MTAP-2 1st Prelim Exam - IH PDF

MTAP-2 ASSESSMENT 1 – IH (1st 19. Mcleod phenotype MTAP-2 (1st Prelim Exam)- IH a.Lacks Kx Prelim) b. marked expression of Kell...

MTAP-2 ASSESSMENT 1 – IH (1st 19. Mcleod phenotype MTAP-2 (1st Prelim Exam)- IH a.Lacks Kx Prelim) b. marked expression of Kell 1. Non-specific reaction 1. Reagent used to detect presence of a.acquired immunity antigens b.Innate immunity ABO subgroups c.both 2. Immune response to transfused a. anti-A 20. Resistant to malarial infection by incompatible HLA antigens causes b. anti-B Plasmodium vivax fever and chills c.Anti-A,B a.Duffy negative a. Febrile, non-hemolytic d. all of the choices b. Duffy positive transfusion reaction 2. Produces a mixed-field reaction c. neither b.Febrile,hemolytic transfusion with polyclonal anti-A and 21. What antibodies are formed by a reaction polyclonal anti-A,B Bombay individual? c.non-febrile, non hemolytic a. A1 a. anti-A and anti-B transfusion reaction b.A2 b. anti-H d. non-febrile, hemolytic c.A3 c. anti-A,3 transfusion reaction d. A d.Anti-A,B and H 3. Single immunoglobulin unit 3. Hemolytic transfusion reaction 22. If a parent has the Rh genotype R1R1 a.IgG occurs when a weak subgroup A and receives a unit of R packed red b.IgM receives blood from type O blood. blood cells from an R1r individual, c.both a.True what Rh antibody might the patient 4. Membranes of platelet have protein b.False develop? antigens 4. The type of hemolytic transfusion 1. Anti-E; a.True reaction caused by incompatible 2. Anti-e; b.false transfusion from ABO blood group 3. Anti-C; 5. Clinically important antibodies best a.Extravascular hemolysis 4. Anti-c react at b.Intravascular hemolysis - 4 only a.20-24C c.Both 23. What possible genotype for a patient B.37ºC 5. A person with a genotype AO is who develops anti-E antibody? c.depending on the type of phenotyped as 1. R2r; antibody detected a.A 2. R1R1; 6. Antibody excess b.O 3. r2r2; a.Post-zone c. AO 4. Rr; b.Pro-zone 6. “O” expresses no antigen hence, it is - 4 only 7. A cloudy solution appears in a. Amorph 24. HDFN occurs due to which of the hemagglutination reported as b. recessive following blood incompatibilities a.1+ c.both between mother and fetus? b. 2+ 7. Anti-A and Anti-B are predominantly a. mother Rh+, fetus Rh- c.3+ a.IgG b. mother Rh-, fetus Rh+ d.4+ b.IgM C. Both e.all of the choices c. IgG and IgM 25. A father who is Rh+ and mother who 8. Actual genetic make-up 8. Detected in the ABO forward typing is Rh- will most likely result to a.Genotype a.Antigen developing HDFN to the first and b.phenotype b.antibody succeeding pregnancies c.genetic focus c.both a.True d.gene 9. Reagents used in reverse typing b.False 9. Having two or more possible alleles a. anti-A, anti-B 26. HDFN results due to the reaction at a locus b. A1 and B cells between the fetal antibodies to the a.antiethical c. either maternal red cells. b.dominant 10. Which among the following can be a a.True c.Polymorphic problem with forward grouping? B.False d.recessive a. cold autoantibodies 27. A type “O” fetus would most likely 10. Inheritance of identical alleles b. newborn develop a non-severe type of HDFN a.Homozygous c.Bone marrow transplant if the mother is “A”, “B”, or “AB”. b.heteroxygous 11. Causes delayed hemolytic a.True c.dominant transfusion reaction b.False d.recessive a. kell 28. Antigen system NOT initially present 11. Agglutination reactions are b.Kidd on the red blood cell surface is generally stronger for homozygous c. duffy a. Duffy cells and slightly weaker for d. Rh b.Lewis heterozygous cells 12. Phenotype of Lewis secretor 29. I antigen is found in a.Cis a. Le(a+b) a.all newborn:no adults B.Dosage b. Le (a-b+) b.No newborns; all adults c.Trans c. Le(a-b-) c.no human beings 12. Full expressions of ABO antigens 13. Requires a blood warmer for d.all persons to some degree a.6months-1year transfusion 30. Rh antibodies react best at what b.2-4years a. anti-l temperature? c.2 - 4 years b. anti-i a. 22C 13. Sugar attached to B antigens of the c.anti-P b 18C ABO d. anti-lu c. 150 a.N-acetylgalactosamine 14. Implicated in HTR and HDFN d. 37C b.D-galactose a. anti-Lu 31. Rh antibodies are primarily of which c.L-fructose b. anti-Lub immunoglobulin class? 14. Agglutinates of the A subgroups of c. both A.IgA the ABO 15. Enzyme treated cells may be used B.IgM a.anti A a.FyFy C. IgG b.anti B b.MNSs D.IgD c.Anti-A,B c.JkaJkb d.all of the choices 15. An amorph allele 16. Rh antibodies are a.A a. cold antibodies b.B b.Warm antibodies c.AB c. both d.O 17. Rhogam (RhIG) is administered 16. Clinical specimen for ABO forward a. within 72 hrs. pre-delivery typing b. within 72 hrs. post-delivery A.RBC suspension 18. An individual who lacks K antigens B.serum but have Kx antigen C. either a. Knull 17. Bombay phenotype b.Ko a.OH c.Both b.Oh 18. Which of the following is not a For numbers 36-40 55. Each unit of cryoprecipitate prepared secretor? A. 21 days from whole blood should contain a.Sese B. 35 days approximately how many units of AHF b.sese C. 42 days activity? c.SeSe A. 40 IU d.none of the choices 36. CPDA-1 b. 80 IU 19. Weak D individuals are - B c. 120 IU a.Rh negative 37. CP2D d. 160 IU b.Rh positive - A e. 180 IU 38. AS-3 56. Once thawed, FFP must be transfused 20. A partial D individual - C within: a. Rh positive 39. AS-1 A. 4 hours b. Rh negative - C b. 6 hours c. able to produce anti-D 40. ACD c. 8 hours d. A and C - A d. 12 hours e. 24 hours 21. Knull For numbers 41-45 57. Quality control for RBCs requires a a.lacks Kx antigen a. 1-6C maximum hematocrit level of: b. Increase amount of Kx b. 1-10C A. 75% antigen c. 20-24C b. 80% 22. Clinically significant antibody d. -18C c. 85% a.anti-Le e. -65C or colder d. 90% b.anti-I e. 95% c.anti-P 41. Cryoprecipitate 58. AHF concentrates are used to treat: D.anti-Lub - D A. Thrombocytopenia e.all of the choices 42. Red blood cells b. Hemophilia A 23. Enzyme treatment is possible - A c. Hemophilia B a.FyFy 43. Fresh-frozen plasma D. VWF disease b.MNSs - D e. Factor XIII deficiency c.JkaJkb 44. Granulocyte concentrate 59. RBCs that have been leukoreduced d.all of the choices - C must contain less than _____ 24. Determines capability of donor RBCs 45. Red blood cells, frozen leukocytes with recipient’s blood - E A. 8 x 10^6 / 85% a.antibody screen b. 8 x 10^6 / 90% b.antibody identification 46. For exchange transfusion, the typical c. 5 x 10^6 / 85% c.Crossmatch blood group to be used for FFP to D. 5 x 10^6 / 80% 25. Enhances the formation of antigen- reconstitute packed RBCs 60. Random-donor platelets that have antibody complexes a.A been leukoreduced must contain less A.antisera b.B than _____ leukocytes b.antiglobulin reagents c.AB A. 8.3 x 10^5 C.Potentiators d.O b. 8 x 10^6 26. Check cells ensure negative 47. A 300-ug (1vial) of RhIG (Rhogam) will c. 5 x 10^6 antiglobulin test hence, a valid result neutralize d. 3 x 10^11 is a. 15ml of RBC 61. A single unit of FFP or PF 24 should a.Agglutination b. 30ml whole blood contain ______ mL of plasma b.no agglutionation c.Both A. 100-150 27. Detects ABO antibodies 48. HDFN occurs with b. 200-400 a.antibody screening test a. Rh positive mother c. 150-250 b.antibody panel cells b.Rh negative mother d. 50-150 c.forward typing c. neither 62. Cryoprecipitate that has been pooled d.Reverse typing 49. A donor who received transfusion is must be transfused within ____ hours 28. Detects in vivo agglutination deferred for A. 24 a.DAT a.1 year b. 6 b. IAT b.indefinite c. 4 29. Detects in vitro agglutination c.either d. 8 a.DAT 50. An individual who was treated from 63. Which of the following lists the correct b.IAT Hepatitis C is deferred to donate shelf life for the component? 30. HTR renders a.1 year a.Deglycerolized RBCs – 24 a.Positive DAT b.indefinite hours b.Positive IAT c.either b.RBC CPD-35 days c.negative DAT 51. What are the current storage time and c. FFP-5years d.negative IAT storage temperature for platelet d.RBCs CPDA1-21 days 31. Use patient’s serum and patient’s concentrates and apheresis platelet 64. The source of antibodies in major RBC’s components? crossmatching A.Autocontrol A. 5 days at 1C-6C a.Patient/recipient B.panel cells b. 5day at 24C-27C b.donor c.screening cells c. 5 days at 20C-24C c.both 32. To avoid cold autoantibodies d. 7 days at 22C- 24C 65. Colored with a blue dye a.use LISS 52. What is the minimum number of a.Antisera A b.do immediate spin platelet required in a platelet b.antisera B c.Use 22% bovine concentrate prepared from whole c.antisera D d. all of the choices blood by centrifugation (90% of 33. An elution technique which releases sampled units)? antibody by destroying the RBCs A. 5.5 x 10^11 a. Buffering b. 3 x 10^10 b. Digitonin c. 3 x 10^11 c. Lui freeze thaw D. 5.5 x 10 ^10 34. Deferral of donor who is taking aspirin 53. RBCs can be frozen for: a.3 days A. 12 months b.1week b. 1 year c.1month c. 5 years d.1year d. 10 years 35. Blood lost into the abdominal cavity is 54. What is the minimum number of collected by a machine, washed, and platelets required in apheresis transfused back into patient component (90% of sampled unit)? a.intraoperative hemodilution A. 3 x 10^11 b.postoperative collection b. 4 x 10^11 c.Intraoperative salvage c. 2 x 10^11 d.preoperative collection d. 3.5 x 10^11 MTAP-2 ASSESSMENT 2_ ON MHC, NON- a.IgG 49. Incompatible blood transfusion SPECIFIC IMMUNE RESPONSE, ADAPTIVE B.IgM - B IMMUNE RESPONSE, AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE, C.both HYPERSENSITIVITY (2nd Prelim)- IS 22. Stimulates B cell to proliferate into MTAP-2 (2nd Prelim Exam)- IS memory cell or plasma cell 1. In transplantation, For numbers 1-10, use the following choices: A. Leukocidines immunosuppressive drugs are A. MHC – class I B. cytokines administered to B. MHC – class II C. monocytes a.protect the patient from C. MHC – class III 23. Anamnestic response adverse reaction of 1. Complement proteins A. Primary antibody response transplantation - C b.Secondary antibody b.Lower the activity of the 2. Presents antigen to T cells response immune system of the patient - B For numbers 24-30, use the following choices c.neither 3. Presents antigen to CTLs A. HLA-BB 2. Which of the following is a - A B. HLA-DR2 heterografting? 4. Found nearly every nucleated cell C. HLA-DR3 a.liver transplat from father to a surface D. HLA-DR4 son - A b.skin grafting between identical 5. Heat shock proteins 24. Rheumatoid arthirits twins - C - D c.organ transplant from a 6. Found on the surface of a monocyte 25. Multiple sclerosis female donor to male donor - B - B d.None of the above 7. HLA-E 26. Myasthenia gravis 3. Which of the following that - A - C or B transplantation is not possible? 8. HLA-DR 27. Sjogren syndrome A. Transplant from an AA+ donor - B - C to AB+ recipient 9. Not associated with cell membrane 28. Type 1 diabetes B. Transplant from a Father to a surfaces - A son both OO+ - C 29. Graves disease C. transplant from AA+ male to 10. Dendritic cells - A a AA+ female - B 30. Pemphigus vulgaris D. none of the above - D 4. The presence of a recipient’s antibody 11. Which among the following is NOT a 31. Autoantibody in CREST syndrome against antigen of donor will lead to mediator cell of the non-specific - Centromere a.acute rejection immune response? b.Hyperacute rejection A. Basophil For numbers 32-39, use the following choices c. chronic rejection B. eosinophil A. Homogenous 5. Immunoglobulin associated with Type C. mast cells B. Peripheral 1 hypersensitivity D. platelets C. Speckled a.IgA 12. All component proteins are D. Nucleolar b.IgG synthesized by the liver E. Centromere c.IgE a.true 32. Anti-smith d.IgM b.False - C 6. Immediate reaction is seen in what 13. Seen in impaired production of toxic 33. Evenly stains the nuclei type of hypersensitivity oxygen molecules used by phagocytes - A A.Type I to kill ingested bacteria 34. Stains two or three large fluorescent b.Type II a.Chronic granulomatous areas within the nucleus c.Type III disease - D d.Type IV b.Myeloperoxidase 35. Anti-centromere 7. Hypersensitivity mediated by T cell 14. Activated complement pathway for - E A.Type I bacterial infections 36. Stains as discrete speckled pattern b.Type II a.classical pathway - E c.Type III B.Alternative pathway (best 37. Stains the edge of the nuclei d.Type IV answer) - B 8. Involved destruction of self-antigens C.Lectin pathway 38. Histones by the autoimmune antibodies 15. C5a and C3a are - A A.Type I A. Chemotaxins 39. Anti-lamins b.Type II B. opsonins - B c.Type III C. anaphylatoxins d.Type IV 16. Cr1 and Cr35 40. Rheumatoid antibody 9. HDFN is A. CI inhibitor A. IgG A.Type I B. MAC inhibitors B. IgM b.Type II C. complement receptor C. both c.Type III D. Anaphylatoxin inactivator 41. Rheumatoid arthritis d.Type IV 17. CH50 is used to measure the activity A. IgG 10. Asthma is of the classical pathway B. IgM A.Type I a.True C. both b.Type II b.false 42. An inflammation of the salivary and c.Type III 18. Deficiency of this acute phase lacrimal glands d.Type IV reactants causes premature loss of A. SLE 11. Type I, II, and III hypersensitivity are elasticity in the lungs and liver damage B. MCTD immunoglobulin-mediated reactions. A. CRP C.Sjogren syndrome They all involved IgM and IgG to elicit B. ceruloplasmin the hypersensitivity reactions (2pts) C. alpha1-antitrypsin For numbers 43-49, use the following choices: - First statement true, second D. haptoglobin A. Type I hypersensitivity statement false 19. The principal copper-transportation B. Type II hypersensitivity 12. As type I hypersensitivity reaction is an protein (use same choices in no. 18) C. Type III hypersensitivity immunoglobulin-mediated reaction it A. CRP D. Type IV hypersensitivity involves antigen-antibody complex as B. ceruloplasmin 43. Anaphylaxis mediators C. alpha1-antitrypsin - A a.true D. haptoglobin use same 44. Complement-mediated cell lysis b.False 20. Associated with T cell antigen receptor - B 13. Both types II and III hypersensitivity A. CD8 and MHC 1 45. Serum sickness reactions are dependent on antigen B. CD8 and MHC II - C and antibody complex C. CD4 and MHC 1 46. Delayed hypersensitivity a.True D. CD4, and MHC II - D b.false 47. Contact dermatitis - D 21. Early antibody produced in an 48. Arthus reaction infection - C  14. The clinical manifestations of type I A 32. Anaphylaxis D. IgE hypersensitivity is due to B 33. Complement-mediated cell lysis E. IgM a.allergen C 34. Serum sickness b.Histamine released D 35. Delayed hypersensitivity 21. The substance produced in response of a c.IgE D 36. Contact dermatitis foreign invader d.all of the above C 37. Arthus reaction A. antigen 15. Cytokines are released in type IV B 38. Incompatible blood transfusion B. antibody hypersensitivity reaction when an C. both antibody sensitized the T cells A.true MTAP-2 ONLINE ASSESSMENT-3 (Midterm)-IS b.False 22. The region where specificity of an antibody to is 16. Destruction of cells is taking place in 1. White blood cells are from antigen is expressed a.Type I only A. myeloid lineage A. constant region of the heavy chain b.Types II and III B. lypmhoid lineage and light chain c.Type I, II, III C. both B. variable region of the heavy chain d.Type I, II, III and IV D. neither and light chain e. Type IV only 2. Oxygen-dependent pathways to which C. both 17. Destruction of self antigens is/are neutrophils act as an active phagocytes 23. The area where antigens attaches to the seen in A. cyclo-oxygenase pathway antibody a.Type II B. lipo-oxygenase pathway A. variable region b.Type III C. either B. epitope c.Both D. neither C. paratope 18. The antigen is possibly free in the 3. Myeloperoxidase is a secondary granules found D. none of the above circulation in young neutrophils 24. Product of B cell proliferation in response to a. Type I and II A. true new antigen b. Type II and IV B. false A. mast cell c. Type I and III 4. Indicator of parasitic infection B. plasma cell 19. Incompatible transfusion elicits what A. neutrophil C. lymphocytes type of sensitivity B. basophil 25. Kappa and lambda chains are A.Type I C. eosinophil A. light chain b.Type II D. none of the above B. heavy chain c.Type III 5. Substance released by basophils and mast cells 26. MHC are surface proteins which aid in the d.Type IV in response to allergic reactions detection of both autoantibodies and 20. Activators of the classical A. histamine alloantibodies complement pathway B. leukotrienes A. true C. prostaglandins B. false D. all of the above 27. The MHC are involved in both tissue and blood A. Presence of antigen 6. Immunoglobulin that is involved in allergic compatibility B. Presence of an antigen reaction A. true and antibody complex A. Ig A B. false C. both B. Ig D 28. MHC 1 is associated with C. Ig E A. CD4 For numbers 21-28, use the following choices D. Ig G B. CD8 E. Ig M C. both A. Homogenous 7. Activators of macrophages 29. Associated with MHC II B. Peripheral A. phagocytosis of antigens A. beta 1 microglobulin C. Speckled B. T cell derived cytokines B. beta 2 microglobulin D. Nucleolar C. Deither C. both E. Centromere D. neither D. either 8. T-lymphocytes associated with B cells in the 30. The alpha chain of MHC 1 that directly binds production of antibodies with T cell co receptor and is with transmembrane 21. Anti-smith A. T-helper cell 1 A. alpha 1 - C B. T-helper cell 2 B. alpha 2 22. Evenly stains the nuclei C. cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. alpha 3 - A D. Tregs D. none 23. Stains two or three large fluorescent 9. A marker of T lymphocytes which is associated 31. MHC II: 1. surface protein; 2. present areas within the nucleus with mononuclear phagocytes and B cells endogenous antigens; 3. present exogenous - D A. CD4 antigens 4. present intracellular antigens 24. Anti-centromere B. CD8 A. 1,2,3 are correct - E C. none of the above B. C1 & 3 are correct 25. Stains as discrete speckled pattern C. 2 & 4 are correct - E For numbers 10 - 18, use the following choices: D. E1,2,3,4 are correct 26. Stains the edge of the nuclei A. naturally acquired active immunity; E. only 4 is correct - B B. artificially acquired active immunity; 32. It can only recognize non-self antigens that are 27. Histones C. naturally acquired passive immunity; in complex with MHC - A D. artificially acquired passive immunity A. B cells 28. Anti-lamins B. T cells - B A 10. Recovered from an infection C. both B 11. Vaccinated with DPT (diptheria, pertusis, 33. Antigens recognize by either CD4 or CD8 in 29. Rheumatoid antibody tetanus) MHC complex A. IgG C 12. Mother's milk to newborn A. polypepetide B. IgM B 13. OPV (oral polio vaccine) B. polysaccharide C. both D 14. Anti-rabies vaccine C. peptide 30. Rheumatoid arthritis B 15. Hepatitis B vaccination D. lipids A. IgG A 16. Recovered from chicken pox infection E. Aall of the above B. IgM D 17. Tetanus toxoid vaccination 34. Requires the antigen presenting cells (APCs) to C. both C 18. Transfer of antibodies from maternal fragmentize the antigens for presentation 31. An inflammation of the salivary and circulation to the developing fetus via crossing A. MHC I lacrimal glands placental barrier B. MHC II A. SLE C. AMHC III B. MCTD 19. A pentamer antibody 35. Activators of the classical complement C.Sjogren syndrome A. IgA pathway B. IgG A. presence of an antigen For numbers 32-37, use the following choices: C. IgD B. presence of an antigen and D. IgE antibody complex A. Type I hypersensitivity E. IgM C. both B. Type II hypersensitivity 20. An Ig which crosses placental barrier C. Type III hypersensitivity A. IgA D. Type IV hypersensitivity B. IgG C. IgD 36. C1q only requires one molecule of IgG to be 52. In which of the following that transplantation is 66. Heating the test sample in complement activated. This is the first protein in the classical not possible? fixation is to complement pathway A. Transplant from an AA+ donor to A. activate the complement existing in A. First statement is true. Second AB+ recipient the test sample statement is false. B. Transplant from a Father to a son B. inactivate the complement B. First statement is false. Second both OO+ existing in the test sample statement is true. C. transplant from AA+ male to a AA+ C. either C. Both statements are true. female D. neither D. Both statments are false. D. Anone of the above 67. Complement fixation test is 37. Activates the C4 to C4a and C4b 53. Hypersensitivity mediated by T cell A. a hemagglutination test A. C1q A. type I B. a hemolysis test B. C1r B. type II C. a precipitation test C. C1s C. type III 68. A colorless test solution in ELISA indicates D. Aall of the above D. type IV A. positive result 38. The attachment of C4b to the Ag-Ab complex B. negative result will cleave 54. Which of the following is a heterografting? 69. The enzyme in ELISA is linked to the A. C2 A. liver transplant from father to a son A. antigen B. CC3 B. skin grafting between identical B. antibody primary or secondary C. C5 twins C. A colorless substrate 39. The C4bC2a will cleave C. organ transplant from a female A. C2 donor to a male donor 70. SDS PAGE is an B. C3 D. none of the above A. enzymatic test C. C5 55. HDFN is B. electrophoresis test 40. C4bC2a is the classical complement A. type I C. A chromatographic test A. C2 convertase B. Ctype II 71. SDS PAGE is for the detection of B. C3 convertase C. type III A. lipids C. C4 convertase D. Atype IV B. proteins D. C5 convertase 56. Asthma is C. sugars 41. Binding to this complement molecule result to A. type I D. Aall of the above the release of histamine in mast cells and B cells B. type II 72. PCR measures A. C2a C. type III A. DNA B. C3a D. type IV B. RNA C. C4a 57. In transplantation, immunosuppresive drugs C. both D. C2b are administered to 73. Splitting of the complement genomic material E. C3b A. protect the patient from adverse in PCR F. C4b reaction of transplantation A. denaturation 42. Mediate the host defense functions of B. lower the activity of the immune B. annealling neutrophils and macrophages system of the patient C. extension A. C3a C. Aneither 74. Fluorophore in PCR is use in B. C4a 58. Immunoglobulin associated with Type 1 A. denaturation C. C5a hypersensitivity B. annealling 43. The continuous activation of alternative A. IgA C. extension complement pathway is due to the continuous B. CIgG 75. Polymerase enzyme in PCR is use during hydrolysis of C. IgD A. denaturation A. C2 D. IgE B. annealling B. C3 E. IgM C. extension C. C4 59. Choose the one that deviates among the group 76. HLA matching is use for D. AC5 on CEA A. blood transfusion 44. C5 convertase of alternative pathway A. breast B. organ transplant A. C4bC2aC3b B. colon C. both B. C3bBbC3b C. Dovarian 77. HLA matching involves C. AC3bDdC3a D. lungs A. RNA matching between the 45. Tumor markers are specific to a certain tissue. 60. Which one of the following do not belong to the recipient and donor A. true group on prostatic cancer? B. DNA matching between the B. false A. ACP recipient and donor 46. By measuring the tumor marker, the size as B. AFP C. both well as the activity of the tissue of origin of the C. APSA tumor is detected 61. Choose one that deviates from the group in MTAP-2 - MIDTERM EXAM- IS A. true killing the cancer cells B. false A. phagocytes 1. ASO titer means 47. For tumor markers to be specific it must elicit B. MHC a. 1 tube with hemolysis different immunological properties. C. antibodies b. 1 tube with no hemolysis A. true D. natural killer cells c. last tube with hemolysis B. false 62. Which of the following deviates from the group d. last tube with no hemolysis 48. Which of the following is not a clinical use of on tumor markers? measuring tumor marker? A. AC P 2. ASO is a A. diagnosis B. HCG a. Neutralization assay B. treatment monitoring C. LDH b. hemagglutination C. chance of recovery c. latex agglutination D. patient management 63. Immunofluorescence is E. none of the above A. hemagglutination technique 3. Streptozyme test is indicative of an infection 49. Identify one that does not belong to the group B. hemolysis technique if there is in titer between acute and A. HCG C. precipitation technique convalescent sera. B. ACP D. staining technique a. 2-fold rise C. alpha-feto protein 64. Determination of the particular location of an b. 3-fold rise D. estrogen antigen immunofluorescence is made possible c. 4-fold rise 50. Which does not belong to the group? with the monoclonal antibody used in the A. CA 125 procedure 4. Which of the following is NOT a T-cell B. ACP A. true subsets cell marker? C. PSA B. false a. CDZ D. none of the above 65. Direct immunofluorescence utilizes several b. CD3 51. Which does not belong to the group on fluorochrome labelled antibody increasing its c. CD4 transplantation? sensitivity d. CD5 A. allograft A. true B. isograft B. false 5. A reactive complement fixation test C. xenograft a. Absence of hemolysis D. autograft b. presence of hemolysis c.hemagglutination 6. The reactive complement fixation test in no. 41. Serine protease inhibitor in deficiency may 5 would mean 20. Antibody production is result to loss elasticity on lungs a. Complement is fixed a.. Cellular immunity a. Haptoglobin b. complement is not fixed b. humoral immunity b. CRP c. absence of complement c. combination c. fibrinogen d. ceruloplasmin 7. Precipitation uses 21. Acute graft rejection e. alpha-1-entitrypsin a. Soluble antigens a. Occurs within 24 hrs of transplantation b. insoluble antigens b. Occurs within weeks of transplantation 42. Removes free hemoglobin from the c. captured antigens c. Occurs months to years after transplantation ciculation a. Haptoglobin b. CRP 8. Agglutination uses 22. Possible cause of hyperacute rejection c. fibrinogen a. Soluble antigens a. ABO phenotype d. ceruloplasmin b. insoluble antigens b. MHC 1 antibodies e. alpha-1-antitrypsin c. captured antigens c. both 43. Principal copper transportation protein 9. Epitopes are 23. Uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of Il a. Haptoglobin a. Antigenic determinants cells b. CRP b, receptor site for antibody a. Primary amyloidosis c. fibrinogen c. both b. multiple myeloma d. ceruloplasmin c. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia e. alpha-1-antitrypsin 10. Prozone is a. Excess antibodies 24. Lymphoproliferative disease 44. Which of the following is not an b. excess antigens a. Primary amyloidosis anyphylatoxin? c. equal concentration b. multiple myeloma a. C2a c. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia b. C3a 11. Postzone is c. C4a a. Excess antibodies 25. Mutation in the gene which involve with d. C5a b, excess antigens cytoskeletal reorganization c. equal concentration a. Ataxia-telangectasia 45. Which of the following is an opsonin? b. Bare lymphocyte syndrome a.C2b 12. Affinity is c. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome. b. C3b a. Strength of the interaction between a single c. C4b antibody-binding site and a several epitope 26. A marked deficiency of all classes of d. C5b (multivalent) immunoglobulins 46. Which is not Included in the membrane b. Strength of the interaction between a a. Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia attack complex? single antibody-binding site and a single b. Ataxia-telangiectasia a. C4 epitope (divalent) c. Hyper ig-M syndrome b. C5 c. Antibody's greatest affinity for a pardcular c. C6 antigen For numbers 27-35, use the following choices: d. C7 A. Type I hypersensitivity e C8 13. Avidity is (use same choices in no. 12) B. Type II hypersensitivity a. Strength of the interaction between a single C. Type III hypersensitivity For numbers 47-54, use the following choices antibody-binding site and a several epitope D. Type IV hypersensitivity A. Homogenous (multivalent) B. Peripheral b. Strength of the interaction between a single A 27. anaphylaxis C. Speckled antibody-binding site and a single epitope B 28. complement-mediated cell lysis D. Nucleolar (divalent) C 29. serum sickness E. Centromere c. Antibody's greatest affinity for a particular D 30. delayed hypersensitivity antigen D 31. contact dermatitis C 47. anti-smith A 32. asthma A 48 evenly stains the nuclel 14. Heterophile antibodies are examples of B 33. HTR D 49. staine two or three large fluorescent areas a. Specificity C 34. Immune complexes within the nucleus b. cross-reactivity D 35. glomerulonephritis. E 50. manti-centromere c. avidity E 51. stains as discrete speckled pattern 36. Considered a chronic progressive B 52. stains the edge of the nuclet 15. Marker for monitoring cancer therapy inflammatory disease with demyelinization of A 53. histones particularly for liver the nerves B 54.anti-lamins a. CEA a. Myasthenia gravis b. AFP b. Multiple sclerosis 55. Khuematoid antibody c. HCG c. Graves disease A. IgG d. PSA d. Hasimotos disease B. IgM C. both 16. Highest levels of this marker are found in 37. Patients exhibit antibdies to acetylcholine metastatic disease receptors a.CEA a. Myasthenia gravis b. AFP b. Multiple sclerosis c. HCG c. Graves disease d. PSA d. Hasimotos disease 17. An abnormal mass of tissue 38. Patients would have increased IgG a. Benign tumor concentration in the CSF b. malignant tumor a. Myasthenia gravis c. metastatic b. Multiple sclerosis d. neoplasm c. Graves disease d. Hasimotos disease 18. Secondary tumor derived from malignant primary tumor 39. Both free and total 13 and 14 are elevated a. Benign tumor a. Graves disease b. malignant tumor b. Hashimoto disease c. metastatic c. both d. neoplasm 1 40. Detection of antithyroid antibodies 19. Typically mild and non-progressive tumor a. Graves disease a. Benign tumor b. Hashimoto disease b. malignant tumor c. both c. metastatic d. neoplasm MTAP-2 PRE-FINAL ASSESSMENT MTAP-2 =PRE-FINAL EXAM- IS- MTAP-2 PRE-FINALS- IS REPEATED Q’S FROM ALL IS= (NO For numbers 1-5, use the following choices ASSESSMENT COPY) A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B MTAP-2 FINALS- ONLINE ASS. BACTE FOR NUMBER 1-5 C. Hepatitis C A. HEPA A D. Hepatitis D B. HEPA B 1) A pore forming toxin that especially C. HEPA C damages the white blood cells are D 1. Unclassified single stranded RNA virus D. HEPA D a. Leucocidin B 2. antibody to its core when markedly increase D 1.unclassified single stranded RNA virus b. exfoliatin indicates acute infection B 2.antibody to its core when markedly c. enterotoxin D 3. only HBsAg positive individuals are tested for increase indicates acute infection d. exotoxin its possible infection to this virus D 3.only HBsAg positive individuals are tested A 4.. transmission is fecal-oral route for its possible infection to this virus 2) A toxin responsible for food C 5 both IgM and IgG are detectable for years A 4.trabsmission is fecal oral route poisoning 2 to 6 hours after C 5.both IgM and IgG are detectable for years consumption of the contaminated For numbers 6-10, use the following choices food with stayphylococcus aaureus A. VDRL FOR NUMBER 6-10 a. Leucocidin B. RPR A. VDRL b. exfoliatin C. USR B. RPR c. enterotoxin D. TP-PA C. USR d. Exotoxin E. FTA-ABS 6 D. TP-PA E. FTA-ABS 3) A virulent factor exhibited by C 6. uses serum specimen C 6.uses unheated serum specimen staphylococcus aureus which A 7. mainly limited to use on A 7.mainly limited to use on CSF decreases opsonization D 8. Liposomes are added to the antigen D 8.liposomes are added to the antigen (susceptibility to phagocytosis) by B 9. uses charcoal particles B 9.uses charcoal properties binding with igG E 10. indirect antibody test E 10.indirect antibody test a. Capsule b. protein a 11. Lyme antibody which is directed 11. lyme antibody which is directed against c. cell wall againstOspC and flagellin sub units OspC and flagellin sub units A. IgG a. IgG 4) Recovery from prosthetic valves and B. IgM b. IgM intravwnous catethers is associated C. IgA c.IgA with which staphylococcus spp. D. IgE d.IgE a. S. aureus b. S. epidermidis 12. A reactive ELISA test is confirmatory for 12. a reactive ELISA test is confirmatory for c. S. saprophyticus Lyme Lyme A True B. false a.True 5) Staphylococcus saprophyticus is b. False best differentiated from 13 A reactive test result for Rubella staphylococcus epidermidis by A. Hemagglutination 13. a reactive test result for Rubella resistance to B. no hemagglutination a.Hemagglutination a. Lysostaphine C. hemolysis b.no hemaggutination b. novobiocin D. No hemolysis c.hemolysis c. penicillin d. no hemolysis d. Bacitracin 14. Burkitt lymphoma is associated with malignant neoplasm of B lymphocytes 14. Burkitt Lymphoma is associated with 6) The followimg result where A True B. false malignant neoplasm of B lymphocytes observed by using tube at tube a.true b.false coagulase test: coagulase test at 15. Diagnostic of IM in Davidsohn differential 4hrs=poaitive;coagulase at 8 test is an agglutination to both absorption with 15. Diagnostic IM in Davidson differential test is hours=negative; complete guinea pigs and beef RBCs after the addition of an agglutination to both absorption with hemolysis on BAP; acid production horse RBC guianea pigs and beef RBCs after the addition on MSA. What is the most nprobable A. True B. false of horse RBC identification a. true a. S. aureus 16. The DNA-containing hepatitis virus b. false b. S. epidermidis A. Hepatitis A c. S. saprophyticus B. Hepatitis B 16. the DNA containing hepatitis virus C. Hepatitis C a.HEPA A 7) Which of the following is the best D. Hepatitis D b.HEPA B antibiotic to treat MRSA c.HEPA C a. ampicillin 17. At the end of the acute phase, this hepatitis d.HEPA D b. amoxicillin B antibody begins to rise c. penicillin A. Anti-HBc 17.at the end of the acute phase, this hepatitis d. none from the choices B. Anti-HBs B anitibody begins to rise C. Anti-HBe a.anti-HBc 8) MRSA can be transmitted via direct b.anti-HBs contact 18. The predominnat strain of HIV c.anti-HBe a. true A.HIV 1 b. false B. HIV 2 18.the predominant strain of HIV C. HIV 3 a.HIV1 9) Streptococcus spp exhibit which of b.HIV2 the following properties 19. HIV is c. HIV3 a. aerobic, oxidase positive and A. DNA virus catalase positive B. RNA virus 19.HIV is b. facultative anaerobe, oxidase a.DNA virus negative and catalase negative 20 ELISA is a b. RNA virus c. facultative anaerobe, beta- A Screening test c.Both hemolytic, and catalase positive B. confirmatory test d. maybe alpha, beta or gamma C. diagnostic test 20.ELISA is hemolytric, catalase positive a.Screening test b.confirmatory test 10) Which group of streptococci is c.diagnostic test associated with erythrogenic toxin production a. grp a b. grp b c. grp c d. grp d  a. ocular lens b. objective lens c. illuminator 11) Bacitracin a disk are used for the 20. plamids are: d. light source presumptive identification of which 1. Target for genetic recombination; group of beta hemolytic 2. Composed of double stranded 30. assessing the biomolecular streptococci DNA; make up of COVID 19 a.grp a 3. Extrachromosomal circular DNA; a. BSL 1 b. grp b 4.the circular chromosome b. BSL 2 c. grp c a. 1 and 3 c. BSL 3 d. grp d b. 2 and 4 d. BSL 4 c. 1,2, and 3 12) optochin especially differentiate d. 1,2,3 and 4 31. you are working on an organisms these two alpha hemolytic e. 4 only posing moderate hazard to streptococcus laboratorians and the environment a. streptococcus pyogenes and s. viridans 21. which of the following is a. BSL 1 b. S. pneumoniaea and S. viridans facultative anaerobe? b. BSL 2 c. S. pneumoniae and S. pyogenes a. bacteria A grown in an c. BSL 3 environment with or without d. BSL4 13. Toxin responsible for the environment complete hemolysis of group A b. bacteria B grown in an environment 32. Working on organisms that are streptococcus with 5% CO2 transmitted via aerosol but with a. streptolysin c. bacteria C grown in an environment available vaccine b. enterotoxin without oxygen a. BSL 1 c. exotoxin d. both bacteria A and C b. BSL 2 22. a recombinant plasmid can be c. BSL 3 14. The L-pyrrolidonyl-beta- inserted into bacterial, yeast or d. BSL4 napthylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test cultured animal cells in a process is a presumptive test for which called? 33. which of the following is true of streptococci? a. pasteurizatrion Neisseria gonorrhea ? a. group a and D b. sterilization a. adversely affected by fatty acids b. group a and group B beta hemolytic c. transformation in clinical specimens c. non-group A and B beta haemolytic d. fermentation b. rapid growth on sheep blood agar c. ferments glucose and maltose 15. a pure culture of beta- hemolytic 23. which of the following means d. ONPG positive streptococci recovered from a leg hospital would ulcer gave the following acquired infection? 34. Identifying characteristic of reactions: CAMP test= a. opportunistic staphylococcus spp; positive;PYR=negative; Bacitracin= b. nosocomial 1. Gram-positive; resistant; Hippurate hydrolysis= c. nucleois 2. Beta-hemolytic; positive;6.5%salt=positive. The d. ribosome free region 3.catalase posititive; most identification is 4. Coagulase positive a. group A strep 24. surface appendage of bacteria a. 1 and 3 b. group B strep meant for cell to cell attachment b. 2 and 4 c. group D strep during conjugation c. 1,2 and 3 d. group D non-enterococci a. flagella d. 1,2,3, and 4 b. cilia d. 4 only 16.many alpha hemolytic c. pili streptococci recovered from a d. spore 35. identifying characteristic of wound were found to be penicillin staphylococcus pyogenes; resistant. Given the following 25. The region where bacterial 1. Elaborates pyrrolidonyla results, what is the most likely genome is located arylamidase enzyme; identification?bile esculin=positive; a. nucleus 2. Zone of inhibition with bacitracin hippurate hydrolysis= positive;bile b. cytoplasm A disk; solubility=negative;6.5% salt c. nucleoid 3. Complete hemolysis on SBA positive d.ribosome free region 4. Agglutinate on latex due to cell wall a. enterococcus faecalis protein A b. streptococcus pyogenes 26. what is the purpose of a biosafety a. 1 and 2 c. streptococcus pneumonia cabinet in a microbiology b. 2 and 4 d. group B streptococci laboratory? c. 1,2, and 3 a. to sterilize materials, such as media d. 1,2,3 and 4 17. In the CAMP test a single streak and glassware e. 4 only of a beta haemolytic streptococcus b. to prevent samples from is placed perpendicular to a streak contaminating the environment and 36. identifying characteristic of S. of beta- lysin-producing from being contaminated by the agalactiae; staphylococcus aureus. After environment. 1. Elaborate hippuricase enzyme; incubation a zone of increased lysis c. to provide a proper temperature for 2. Elaborate pyrrolidonyl arylamidase in the shape of an arrowhead is microbes to grow enzyme nnoted, which indicate presumptive d. for long term storage of microbes at 3. Absence of zone of inhibition on identification of low temperatures bacitracin; a. S. bovis 4. Strictly in hibits gamma hemolysis b. S. agalactiae 27. the two knobs used for focusing a. 1 and 2 c. S. pyogenes the image include fine adjustment b. 2 and 4 d. S. equinus knob and? c. 1,2, and 3 a. course adjustment knob d. 1,2,3 and 4 18. N. meningitis are encapsulated b. diaphragm e. 4 only organism. c. stage a. true d. objective lens 37. identifying characteristic of the b. false staphylococcus spp which is the 28. on the microscope stage, what is common cause of endocarditis: 19. bacteria reproduce by binary used to hold the glass slide in olace 1. Zone of inhibition with optochin; fission. The parent bacterial cell and prevent it from moving? 2. Complete hemolysis on SBA; divides into two daughter cells a. stage clip 3. Elaborate hippurace enzyme; sexually. b. stage 4.withstand bile salts a. first statement is true. Second c. fine adjustment knob a. 1 and 2 statement is false d. condenser b. 2 and 4 b. first statement is false. Second c. 1,2, and 3 statement is true 29. total magnification is the product d. 1,2,3 and 4 c. both statements are true of two values: power of eyepiece and e. 4 only d. both statements are false power of  48. the phase in gram-staining where differentiation takes place as to wether it is a gram positive or gram negative organism is the application BELOW-NOT SURE ANSWERS of the secondary dye or the counterstain 38. identifying characteristic of VRE a. true streptococci spp: b. false 1. Exhibit blackening of the bile esculin medium; 49. heat fixing the bacterial smear 2. Elaborate pyrrolidonyl prior to staining is to kill the arylamidase enzyme; mostly organism gamma hemolytic; a. true 4. Grows on 6.5% NaCl b. false a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 50. EMB is a differential medium as it c. 1,2, and 3 only allows growth of a gram d. 1,2,3 and 4 negative organisms while inhibiting e. 4 only growth of the gram-positive oragnisms 39. the catalase test determines a. true a. the ability of the organism to b. false produce hydrogen peroxide b. the ability of the organism to 51. a red slant and yellow butt in TSI produce water means c. the ability of organism to oxygen a. 1 sugar fermented d. the ability of organism to split b. 2 sugar fermented hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen c.3 sugars fermented e. all of the above d. invalid results 40. the slide coagulase test is for 52. the optimal growth temperature a. bound coagulase for all species of Yersinia is b. free coagulase a. 10-15 c. both b. 15-20 d. neither c. 20-25 d. 25-30 41. MSA is a selective medium as it only selects organism that 53. a positive indole reaction is a. able to grow with mannitol characteristic of b. able to grow with 6.5% salt a. Escherichia coli c. able to grow 7.5% salt b. Proteus mirabilis d. able to grow with glucose c. Salmonella cholere-suis d. serratia marcescens 42. isolated colonies are obtained in what quadrant of the blood agar 54. lack of motility is a characteristic plate? of a. 1ST a. Enterobacter aerogenes b. 2ND b. Morganella morganii c. 3RD c. salmonella typhi d. 4TH d. Klebsiella pneumoniae 43. evaluation of the hemolytic patterns on SBA is done through 55. In gourping Shigella organisms, a. evaluating pattern on top of the agglutination by group B anti sera medium indicates that the species is: b. evaluating pattern at the bottom of A. Shigella dysenteriae the medium b. Shigella flexneri c. evaluating pattern at the side of the c. Shigella boydii medium d. Shigella sonnii 44. the BAP is use to detect presence 56. which genera of of the enterobacteriaciae are usually non- a. clotting ability of the organism motile at 36 C? b. elaboration of hemolytic enzyme a. Shigella, Klebsiella, and Yersinia by the organism b. Proteus, Providencia, and c. both Salmonella d. neither c. Escherichia, edwardsiella, and Enterobacter 45. optochin test is carried out using d. Serratia, Morganella, and Hafnia what medium? a. MSA 57. a positive phenylalanine b. EMB deaminase reaction is c. BAP characteristic of d. MAC conkey a. Serratia liquefaciens b. Proteus vuigaris 46. the bile esculin test is carried out c. Klebsiella pneumoniae using d. Moraxella catarrhalis a. butt tube b. slant tube c. semi solid medium d. broth/liquid medium 47. the 6.5% NaCl tube test is carried =MTAP 2- FINAL EXAM- out using BACTE- a. butt tube b. slant tube (NO COPY)= c. semi solid medium d. broth/liquid medium BELOW ARE ONLY RECALLS FROM BACTE SUB. 42. Pseudomonas has been responsible for 9. Identifying characteristic of E. coli on EMB serious nosocomial infections. It is associated a. Pink/red colonies ALL FROM 3RD YR BACTE RECALLS with hospital environments and equipments. b. shiny opaque colonies c. metallic sheen 43. Stenotrophomas maltophilia is one of the 1. Haemophilus organism are two clinically wncountered non-fermentative For numbers 10-13, use the following choices a. Cocci bacili. It is acquires as transient flora from a. EHEC/ b. ETEC /c. EIEC /d. EPEC b. Bacilli hospital. EPEC 10. watery diarrhea c. Coccobacilli EHEC 11. A hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) 44. Francisella is potential agent of EIEC 12. bloody diarrhea 2. Routinely use for culture Haemophilus bioterrorism. Humans may acquire the infection ETEC 13. severe epidemic diarrhea a. Blood agar by inhalation. b. Chocolate agar For numbers 14-17, use the following choices 45. Brucella can be isolated from aputum. It a. Serog A b. Sero B c. Sero C d. Serog D 3. Hemophilus elicits satellitism with requires BSL 2 in handling the clinical specimen. C 14. Shigella boydii Staphylococcus aureus D 15. Shigella sonnei 46.. Burkholderia mallei causes glanders. It is A 16. Shigella dysenteriae 4. Haemophilus app. requiring both X and V also considered as a potential bioterrorism B 17. Shigella flexneri factors for growth agent. a. H. influenzae & H. aegyptius 18. Which of the following is not true for b. H. influenxae & H. ducreyi Eneterobacter? c. H. influenza & H. Hemolyticus 47.. Border-Gengou agar is a a. Indole negative potato infusion b. citrate positive 5. Causes eye infection followed by Brazillian c. H25 negative purpuric fever