Module 6 - ChatGBT.pdf

1. Which of the following is a key output of schedule management planning? - A) Risk management plan - B) Scope statement - C) Schedule management plan - D) Project budget Correct Answer: C --- 2. What does the schedule management plan define? - A) How to manage project risks - B) The timeline fo...

1. Which of the following is a key output of schedule management planning? - A) Risk management plan - B) Scope statement - C) Schedule management plan - D) Project budget Correct Answer: C --- 2. What does the schedule management plan define? - A) How to manage project risks - B) The timeline for stakeholder meetings - C) The methodology for developing and controlling the project schedule - D) The allocation of project resources Correct Answer: C --- 3. Which scheduling technique analyzes activity sequences, durations, and resource requirements to develop a project schedule? - A) Critical Path Method (CPM) - B) Earned Value Management - C) Monte Carlo simulation - D) Gantt Chart Correct Answer: A --- 4. What is the purpose of a milestone list in project scheduling? - A) To list stakeholders involved in the project - B) To track significant events in the project that have zero duration - C) To allocate resources for each task - D) To document project risks Correct Answer: B --- 5. In the Critical Path Method (CPM), what is the "critical path"? - A) The longest sequence of activities that determines the shortest time to complete the project - B) The path with the most resource constraints - C) The sequence of activities with the most risks - D) The path with the most float Correct Answer: A --- 6. What is a key characteristic of activities on the critical path? - A) They have the most float - B) They have zero float - C) They are the least important tasks - D) They are not linked to project milestones Correct Answer: B --- 7. Which of the following dependencies means that a successor activity cannot start until its predecessor has finished? - A) Finish-to-start (FS) - B) Start-to-start (SS) - C) Finish-to-finish (FF) - D) Start-to-finish (SF) Correct Answer: A --- 8. In a Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), what do the arrows represent? - A) Resource constraints - B) Time estimates - C) Activity dependencies - D) Milestones Correct Answer: C --- 9. What is the difference between a mandatory and discretionary dependency in scheduling? - A) Mandatory dependencies are required by law, while discretionary dependencies are flexible - B) Mandatory dependencies are inherent to the project work, while discretionary dependencies are based on best practices - C) Discretionary dependencies have no effect on the schedule, while mandatory dependencies do - D) Mandatory dependencies are external, and discretionary dependencies are internal Correct Answer: B --- 10. What is the purpose of estimating activity durations? - A) To assign team members to each activity - B) To calculate the project's total cost - C) To determine how long each activity will take to complete - D) To identify potential risks in the project Correct Answer: C --- 11. Which estimating technique uses historical data from similar projects to estimate durations? - A) Three-point estimating - B) Analogous estimating - C) Parametric estimating - D) Bottom-up estimating Correct Answer: B --- 12. In the three-point estimating technique, which distribution gives more weight to the most likely estimate? - A) Triangular distribution - B) Beta distribution (PERT) - C) Normal distribution - D) Exponential distribution Correct Answer: B --- 13. If the optimistic time for an activity is 10 days, the most likely time is 20 days, and the pessimistic time is 30 days, what is the estimated duration using the beta distribution (PERT)? - A) 20 days - B) 23.33 days - C) 15 days - D) 25 days Correct Answer: B --- 14. What is "float" in the context of project scheduling? - A) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date - B) The total time allocated to complete the project - C) The estimated cost of a project activity - D) The total duration of the critical path Correct Answer: A --- 15. Which type of float refers to the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor? - A) Free float - B) Total float - C) Negative float - D) Positive float Correct Answer: A --- 16. What is the primary purpose of resource leveling? - A) To reduce the overall project scope - B) To ensure that resource demand does not exceed available supply - C) To allocate the project budget more effectively - D) To identify and mitigate project risks Correct Answer: B --- 17. How does crashing a project schedule affect the critical path? - A) It shortens the critical path by increasing resource allocation to reduce activity durations - B) It increases the number of activities on the critical path - C) It eliminates all dependencies between activities - D) It increases the total project duration Correct Answer: A --- 18. What is fast tracking in project scheduling? - A) Adding more resources to activities to shorten durations - B) Performing activities in parallel that were initially planned to be done in sequence - C) Reducing the overall scope of the project - D) Delaying the project to ensure all tasks are completed Correct Answer: B --- 19. What is the main risk associated with fast-tracking a project? - A) Increased costs - B) Reduced stakeholder involvement - C) Higher likelihood of rework and errors - D) Delayed project completion Correct Answer: C --- 20. What is a release plan in Agile project management? - A) A detailed timeline for the entire project - B) A high-level plan that outlines the features or outcomes to be delivered over several iterations - C) A list of project risks and mitigation strategies - D) A communication plan for project stakeholders Correct Answer: B --- 21. What is the purpose of the product backlog in Agile? - A) To list all technical requirements for the project - B) To provide a detailed timeline for each sprint - C) To prioritize tasks and features for development - D) To track project risks Correct Answer: C --- 22. How does the sprint backlog differ from the product backlog in Agile? - A) The sprint backlog contains high-level goals, while the product backlog contains detailed tasks - B) The sprint backlog contains items to be completed during a specific sprint, while the product backlog contains all items for the project - C) The sprint backlog contains project risks, while the product backlog contains project scope - D) The sprint backlog is managed by the project manager, while the product backlog is managed by the customer Correct Answer: B --- 23. In Scrum, who is responsible for managing the product backlog? - A) Scrum Master - B) Project Manager - C) Product Owner - D) Development Team Correct Answer: C --- 24. What is the Minimum Viable Product (MVP) in Agile? - A) The first product release with minimal functionality - B) The final product with all features included - C) A high-level design of the product - D) The prototype used for stakeholder feedback Correct Answer: A --- 25. What is the purpose of a Gantt chart in project management? - A) To track the project budget - B) To visualize the project schedule, showing task durations and dependencies - C) To manage stakeholder communication - D) To track resource allocation Correct Answer: B --- 26. In a forward pass calculation, what is the formula for Early Finish (EF)? - A) EF = ES - Duration - B) EF = LS + Duration - C) EF = ES + Duration - D) EF = LF - Duration Correct Answer: C --- 27. In a backward pass calculation, what is the formula for Late Start (LS)? - A) LS = LF - Duration - B) LS = EF + Duration - C) LS = ES - Float - D) LS = LF + Float Correct Answer: A --- 28. How is total float calculated? - A) Float = Early Finish - Late Start - B) Float = Early Start - Late Finish - C) Float = Late Finish - Early Finish - D) Float = Early Start + Late Finish Correct Answer: C --- 29. In Agile, what is the purpose of a sprint board? - A) To manage project costs - B) To visualize the progress of user stories and tasks within a sprint - C) To track the project's critical path - D) To communicate risks to stakeholders Correct Answer: B --- 30. What is a key characteristic of sprints in Scrum? - A) They are flexible and can be extended if necessary - B) They have a fixed duration, usually between 1 to 4 weeks - C) They are managed by the project manager - D) They involve no customer feedback Correct Answer: B --- 31. In which sprint activity does the team discuss what went well and what can be improved? - A) Sprint planning - B) Daily Scrum - C) Sprint review - D) Sprint retrospective Correct Answer: D --- 32. What is a product increment in Scrum? - A) A portion of the product backlog completed in a sprint - B) A list of tasks assigned to team members - C) The entire product delivered at the end of the project - D) A set of project risks identified by the Scrum team Correct Answer: A --- 33. In Agile, what is the role of the development team during a sprint? - A) To manage the product backlog - B) To complete tasks from the sprint backlog and deliver a usable product increment - C) To create a detailed project schedule - D) To manage stakeholder expectations Correct Answer: B --- 34. What is the primary purpose of sprint planning? - A) To assign tasks to stakeholders - B) To identify risks for the upcoming sprint - C) To determine what can be delivered in the next sprint - D) To review the budget for the sprint Correct Answer: C --- 35. Which scheduling technique uses a two-pass approach to calculate early and late start and finish dates for each activity? - A) Critical Path Method (CPM) - B) Monte Carlo simulation - C) Rolling wave planning - D) Earned Value Management (EVM) Correct Answer: A --- 36. What is a "lag" in project scheduling? - A) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the project's completion - B) A delay between the start of one activity and the start of another - C) A duration added between tasks to account for risks - D) An overlap between two activities Correct Answer: B --- 37. Which of the following Agile values emphasizes responding to change over following a plan? - A) Process over tools - B) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation - C) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools - D) Working software over comprehensive documentation Correct Answer: B --- 38. What is the main objective of release planning in Agile? - A) To deliver all features in one iteration - B) To define the high-level plan for delivering features or outcomes across multiple sprints - C) To create a detailed schedule for each sprint - D) To assign user stories to team members Correct Answer: B --- 39. In a Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM), what type of relationship does the finish-to-finish (FF) dependency describe? - A) The successor activity cannot start until the predecessor finishes - B) The predecessor activity must finish before the successor can finish - C) Both the predecessor and successor activities must start at the same time - D) The successor activity cannot finish until the predecessor activity starts Correct Answer: B --- 40. What is resource smoothing in project scheduling? - A) Adjusting activities so resource requirements do not exceed predefined limits without changing the project schedule - B) Allocating additional resources to reduce the project duration - C) Adjusting the project scope to fit resource availability - D) Changing the critical path to manage resource allocation Correct Answer: A --- 41. In Scrum, who is responsible for defining the "Definition of Done"? - A) Scrum Master - B) Development team - C) Product Owner - D) Project Manager Correct Answer: B --- 42. Which of the following best describes a Gantt Chart? - A) A bar chart that represents project tasks along a timeline, showing dependencies and durations - B) A list of risks and their mitigation strategies - C) A tool used to track project budget - D) A report for monitoring stakeholder communication Correct Answer: A --- 43. In Agile, what is a sprint demo or sprint review? - A) A meeting to discuss the project budget - B) A session where the team demonstrates the work completed during the sprint to stakeholders - C) A retrospective meeting for the team - D) A session to plan the next sprint Correct Answer: B --- 44. Which of the following is an Agile technique for breaking down work into manageable tasks? - A) Critical Path Method (CPM) - B) Sprint board - C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) - D) Product Increment Correct Answer: B --- 45. In the critical path method (CPM), what is the impact of reducing the duration of activities on the critical path? - A) It increases the project’s total duration - B) It reduces the total project duration - C) It creates additional float - D) It adds more risks to the project Correct Answer: B --- 46. What is the purpose of a project schedule baseline? - A) To track the project’s critical path - B) To provide a fixed reference point for comparing actual performance against planned schedule - C) To determine the project’s budget - D) To assign project tasks Correct Answer: B --- 47. Which Agile concept involves delivering the smallest product that can be tested by users to get feedback quickly? - A) Incremental delivery - B) Fast tracking - C) Minimum Viable Product (MVP) - D) Critical chain Correct Answer: C --- 48. What happens during a forward pass calculation in CPM? - A) The latest start and finish times are calculated - B) The early start and early finish times are calculated - C) The project risks are identified - D) The project budget is finalized Correct Answer: B --- 49. What type of activity dependency is most commonly used in project schedules? - A) Finish-to-start (FS) - B) Finish-to-finish (FF) - C) Start-to-start (SS) - D) Start-to-finish (SF) Correct Answer: A --- 50. What tool helps teams visualize their work during a sprint in Scrum? - A) Product backlog - B) Sprint board - C) Gantt chart - D) Critical path Correct Answer: B