 2A 2A A 3. 4. B B ^ 40 A particle moves with a velocity (5^i − 3^j + 6k) ms–1 horizontally under the action of a constant force ^ (10^i + 10^j + 20k) N. The instantaneous power supplied to the particle is: 1. 200 W 2. zero 3. 100 W 4. 140 W 1. 18 m/s and 22.4 m/s 2. 23 m/s and 22.4 m/s 3. 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s 4. 18 m/s and 20.6 m/s 41 A particle with total energy E is moving in a potential energy region U(x). The motion of the particle is restricted to the region where: 1. U(x) < E 2. U(x) = 0 3. U(x) ≤ E 4. U(x) > E Page: 6 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 42 A uniform force of (3^i + ^j) newton acts on a 46 Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced with another body B of mass 2m at rest. The collision is ^ meter to position (4^i + 3^j − k) from position (2^i + k) ^ head-on and elastic in nature. After the collision, the meter. The work done by the force on the particle is: fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is: 1. 6 J 5 1 1. 2. 2. 13 J 9 9 3. 15 J 8 4 3. 4. 4. 9 J 9 9 43 Object A has half the kinetic energy as that of 47 One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase object B. The object B has half the mass as that of the through a height of 2 m but the second coolie takes 30 s −1 object A. The object A speeds up by 1 ms and then to raise the same suitcase to the same height. The powers has the same kinetic energy as that of object B. The of two coolies are in the ratio: initial speed of object A is nearly: (Take √2 ≅1.4) 1. 1 : 3 −1 2. 2 : 1 1. 0.5 ms −1 3. 3 : 1 2. 1 ms 4. 1 : 2 −1 3. 2.5 ms −1 4. 4.8 ms 48 A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the 44 Two particles of masses m1 and m2 move with figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter initial velocities u1 and u2 respectively. On collision, AB = D. The height h is equal to: one of the particles gets excited to a higher level, after absorbing energy E. If the final velocities of particles are v1 and v2 , then we must have: 1. m21 u1 + m22 u2 − E = m21 v1 + m22 v2 1 2. 2 m1 u21 + 12 m2 u22 = 1 2 m1 v21 + 12 m2 v22 1 3. 2 m1 u21 + 12 m2 u22 − E = 12 m1 v21 + 12 m2 v22 1 4. 2 m21 u21 + 12 m22 u22 + E = 12 m21 v21 + 12 m22 v22 3 45 A gravitational field is present in a region, and a 1. 2 D mass is shifted from A to B through different paths as 2. D 7 shown. If W1 , W2 and W3 represent the work done by 3. 4 D the gravitational force along their respective paths, then: 4. 5 D 4 49 A block of mass 10 kg, moving in the x-direction with a constant speed of 10 ms–1 is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be: 1. 475 J 1. W1 = W2 = W3 2. W1 > W2 > W3 2. 450 J 3. W1 > W3 > W2 4. W1 < W2 < W3 3. 275 J 4. 250 J Page: 7 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 50 When an object is shot from the bottom of a long, 56 Select the correct statements from the following: smooth inclined plane kept at an angle of 60∘ with Atoms of all elements are composed of two horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. A: fundamental particles. But when the inclination is decreased to 30∘ and the B: The mass of the electron is 9.10939 × 10−31 kg.. same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2 will be: All the isotopes of a given element show same C: chemical properties. 1. 1 : 2√3 2. 1 : √2 Protons and electrons are collectively known as D: nucleons. 3. √2 : 1 4. 1 : √3 Dalton's atomic theory regarded the atom as an E: ultimate particle of matter. Choose the correct answer from the option given below: C - S A 1. B, C and E only 2. A, B and C only 3. C, D and E only 4. A and E only 51 Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atoms falls in the visible region? 57 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same 1. Brackett series 2. Lyman series number of electrons. In which order do their radii 3. Balmer series increase? 4. Paschen series 1. Ar < K+ < Ca2+ 2. Ca2+ < Ar < K+ 52 The element expected to form the largest ion to 3. Ca2+ < K+ < Ar achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is: 4. K+ < Ar < Ca2+ 1. Sodium(Na) 2. Oxygen(O) 3. Fluorine(F) 4. Nitrogen(N) 58 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g 53 The density of 1 M solution of a compound 'X' is of magnesium oxide. 1.25 g mL–1. The correct option for the molality of the The percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the solution is: sample is: (Molar mass of compound X = 85 g): (Atomic weight of Mg=24) 1. 0.705 m 2. 1.208 m 1. 75 2. 96 3. 1.165 m 4. 0.858 m 3. 60 4. 84 54 Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an 59 A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, ionic compound. If the ground state electronic broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3 , the simplest formula wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted 8 −1 by for this compound is: the transmitter is: [speed of light, c = 3. 0 × 10 ms ] 1. Mg2 X3 1. 2192 m 2. 21.92 cm 2. MgX2 3. 219.3 m 4. 219.2 m 3. Mg2 X 4. Mg3 X2 55 The mass of CO2 produced by heating 20 g of 20% pure limestone as per the equation given below is: [CaCO3 ⟶ CaO + CO2 ] 1200 K 1. 1.32 g 2. 1.12 g 3. 1.76 g 4. 2.64 g Page: 8 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 60 Match List-I with List-II: 64 An organic compound contains 80 % (by wt.) List-I List-II carbon and the remaining percentage of hydrogen. The (a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP (i) 0.2 moles empirical formula of this compound is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] 12.022 × 1022 molecules 23 (b) (ii) 12.044 × 10 1. CH3 2. CH4 of H2O molecules 3. CH 4. CH2 (c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g (d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP 65 The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in 3s (Given - Molar volume of a gas at STP - 22.4 L) orbital are : Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. 0 and 2, respectively 2. 1 and 0, respectively below: 3. 3 and 0, respectively 4. 0 and 1, respectively (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 66 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and by 3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16) 4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 1. Mg, 0.16 g 2. O2 , 0.16 g 3. Mg, 0.44 g 4. O2 , 0.28 g 61 What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO is mixed with 50 mL of 67 Match Column I with Column II. 3 5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na= Column-I Column-II 23, Cl = 35.5) (a) Copper (i) Non-metal 1. 28 g (b) Fluorine (ii) Transition metal 2. 3.5 g 3. 7 g (c) Silicon (iii) Lanthanoid 4. 14 g (d) Cerium (iv) Metalloid 62 For the second-period elements, the correct (a) (b) (c) (d) increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is: 1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 1. Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne 2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 2. Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne 3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 3. Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne 4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4. Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne 68 Match List-I with List-II: 63 Calculate the energy corresponding to light of List-I List-II wavelength 45 nm: (quantum number) (Orbital) (Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js: (A) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (I) 2s speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1) (B) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (II) 3s 1. 6.67 x 1015 J (C) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (III) 2p 2. 6.67 x 1011 J (D) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (IV) 3d 3. 4.42 x 10-15 J Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. 4.42 x 10-18 J below: (A) (B) (C) (D) 1. (III) (IV) (I) (II) 2. (IV) (III) (I) (II) 3. (IV) (III) (II) (I) 4. (III) (IV) (II) (I) Page: 9 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 69 Incorrect statement among the following is: 74 Which of the following pair is correctly matched? h 1. Basic oxides - In2 O3 , K2 O, SnO2 1. The uncertainty principle isΔx ⋅ Δp ≥ 4π 2. Neutral oxides - CO, NO2 , N2 O Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater 3. Acidic oxides - Mn2 O7 , SO2 , TeO3 2. stability due to greater exchange energy, greater 4. Amphoteric oxides -BeO, Ga2 O3 , GeO symmetry, and a more balanced arrangement. The energy of the 2s orbital is less than the energy of 75 In an experiment, it showed that 10 mL of 0.05 M 3. the 2p orbital in the case of hydrogen-like atoms. solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M solution of h AgNO3. Which of the following will be the formula of De-Broglie's wavelength is given byλ = , where 4. mv the chloride (X stands for the symbol of the element m= mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the other than chlorine)? particle. 1. X2Cl2 2. XCl2 70 Isotope of an element contains 19.23% more 3. XCl 4 neutrons as compared to protons. The correct element 4. X2Cl along with its mass number is: (Given Atomic number Fe : 26, Co : 27 ) 1. 56 Fe 76 The formation of the oxide ion O2– (g), from the 2. 57 Fe oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an 57 3. Co endothermic step as shown below, 60 4. Co O(g)+e− → O− ; Δf H0 =– 141 kJ mol−1 O− (g)+e− → O2− (g); Δf H0 = +780 kJ mol−1 71 In which of the following options, the order of Thus, the process of formation of O2– in the gas phase is arrangement does not agree with the variation of the unfavorable even though O2– is isoelectronic with neon. property indicated against it? It is due to the fact that: 1. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by I < Br < F < Cl (increasing negative electron gain 1. 2. achieving noble gas configuration. enthalpy) – 3. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius) 2. O ion has a comparatively smaller size than the oxygen atom. 4. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ A > D > C 2. B > A > C > D 3. D > C > B > A 4. A > C > B > D 103 A student observed algae with chlorophyll 'a', 'd', and phycoerythrin. It should belong to: 99 Isostructural pair among the following is: 1. Phaeophyta 2. Rhodophyta 1. BCl3 and BrCl3 3. Chlorophyta 4. Bacillariophyta 2. NH3 and NO− 3 3. NF3 and BF3 4. BF− 4 and NH4 + Page: 13 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 104 Biosystematics aims at: 110 Which arrangement is in correct ascending order: The classification of organisms based on broad 1. Species < genus < order < family 1. 2. Genus < species < family < order morphological characters Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing 3. Order < family < genus < species 2. 4. Species < genus < family < order their relationships The classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny 111 The asexual spores of deuteromycetes are: 3. 1. Aplanospores on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies 2. Conidia Identification and arrangement of organisms on the 3. Zoospores 4. 4. Basidiospores basis of cytological characteristics 112 Which of the following statements about viruses is 105 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found correct ? inside vegetative part of: 1. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA 1. Cycas 2. Equisetum 2. Viruses possess their own metabolic system 3. Psilotum 4. Pinus 3. Viruses are facultative parasites 4. Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics 106 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as: 1. Phylogeny 2. Ancestry 113 Match List-I with List-II: 3. Palaeontology 4. Ontogeny List-I List-II (a) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss 107 The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the (b) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyte production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, (c) Selaginella (iii) Alga include the: (d) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm 1. Eubacteria 2. Halophiles 3. Thermoacidophiles 4. Methanogens Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 108 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial (a) (b) (c) (d) nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by 'Z': 1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - Carolus 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 1. Linnaeus 3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - R.H. 4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 2. Whittaker X - Specific epithet, Y - Generic name, Z - Carolus 114 Select the correct combination of the statements (a- 3. Linnaeus d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms: X - Generic name, Y - Specific epithet, Z - R.H. Methanogens are archaebacteria that produce 4. (a) Whittaker methane in marshy areas Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga that fixes 109 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to (b) atmospheric nitrogen represent a significant step toward evolution of seed Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize habit because: (c) cellulose from glucose Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive 1. (d) seeds. without oxygen 2. Female gametophyte lacks archegonia. The correct statements are: Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo 1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (b), (c) and (d) 3. surrounded by seed coat. 3. (a), (b) and (d) 4. (b) and (c) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is 4. retained on parent sporophyte. Page: 14 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 115 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal 122 There exists a close association between the alga rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus: of nomenclature? 1. Provides food for the alga When written by hand, the names are to be Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the 1. 2. underlined alga 2. Biological names can be written in any language 3. Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga The first word in a biological name represents the 4. Releases oxygen for the alga 3. genus name, and the second is a specific epithet 4. The names are written in Latin and are italicized 123 Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II 116 House fly belongs to _______ family. A. Microscopic angiosperm I. Salvinia 1. Cyprinidae 2. Hominidae B. Tallest gymnosperm II. Marchantia 3. Calliphoridae 4. Muscidae C. Thalloid bryophyte III. Sequoia D. Heterosporous pteridophyte IV. Wolffia 117 The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans Choose the correct answer from the options given below in making curd from milk and in production of : antibiotics are the ones categorized as 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 1. Cyanobacteria 2. Archaebacteria 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 3. Chemosynthetic autotrophs 4. Heterotrophic bacteria 3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 118 Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus: 124 Floridean starch has structure similiar to: Mangifera indica Car. 1. Amylopectin and glycogen 2. Mannitol and algin 1. Mangifera Indica 2. Linn. 3. Laminarin and cellulose 4. Starch and cellulose Mangifera indica 3. 4. Mangifera indica Linn. 125 Select the wrong statement. 1. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water. 119 Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending 2. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible. flowers and live plants to distant places because: ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of 1. it is easily available 2. it is hygroscopic 3. diatoms. 3. it reduces transpiration 4. it serves as a disinfectant 4. Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans. 120 Which classes of algae possess pigment 126 Match List -I with List-II fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin, respectively? List - I List - II 1. Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae a. Cedrus (i) Pteridophyte 2. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae 3. Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae b. Adiantum (ii) Gymnosperm 4. Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae c. Sphagnum (iii) Liverwort d. Marchantia (iv) Moss 121 Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in Choose the correct answer from the options given humans are due to infection by__________________. below: 1. Bacterium a. b. c. d. 2. Virus 1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 3. Viroid 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 4. Prion 3. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 4. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Page: 15 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 127 Viroids differ from viruses in having 131 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In 1. DNA molecules with protein coat which one of the options all the four parts A, B, C and D 2. DNA molecules without protein coat are correct – 3. RNA molecules with protein coat 4. RNA molecules without protein coat 128 In oogamy, fertilization involves: A large non-motile female gamete and a small motile 1. male gamete A large non-motile female gamete and a small non- 2. motile male gamete A large motile female gamete and a small non-motile 3. male gamete A small non-motile female gamete and a large motile Options 4. male gamete A B C D 1. Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres 129 Pick up the wrong statement. 2. Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres 1. Cell wall is absent in Animalia. 3. Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes 4. Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar 2. of nutrition 3. Some fungi are edible 132 Match List I with List II: 4. Nuclear membrane is present in Monera. List I List II Organisms Mode of Nutrition 130 Choose the wrong statement: A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic 1. genetics C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic 2. Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms Switching between photosynthetic 3. Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation D. Plasmodium IV. and heterotrophic mode 4. Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-III, B-IV, C- II, D- I 2. A-IV, B-II, C- I, D- III 3. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I 4. A-IV, B-II, C- III, D- I Page: 16 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 133 Match List - I with List - II 139 Which one of the following structures is haploid in List - I List - II its ploidy level? (a) Puccinia (i) Parasitic fungus on mustard 1. Primary Endospore Nucleus 2. Microspore Mother cell (b) Neurospora (ii) Dead substrates 3. Protonemal cell of a moss (c) Saprophytes (iii) Wheat rust 4. Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot (d) Albugo (iv) Biochemical and Genetic Work Choose the correct answer from the option given below : 140 Which of the following statements is incorrect (a) (b) (c) (d) about gymnosperms? 1. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 1. They are heterosporous 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 2. Male and female gametophytes are free-living 3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 3. Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle 4. Their seeds are not covered 4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 141 Identify the fungi which do not belong to the group 134 Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without of other fungi among the following fungal association. This is because: 1. Sac-fungi 2. Puffballs 1. its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination. 2. its embryo is immature. 3. Mushrooms 4. Bracket Fungi 3. it has obligate association with mycorrhizae. 4. it has very hard seed coat. 142 Select the wrong statement : Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or 135 Which one of the following animals is correctly 1. behaviour matched with its particular named taxonomic category? In Oomycetes, female gamete is smaller and motile, 2. 1. Tiger - tigris, the species while male gamete is larger and non-motile 2. Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and 3. Humans - Primata, the family 3. anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy 4. Housefly - Musca, an order Isogametes are similar in structure, function and 4. behaviour B I - S B 143 Which one of the following matches is correct? 136 Which one of the following is considered Sexual reproduction important in the development of seed habit? 1. Alternaria Deuteromycetes absent 1. Dependent sporophyte 2. Heterospory Reproduction by 2. Mucor Ascomycetes 3. Halplontic life cycle 4. Free-living gametophyte Conjugation 3. Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes 137 Which of the following taxonomic category is less 4. Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes general in characters as compared to the taxonomic category ‘Genus’? 144 Select the correct statement: 1. Species 2. Division The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to 3. Class 4. Family 1. extremes of climate Gymnosperms are both homosporous and 138 In ferns, Meiosis takes place at the time of: 2. heterosporous 1. Spore formation 3. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms 2. Spore germination 4. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees 3. Gamete formation 4. Antheridia and archegonia formation Page: 17 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 145 Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which 149 Match List - I with List - II of the following group? List-I List-II 1. Fungi 2. Animalia (A) Pteropsida (I) Psilotum 3. Monera 4. Plantae (B) Lycopsida (II) Equisetum (C) Psilopsida (III) Adiantum 146 In the taxonomic categories, which hierarchical (D) Sphenopsida (IV) Selaginella arrangement in ascending order is correct in the case of Choose the correct answer from the options given animals? below: Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 1. Species 1. II III I IV Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, 2. 2. III I IV II Species 3. II III IV I Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, 3. 4. III IV I II Species Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, 4. Species 150 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a: 1. bacterium 2. prion 147 If you are asked to classify the various algae into 3. worm 4. virus distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose ? B II - S A 1. Types of pigments present in the cell 2. Nature of stored food materials in the cell 151 Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs of 3. Structural organisation of thallus 4. Chemical compositions of the cell wall cockroach: List I List II 148 Read the following statements. (a) Crop (i) grinding the food particles (b) Proventriculus (ii) secretion of digestive juice Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that removal of nitrogenous (i) (c) Hepatic caecae (iii) the members within the taxon share. waste Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibit a Malpighian (ii) (d) (iv) storage of food few similar characters. tubules Cat and dog are included in the same family Choose the correct answer from the options given (iii) below: Felidae. Binomial Nomenclature was introduced by Carolus (a) (b) (c) (d) (iv) Linnaeus. 1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Which of the following statements are not correct? 2. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 2. (ii), (iii) and (iv) 3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 3. (i) and (iv) 4. (ii) and (iii) 4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 152 Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it? All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered 1. heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal). All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an 2. operculum on each side. 3. All sponges are marine and have collared cells. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm 4. for breathing. Page: 18 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 153 Identify the phylum where the body cavity is not 158 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm : All vertebrates are chordates but all Assertion (A): 1. Cnidaria 2. Platyhelminthes chordates are not vertebrates. 3. Mollusca 4. Aschelminthes Notochord is replaced by vertebral Reason (R): column in the adult vertebrates. 154 Given below is a list of some sexually reproducing animals. Select the hermaphrodite animals from the list. In the light of the above statements, choose the most A. Cockroach appropriate answer from the options given below: B. Leech 1. (A) is False but (R) is True. C. Housefly Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains 2. D. Tapeworm (A). E. Earthworm Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. explain (A). below: 4. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. A, B and D only 2. C and D only 3. B, D and E only 159 Which of the following is/are present in female 4. A, C and E only cockroach? A. Collateral gland 155 Which one of the following pairs of animals are B. Mushroom gland C. Spermatheca similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated D. Anal style against them? E. Phallic gland 1. Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus– Viviparity Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 2. Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart given below: 3. Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation 1. B and D only Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded 2. B and E only 4. 3. A only (poikilothermal) 4. A and C only 156 Which of the following animals has three chambered heart? 160 Air bladder is found in : 1. Scoliodon 2. Hippocampus 1. Osteichthyes 2. Aves 3. Chelone 4. Pteropus 3. Cyclostomata 4. Chondrichthyes 157 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is: 161 Match the following columns and select the correct 1. Pristis 2. Torpedo option. 3. Trygon 4. Scoliodon Column I Column II a. 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon b. Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes c. Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes d. Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 2. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Page: 19 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 162 Match List-I with List-II 165 In the following diagram of alimentary canal of List-I List-II cockroach, identify the labels A, B, C and D (Cockroach) (Term Used) respectively. A. Metamorphosis I. Ommatidia B. Brain II. Paurometabolous C. Vision III. Spiracles Supra oesophageal D. Respiration IV. ganglion Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 163 Choose the correct statement about a muscular 1. A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D- tissue: Hepatic caeca Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and found in A-Oesophagus, B-Crop, C-salivary glands, D- 1. 2. parallel bundles. Hepatic caeca Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle cells to A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caeca, D- 2. 3. contract as a unit. Malpighian tubules The walls of blood vessels are made up of columnar A-Gizzard, B-Hepatic caeca, C-Malpighian tubules, 3. 4. epithelium. D- Cilia 4. Smooth muscles are multinucleated and involuntary 166 The diagram given below shows the germs layer. 164 Given below are two statements: The animals having structures shown in the figures A and B are respectively called In cockroaches, the forewings are transparent and I: prothoracic in origin. In cockroaches, the hind wings are opaque, leathery II: and mesothoracic in origin In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false Diploblastic, Triploblastic, 1. 2. Triploblastic Diploblastic Diploblastic, Triploblastic, 3. 4. Diploblastic Triploblastic 167 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of 1. Mollusca and chordata 2. Platyhelminthes and arthropoda 3. Echinodermata and annelida 4. Annelida and arthropoda Page: 20 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 168 Choose the correct statements : 173 Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals (a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs are exemplified by: (b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones 1. Platyhelminthes 2. Aschelminthes (c) Ligament is the site of production of blood cells 3. Annelida 4. Ctenophora (d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats (e) Tendons attach one bone to another 174 Excretion in cockroach is performed by all, EXCEPT : Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 1. Uricose glands given below : 2. Malpighian tubules 1. (a), (b) and (d) only 2. (b), (c) and (e) only 3. Fat body 4. Hepatic caeca 3. (a), (c) and (d) only 4. (a), (b) and (e) only 175 Consider the following features: 169 The animals with bilateral symmetry in the young (a) Organ system level of organization stage and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult (b) Bilateral symmetry stage, belong to the phylum: (c) True coelomates with the segmentation of the body 1. Mollusca 2. Cnidaria Select the correct option of animal groups that possess 3. Echinodermata 4. Annelida all the above characteristics. 1. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata 170 Which one of the following statements about all 2. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Chordata the four - Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin, Penguin - is 3. Annelida, Arthropoda, and Mollusca correct? 4. Arthropoda, Mollusca, and Chordata Leech is a freshwater form while all others are 1. marine. 176 Given below are two statements: Spongilla has special collar cells called choanocytes, I: Goblet cells are unicellular glands 2. II: Earwax is the secretion of exocrine gland not found in the remaining three. 3. All are bilaterally symmetrical. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three answer from the options given below: 4. 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False are poikilothermic. 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True 171 Match List-I with List-II: 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False List-I List-II A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias 177 Match List - I with List - II B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon List-I List-II C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine (A) Columnar epithelium (I) Ducts of glands D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis Inner lining of stomach (B) Ciliated epithelium (II) Choose the correct answer from the options given and intestine below: Inner lining of 1. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III (C) Squamous epithelium (III) bronchioles 2. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV (D) Cuboidal epithelium (IV) Endothelium 3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV 4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 172 The Cockroach is: Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 1. Ammonotelic only 2. Uricotelic only 1. III II I IV 3. Ureotelic only 4. Ureotelic and Uricotelic 2. III II IV I 3. II III I IV 4. II III IV I Page: 21 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 178 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 183 What is common between parrot, platypus and Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. kangaroo? Members of subphylum vertebrate 1. toothless jaws 2. functional post-anal tail possess notochord during the embryonic 3. ovoparity 4. homoiothermy Assertion (A): period. The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column 184 Which one of the following features are not true in the adult. for chordates? All chordates are vertebrates but not all (a) Heart is dorsal. Reason (R): vertebrates are chordates (b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and single. answer from the options given below: (d) Post-anal tail is present. 1. (A) is True but (R) is False (e) Notochord is present. 2. (A) is False but (R) is True Choose the most appropriate answer from the option Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct give below: 3. 1. (e) only 2. (a), (d) and (c) only explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 3. (b) and (c) only 4. (a) and (c) only 4. explanation of (A). 185 Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of 179 Which of the following characteristic features microvilli is found in : always hold true for the corresponding group of 1. Ducts of salivary glands animals? 2. Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron 1. Viviparous (1) Mammalia 3. Eustachian tube Possess a mouth with an upper 4. Lining of intestine 2. (2) Chordata and a lower jaw 3. 3-chambered heart with one (3) Reptilia B II - S B incompletely divided ventricle 4. Cartilaginous - Endoskeleton (4) Chondrichthyes 186 Statement The ground substance of bone is solid, 180 In which of the following animals, the digestive I: pliable and resists compression. tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard? Statement The bone marrow of all bones is site of 1. Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus II: production of blood cells. 2. Corvus, Columba, Chameleon In light of the above statements, choose the most 3. Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus appropriate answer from the options given below. 4. Catla, Columba, Crocodilus 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 181 A unique vascular connection between the 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect digestive tract and liver is called _______________. 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 1. Hepato–pancreatic system 2. Hepatic portal system 187 In contrast to Annelids, Platyhelminths show 3. Renal portal system 1. Absence of body cavity 2. Presence of pseudocoelom 4. Hepato–cystic system 3. Radial symmetry 4. Bilateral symmetry 182 Which of the following group of animals have three chambered heart? 1. Bufo, Alligator, Struthio 2. Chameleon, Hyla, Calotes 3. Crocodilus, pavo, Clarias 4. Exocoetus, Hemidactylus, Rana Page: 22 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 188 Which of the following statements are true for the 192 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as phylum-Chordata? Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail Assertion In hemichordates, the body cavity is lined (a) and it is present throughout their life (A): by mesoderm. In Vertebrata, notochord is present during the In aschelminthes, the body cavity is not (b) Reason (R): embryonic period only lined by mesoderm (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, answer from the options given below: (d) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Tunicata and Cephalochordata 1. 1. (c) and (a) 2. (a) and (b) explanation of (A). 3. (b) and (c) 4. (d) and (c) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 189 From the following statements, select the wrong 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. one: 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1. Prawn has two pairs of antennae Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each 193 The epithelial tissue has the following features: 2. A. Bear cilia on their free surface. segment of the body Animals belonging to the phylum Porifera are B. Provides a lining for some parts of body. 3. exclusively marine Compound epithelium is multi-layered, meant for C. Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum limited role in secretion and absorption. 4. Cnidaria D. Located in the tip of the nose. E. Exocrine glands possess epithelial tissue. 190 Given below are two statements: Choose the most appropriate answer from the options Amphibians and reptiles have a 3-chambered heart given below: I: with two atria and a single ventricle, and are 1. B, D and E only oviparous in nature 2. A, B and C only Crocodiles possess a 4 chambered heart with two 3. B, C and E only II: ventricles and two atria and are viviparous in 4. C, D and E only nature Select the most appropriate option: 194 Which one of the following in birds, indicates their 1. I is correct but II is incorrect. reptilian ancestry? 2. I is incorrect but II is correct. 1. Scales on their hind limbs 3. Both I and II are correct. 2. Four chambered heart 4. Both I and II are incorrect. Two special chambers crop and gizzard 3. in their digestive tract 191 What will you look for to identity the sex of the 4. Eggs with a calcareous shell following? Select the correct match. Male frog – a copulatory pad on the first digit of the 1. hind limb 2. Female cockroach – anal cerci 3. Male shark – claspers borne on pelvic fins 4. Female Ascaris – sharply curved posterior end Page: 23 C N: NEET L T - 13-O 9667591930 / (B PYQ "O O" T) 8527521718 195 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 198 Which of the following characteristics is not Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). shared by birds and mammals? With the help of several ommatidia, a 1. Breathing using lungs 2. Viviparity Assertion (A): cockroach can perceive several images 3. Warm blooded nature 4. Ossified endoskeleton of an object, i.e., mosaic vision Mosaic vision gives more sensitivity but 199 In which of the following, the notochord is present Reason (R): less resolution in the embryonic stage? In the light of the above statements, choose the most 1. All chordates 2. Some chordates appropriate answer from the options given below: 3. Vertebrates 4. Non-chordates 1. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. (A) is False but (R) is True. 200 Select the correct statements: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, pseudocoelomate explanation of (A). A: and bilaterally symmetrical organisms. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and explanation of (A). B: fertilization is external 196 Select the incorrect statements with respect to C: In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are not separate Cyclostomes: Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic and (a) They lack scales and paired fins. D: bioluminescent organisms (b) They have circular mouth with jaws. (c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills. In sponges, fertilization is external and development E: (d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning. is direct. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. (a) and (b) only below: 2. (b) and (c) only 1. (A), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (C) and (D) only 3. (b) and (d) only 3. (A) and (E) only 4. (B) and (D) only 4. (a) and (d) only 197 Which of the following represents the correct Fill OMR Sheet* combination without any exception? Characteristic Class *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from (a) Mammary gland; hair on body; where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After Mammalia filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations pinnae; two pairs of limbs (b) Mouth ventral; gills without for the questions in the test. operculum; skin with placoid scales; Chondrichthyes persistent notochord (c) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent; integument without scales; paired appendages Cyclostomata CLICK HERE to get (d) Body covered with feathers; skin moist and glandular; lungs with air Aves FREE ACCESS for 2 sacs; fore limbs from wings days of ANY 1. a 2. b NEETprep course 3. c 4. d Page: 24
