AI Quiz - Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing PDF

4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Answers 1. What is the purpose of identifying the patient before administering an IV solution? Answer: To ensure the right patient receives the intervention and prevent errors Patient identification is a cruci...

4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Answers 1. What is the purpose of identifying the patient before administering an IV solution? Answer: To ensure the right patient receives the intervention and prevent errors Patient identification is a crucial step in the administration of IV solutions to prevent medication errors and ensure patient safety. 2. What is the significance of comparing the IV container label with the MAR/CMAR? Answer: To ensure the correct IV solution will be administered This step is critical in preventing medication errors and ensuring the patient receives the correct treatment. 3. What is the purpose of maintaining aseptic technique when opening sterile packages and IV solutions? Answer: To prevent contamination and infection Aseptic technique is essential in maintaining a sterile environment and preventing the introduction of microorganisms that can cause infection. 4. Why is it important to ask the patient about allergies to medications or tape before administering an IV solution? Answer: To identify possible allergies to IV solution additives or tape Identifying potential allergies can help prevent adverse reactions and ensure the patient's safety. 5. What is the purpose of completing a time strip for the infusion and applying it to the IV container? Answer: To allow for quick visual reference by the nurse to monitor infusion accuracy The time strip provides a clear visual indicator of the infusion timeline, enabling the nurse to monitor the infusion accurately and make adjustments as needed. 6. What is the primary purpose of verifying the medical order and facility policy when converting to an intermittent access? Answer: To ensure correct intervention for the correct patient and to facilitate accomplishment of the procedure. Verifying the medical order and facility policy ensures that the correct intervention is administered to the correct patient, reducing the risk of error. 7. What is the rationale for performing hand hygiene and putting on personal protective equipment (PPE) during the conversion process? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms and to comply with transmission precautions. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597654/print/answers 1/6 4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Hand hygiene and PPE are essential in preventing the spread of microorganisms and reducing the risk of infection. 8. What is the importance of assessing the IV site before converting to an intermittent access? Answer: To identify potential complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, or infection, which necessitate discontinuation of the IV infusion at that site. Assessing the IV site is crucial in identifying potential complications that may require discontinuation of the IV infusion. 9. What is the purpose of asking the patient about allergies to tape and skin antiseptics during the conversion process? Answer: To identify possible allergies that may exist related to tape or antiseptics. Identifying potential allergies to tape or antiseptics is essential in preventing adverse reactions and ensuring patient safety. 10. Why is it important to close curtains around the bed and close the door to the room, if possible, during the conversion process? Answer: To ensure the patient's privacy and to facilitate explanation and cooperation. Maintaining patient privacy and explaining the procedure to the patient helps to relieve anxiety and facilitates cooperation. 11. What is the primary purpose of identifying the patient before initiating a peripheral venous access IV infusion? Answer: Ensuring the right patient receives the intervention and preventing errors Patient verification is a crucial step in the healthcare process to prevent medical errors and ensure the correct patient receives the treatment 12. What is the rationale behind applying a local anesthetic to a few potential insertion sites during peripheral venous access? Answer: To decrease the degree of pain felt at the insertion site Local anesthetics can take up to an hour to become effective, and applying it to multiple sites helps to identify the optimal location for venous access 13. Why is it essential to ask the patient about allergies to medications, tape, or skin antiseptics before initiating a peripheral venous access IV infusion? Answer: To prevent possible allergic reactions and tissue damage Allergic reactions to medications, tape, or skin antiseptics can be severe and even life-threatening, making it crucial to assess patient allergies before initiating the infusion 14. What is the primary purpose of closing curtains around the bed and closing the door to the room during peripheral venous access? Answer: To ensure the patient's privacy https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597654/print/answers 2/6 4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Maintaining patient privacy is essential in healthcare settings to reduce anxiety and promote a sense of dignity and respect 15. Why is it necessary to explain the procedure and rationale to the patient before initiating a peripheral venous access IV infusion? Answer: To relieve anxiety and facilitate cooperation Patient education and explanation of the procedure can help to reduce anxiety and promote cooperation, leading to a more successful outcome 16. What is the primary goal of properly removing PPE and performing hand hygiene in relation to venous access site care? Answer: To reduce the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items. Proper removal of PPE and hand hygiene are crucial steps in preventing the transmission of microorganisms and reducing the risk of infection. 17. What is the expected outcome of effective venous access site care, and what indicators confirm this outcome? Answer: The patient remains free of signs and symptoms of infection, phlebitis, or infiltration, and the access site dressing is clean, dry, and intact. The expected outcome is a critical aspect of evaluating the effectiveness of venous access site care, and the absence of complications is a key indicator of success. 18. What essential information should be documented during venous access site care, and why is it important? Answer: The location of the venous access, condition of the site, presence or absence of signs of erythema, redness, swelling, or drainage, and clinical criteria for site complications. Accurate documentation is crucial for tracking the patient's progress, identifying potential complications, and informing future care decisions. 19. What is the significance of including the patient's subjective comments and reactions to the procedure in documentation? Answer: It allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's experience and provides valuable insight for future care. Incorporating the patient's perspective into documentation helps to create a more complete picture of their care and can inform strategies for improving patient outcomes. 20. What is the purpose of providing patient teaching and education during venous access site care, and what specific topics should be covered? Answer: To empower patients to take an active role in their care and to inform them of potential complications, such as pain or swelling, and the importance of reporting these to the nurse. Patient education is a critical component of venous access site care, as it enables patients to recognize potential complications and seek prompt medical attention. 21. What is the primary purpose of identifying the patient before initiating the dressing change process, and how does it prevent errors in patient care? https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597654/print/answers 3/6 4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Answer: The primary purpose of identifying the patient is to ensure the right patient receives the intervention; this helps prevent errors in patient care by ensuring the correct patient is receiving the correct treatment. Patient identification is a crucial step in the healthcare process to prevent errors and ensure patient safety. 22. What are the circumstances under which the access site dressing should be changed immediately, and why is it necessary to do so? Answer: The access site dressing should be changed immediately if it is damp, loosened, or soiled; this is necessary to prevent infection and promote a sterile environment. Prompt changing of the access site dressing is crucial to prevent infection and promote a sterile environment for the patient. 23. What is the purpose of asking the patient about allergies to tape and skin antiseptics during the dressing change process, and what are the potential consequences of not doing so? Answer: The purpose of asking the patient about allergies is to identify potential allergic reactions; failing to do so can result in adverse reactions, skin irritation, or other complications. Identifying potential allergies is crucial to prevent adverse reactions and promote patient safety. 24. What is the significance of having equipment available during the dressing change process, and how does it impact the efficiency of care? Answer: Having equipment available saves time and facilitates the accomplishment of the procedure; it enables healthcare professionals to provide efficient and effective care. Having necessary equipment available streamlines the care process and promotes efficient care delivery. 25. What is the purpose of temporarily stopping the infusion during the dressing change process, and what are the potential consequences of not doing so? Answer: Temporarily stopping the infusion prevents the infusion of fluids or medications during the dressing change, which can lead to complications or contamination; failing to do so can result in infection, allergic reactions, or other adverse events. Temporarily stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent complications and ensure a sterile environment during the dressing change process. 26. What is the primary concern for storing blood products, and what is the time frame for administering them after release from the blood bank? Answer: The primary concern for storing blood products is maintaining a carefully controlled temperature of 4°C. The time frame for administering them is within 30 minutes of release from the blood bank. Blood products must be stored and handled properly to ensure their safety and effectiveness for patients. 27. What is the purpose of scanning bar codes on blood products, and what is the benefit of this practice in ensuring patient safety? Answer: The purpose of scanning bar codes on blood products is to identify, track, and assign data to transfusions. This practice provides an additional safety measure to ensure accurate administration of blood products. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597654/print/answers 4/6 4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing Bar code scanning helps to prevent errors in blood product administration and ensures that patients receive the correct products. 28. What are the critical pieces of information that two nurses must validate and compare with each other, the medical record, patient identification band, and the label of the blood product before administering a transfusion? Answer: The critical pieces of information include the medical order for transfusion, informed consent, patient identification number, patient name, blood group and type, expiration date, and inspection of the blood product for clots. Verifying these critical pieces of information is essential to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct patient. 29. What is the consequence of not administering blood products within the recommended time frame, and what is the impact on the quality of the products? Answer: If blood products are not administered within 30 minutes of release from the blood bank, they may deteriorate, and their quality may be compromised. After 35 days, red blood cells begin to deteriorate. It is essential to administer blood products promptly to ensure their effectiveness and safety for patients. 30. What is the importance of inspecting the blood product for clots before administration, and what should the nurse do if clots are present? Answer: Inspecting the blood product for clots is crucial to ensure that the patient does not receive a contaminated product. If clots are present, the nurse should return the blood product to the blood bank. Inspecting blood products for clots is a critical safety measure to prevent transfusion-related complications. 31. What is the primary purpose of using a skin protectant during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to aid in adhesion of the dressing and decrease the risk for skin trauma when the dressing is removed Skin protectant helps to prevent skin trauma and ensures a secure adhesion of the dressing. 32. Why is it essential to label the dressing with the date, time of change, and initials during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to ensure communication about venous access site dressing change Labeling the dressing helps to maintain clear communication and ensures that the healthcare team is aware of the dressing change. 33. What is the purpose of looping the tubing near the entry site and anchoring it with tape during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to prevent the weight of the tubing from pulling it out of the vein Securing the tubing near the entry site prevents the risk of catheter migration and loss of access. 34. Why is it important to use nonallergenic tape during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to reduce the risk of tearing fragile skin Nonallergenic tape is gentler on the skin and reduces the risk of skin irritation and trauma. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597654/print/answers 5/6 4/24/24, 4:15 PM Pre-Procedure Preparation in Nursing 35. What is the primary purpose of removing additional personal protective equipment (PPE) and performing hand hygiene after a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to reduce the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items Proper removal of PPE and hand hygiene practices prevent the spread of infection and maintain a safe environment. 36. What is the benefit of using a transparent dressing during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: it allows for easy visualization of the site Transparent dressings enable healthcare professionals to easily monitor the site and detect any potential complications. 37. Why is it important to ensure the patient's comfort during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to promote patient comfort and safety Prioritizing patient comfort and safety during the dressing change ensures a positive experience and reduces anxiety. 38. What is the purpose of stabilizing the access device during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to preserve the integrity of the access device and prevent catheter migration and loss of access Stabilizing the access device ensures that the device remains secure and functional. 39. Why is it essential to check that the IV flow is accurate and the system is patent after a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: to ensure that the IV infusion is functioning correctly Verifying the IV flow and system patency ensures that the patient receives the intended treatment and reduces the risk of complications. 40. What is the benefit of referring to Skill 15-3 during a peripheral venous access dressing change? Answer: it provides additional guidance on completing the task Referring to Skill 15-3 provides healthcare professionals with detailed instructions and best practices for completing the dressing change. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597654/print/answers 6/6 4/24/24, 4:26 PM Catheter Care and Maintenance Catheter Care and Maintenance Answers 1. What is the primary purpose of keeping the drainage bag below the level of the patient's bladder during catheterization? Answer: To maintain drainage of urine and prevent the backflow of urine into the patient's bladder. Proper placement of the drainage bag is crucial to prevent urinary tract infections and ensure effective drainage. 2. What is the recommended frequency for emptying the drainage bag, and why is it important to follow this guideline? Answer: The drainage bag should be emptied when it is one-half to two-thirds full or every 3 to 6 hours. This frequency helps maintain a closed system and prevents backflow of urine into the patient's bladder. Regular emptying of the drainage bag helps prevent bacterial growth and reduces the risk of infection. 3. What is the purpose of using a sterile catheter kit during catheter insertion, and what are the essential components of this kit? Answer: The sterile catheter kit is used to prevent infection during catheter insertion. The essential components include sterile gloves, sterile drapes, and a sterile catheter with a suitable size and balloon capacity. A sterile catheter kit is crucial for maintaining asepsis during catheter insertion and reducing the risk of infection. 4. Why is it essential to secure the catheter properly to the patient's thigh or abdomen after insertion? Answer: Securing the catheter properly prevents accidental dislodgement, ensures continuous drainage, and reduces the risk of infection. Proper catheter securement is critical for maintaining a closed system and preventing complications. 5. What is the recommended technique for obtaining urine samples during catheterization, and why is it important to follow this technique? Answer: Urine samples should be obtained using aseptic technique via a closed system. This technique prevents contamination of the sample and reduces the risk of infection. Aseptic technique is essential for maintaining the integrity of the urine sample and preventing infection. 6. What is the purpose of leaving some slack in the catheter tubing? Answer: To allow for leg movement This prevents tension on the tubing, which can cause trauma to the urethra and meatus. 7. Why is it important to secure the drainage bag below the level of the bladder? Answer: To facilitate drainage of urine and prevent backflow of urine https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597679/print/answers 1/6 4/24/24, 4:26 PM Catheter Care and Maintenance This is a crucial step in maintaining a proper drainage system and preventing complications. 8. What is the rationale behind obtaining a urine specimen immediately from the drainage bag? Answer: To access the sterile catheter system and prevent microorganisms from growing This ensures that the urine specimen is not contaminated and provides accurate laboratory findings. 9. Why is it important to position the patient comfortably and cover them with bed linens? Answer: To promote warmth and comfort This is a key aspect of patient care and can help reduce anxiety and stress during the catheterization procedure. 10. What is the purpose of checking that the drainage tubing is not kinked and that movement of side rails does not interfere with the catheter or drainage bag? Answer: To ensure proper drainage of urine and prevent complications This is an important step in maintaining a functional drainage system and preventing potential issues. 11. What is the primary purpose of positioning the bed in the lowest position during the application of an external condom catheter? Answer: To promote patient safety A bed in the lowest position reduces the risk of falls and injuries, which is crucial for patient safety, especially during medical procedures. 12. What is the consequence of not checking the drainage tubing for kinks during the application of an external condom catheter? Answer: Backflow of urine Kinked drainage tubing can obstruct the flow of urine, leading to backflow and potentially causing urinary tract infections or other complications. 13. Why is it essential to remove gloves and additional PPE properly after applying an external condom catheter? Answer: To reduce the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items Proper removal of personal protective equipment (PPE) prevents the spread of microorganisms and reduces the risk of cross-contamination. 14. What is the expected outcome of applying an external condom catheter in terms of urine output? Answer: A urine output of at least 30 mL/hour The expected outcome of applying an external condom catheter is to maintain urinary elimination, with a minimum urine output of 30 mL/hour, indicating proper catheter function and urinary health. 15. Why is hand hygiene performed after removing equipment and PPE during the application of an external condom catheter? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597679/print/answers 2/6 4/24/24, 4:26 PM Catheter Care and Maintenance Hand hygiene is a crucial step in preventing the transmission of microorganisms and reducing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. 16. What is the primary reason for washing hands after using the urinal? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms. Proper hand hygiene is crucial in preventing the transmission of microorganisms and maintaining a clean environment for patients. 17. What is the purpose of putting on clean gloves when emptying and cleaning the bedpan? Answer: To prevent exposure to blood and body fluids. Using clean gloves is an essential part of infection control and prevents the risk of exposure to bodily fluids and microorganisms. 18. Why is it necessary to reattach the call bell and adjust the head of the bed to a comfortable position after using the bedpan? Answer: To promote patient safety and comfort. These actions ensure that the patient is able to call for assistance when needed and is comfortable, which can help reduce the risk of falls and other safety incidents. 19. What is the expected outcome when a patient uses a bedpan? Answer: The patient voids using the bedpan. The successful use of a bedpan is a critical aspect of urinary elimination, and achieving this outcome indicates that the patient is able to use the bedpan effectively. 20. What should be documented after assisting a patient with using a bedpan? Answer: The patient's tolerance of the activity, the amount of urine voided, and any other assessments such as unusual urine characteristics or alterations in the patient's skin. Accurate documentation is essential for monitoring patient outcomes and identifying any potential issues or complications related to urinary elimination. 21. What is the primary purpose of assessing the patient's skin and urine characteristics during the urinal procedure? Answer: To determine the patient's ability to assist with the procedure and identify potential risks for skin breakdown or infection. Assessing the patient's skin and urine characteristics helps the nurse identify potential risks and take necessary precautions to prevent complications. 22. Why is it important to review the patient's chart for limitations in physical activity before assisting with the urinal procedure? Answer: To ensure that the patient's physical limitations do not contraindicate certain actions required during the procedure, and to plan accordingly. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597679/print/answers 3/6 4/24/24, 4:26 PM Catheter Care and Maintenance Reviewing the patient's chart helps the nurse identify any physical limitations that may impact the patient's ability to assist with the procedure, and plan alternative strategies to ensure safe and effective care. 23. What is the primary benefit of bringing all necessary equipment to the bedside stand or overbed table during the urinal procedure? Answer: To conserve time and energy, and to avoid unnecessary stretching and twisting of muscles on the part of the nurse. Having all necessary equipment readily available at the bedside streamlines the procedure, reduces the risk of musculoskeletal injury, and promotes efficiency and effectiveness in care delivery. 24. What is the expected outcome of offering a urinal to a patient? Answer: That the patient is able to void with assistance. The expected outcome of offering a urinal is that the patient is able to void successfully with assistance, promoting continence and maintaining skin integrity. 25. Why is it important to use clean gloves and additional PPE as indicated during the urinal procedure? Answer: To reduce the risk of infection transmission and maintain a sterile environment. Using clean gloves and additional PPE as indicated is essential to preventing infection transmission and maintaining a sterile environment during the urinal procedure. 26. What measures can be taken to facilitate urine flow if there is no immediate flow of urine after catheter insertion? Answer: Have the patient take a deep breath, rotate the catheter slightly, raise the head of the patient's bed, assess the patient's intake to ensure adequate fluid intake for urine production, and assess the catheter and drainage tubing for kinks and occlusion. Facilitating urine flow is crucial to ensure the catheter is functioning properly and to prevent complications. 27. In what situations may the assistance of another staff member be necessary during catheter insertion? Answer: If the patient is unable to lift buttocks or maintain the required position for the procedure. Having additional staff assistance can help ensure the patient's safety and comfort during the procedure. 28. What should be done if the catheter cannot be advanced during insertion? Answer: Have the patient take several deep breaths, rotate the catheter half a turn and try to advance, and if still unable to advance, remove the catheter and notify the primary care provider. Following proper protocols for catheter insertion can help prevent complications and ensure patient safety. 29. Where can supplies be opened and prepared during catheter insertion to minimize contamination? Answer: On the overbed table, moving the tray onto the bed just before cleansing the patient. Maintaining a sterile environment is crucial to prevent infection during catheter insertion. 30. Why is it important to be familiar with facility policy and/or primary practitioner guidelines for the maximum amount of urine to remove from the bladder during catheter insertion? https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597679/print/answers 4/6 4/24/24, 4:26 PM Catheter Care and Maintenance Answer: To ensure the patient's safety and prevent complications, such as bladder trauma or infection. Following facility policy and guidelines can help prevent adverse events and ensure optimal patient outcomes. 31. What is the primary purpose of removing the gel pad from the patient's skin after urine measurement? Answer: To promote patient comfort and remove contaminated gel. Removing the gel pad from the patient's skin is essential for patient comfort and to prevent the spread of microorganisms. 32. What is the rationale behind reattaching the call bell after the urine measurement procedure? Answer: To promote patient safety. Reattaching the call bell ensures that the patient can call for assistance when needed, which is crucial for their safety. 33. Why is it essential to perform hand hygiene after removing PPE? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms. Hand hygiene is critical in preventing the spread of microorganisms, especially after removing PPE that may have come into contact with contaminated surfaces. 34. What is the expected outcome of accurately measuring the volume of urine in the bladder? Answer: The patient's urinary elimination is maintained, with a urine output of at least 30 mL/hour, and the patient's bladder is not distended. Accurate measurement of urine volume is crucial for maintaining the patient's urinary elimination and preventing distension of the bladder. 35. What is the importance of removing contaminated gloves after the procedure? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms. Removing contaminated gloves prevents the spread of microorganisms to other patients, healthcare workers, and surfaces. 36. What is the purpose of adjusting the head of the bed to a comfortable position after the procedure? Answer: To promote patient comfort and safety. Adjusting the head of the bed to a comfortable position promotes patient comfort and safety, reducing the risk of falls and other complications. 37. Why is it important to print the results of the urine measurement procedure, if required? Answer: To provide accurate documentation of reading. Accurate documentation of urine measurement results is essential for maintaining patient records and ensuring continuity of care. 38. What is the importance of removing additional PPE, if used, after the procedure? Answer: To reduce the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597679/print/answers 5/6 4/24/24, 4:26 PM Catheter Care and Maintenance Removing additional PPE, such as gowns and masks, reduces the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items in the patient's environment. 39. Why is it essential to lower the bed height after the procedure? Answer: To promote patient safety. Lowering the bed height reduces the risk of falls and promotes patient safety, especially for patients who may be weakened or disoriented after the procedure. 40. What is the purpose of using a washcloth or paper towel to remove remaining gel from the patient's skin? Answer: To promote patient comfort and remove contaminated gel. Removing remaining gel from the patient's skin promotes patient comfort and prevents the spread of microorganisms. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597679/print/answers 6/6 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control Answers 1. What is the primary purpose of reassessing a patient's respiratory status after oxygen therapy, and what signs of respiratory distress should be noted? Answer: To assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and note any signs of respiratory distress such as tachypnea, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles, or dyspnea. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure the oxygen therapy is effective and to identify any potential complications. 2. What are the two primary reasons for removing PPE and performing hand hygiene after oxygen therapy? Answer: To reduce the risk of infection transmission and to prevent contamination of other items, and to prevent the spread of microorganisms. Proper PPE removal and hand hygiene are essential to prevent the spread of infections and to maintain a clean environment. 3. Why is it important to check the nares for evidence of irritation or bleeding when cleaning and removing the cannula? Answer: Because the continued presence of the cannula can cause irritation and dryness of the mucous membranes, leading to discomfort and potential complications. Regularly checking the nares for signs of irritation or bleeding ensures the patient's comfort and prevents potential complications. 4. What are the expected outcomes of effective oxygen therapy, and how are they documented? Answer: The expected outcomes are an oxygen saturation level within acceptable parameters, absence of dyspnea, nasal flaring, or accessory muscle use, and normal respiratory rate and depth. These outcomes are documented by noting the patient's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds before and after intervention. Documentation of the patient's response to oxygen therapy is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention and to identify areas for improvement. 5. What is the importance of documenting the amount of oxygen applied, and how does it impact patient care? Answer: Documenting the amount of oxygen applied ensures accurate and consistent treatment, and allows healthcare professionals to track the patient's response to oxygen therapy, making adjustments as needed to optimize care. Accurate documentation of oxygen therapy is essential to provide high-quality patient care and to ensure continuity of care. 6. What is the primary purpose of assessing a patient's oxygen saturation level before starting oxygen therapy? Answer: To provide a baseline for determining the effectiveness of therapy https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 1/7 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control This baseline helps to evaluate the patient's response to oxygen therapy and make adjustments as needed. 7. What is a key consideration for preventing infection transmission when using a humidifier with sterile distilled water in oxygen therapy? Answer: Ensuring the humidifier is properly sterilized and maintained Proper sterilization and maintenance of the humidifier are essential to prevent infection transmission and ensure patient safety. 8. What is the goal of using a face mask, as specified by a physician, in oxygen therapy? Answer: To deliver oxygen to the patient at a specific flow rate and concentration The face mask is designed to deliver oxygen at a specific flow rate and concentration, as prescribed by the physician, to meet the patient's individual needs. 9. What is an essential component of respiratory assessment in oxygen therapy, in addition to oxygen saturation levels? Answer: Assessing respiratory rate and depth, and lung sounds A comprehensive respiratory assessment includes evaluating respiratory rate and depth, lung sounds, and other signs and symptoms to ensure effective oxygen therapy and identify potential complications. 10. What is an important aspect of documenting oxygen therapy, in addition to the patient's oxygen saturation levels? Answer: Recording the type of oxygen therapy, flow rate, and duration of treatment Accurate documentation of oxygen therapy, including the type of therapy, flow rate, and duration of treatment, is essential for effective patient care and communication among healthcare providers. 11. What is the expected outcome of a patient who demonstrates correct use of an incentive spirometer, and what are the indicators of this outcome? Answer: The expected outcome is met when the patient demonstrates the steps for use of the incentive spirometer correctly and exhibits lung sounds that are clear and equal in all lobes, with an increase in oxygen saturation levels, and verbalizes adequate pain control and the importance of, and need for, incentive spirometry. This outcome is a result of the patient's ability to reinflate the alveoli and prevent atelectasis due to hypoventilation. 12. What is the importance of cleaning the mouthpiece of the incentive spirometer with water and shaking it to dry? Answer: It helps to deter the spread of microorganisms and contaminants. This is an important part of infection transmission prevention and reducing the risk of contamination of other items. 13. What should the nurse document during the patient's use of the incentive spirometer, and why is it important? Answer: The nurse should document the number of repetitions, average volume reached, patient teaching, and patient response, including any coughing and characteristics of the sputum. This is important to track the patient's progress and response to the treatment. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 2/7 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control Accurate documentation is essential for evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and making informed decisions about future care. 14. Why is it important for the patient to perform incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours, if possible? Answer: It helps to reinflate the alveoli and prevent atelectasis due to hypoventilation. This frequent use of the incentive spirometer can help to improve the patient's oxygen saturation levels and overall respiratory function. 15. What is the importance of removing PPE properly and performing hand hygiene after using the incentive spirometer? Answer: It reduces the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items, and prevents the spread of microorganisms. These steps are crucial for infection prevention and control, and are essential for maintaining a safe environment for the patient and healthcare workers. 16. What is the primary purpose of calibrating the oxygen analyzer according to the manufacturer's directions, and how does it impact the accuracy of oxygen therapy? Answer: The primary purpose is to ensure accurate readings and make appropriate adjustments to therapy. Calibration ensures accurate readings, which are essential for making adjustments to oxygen therapy to prevent adverse effects. Calibration is a critical step in oxygen therapy to ensure accurate readings and prevent harm to the patient. 17. How does the humidifier connected to the oxygen source in the wall prevent dehydration of the mucous membranes during oxygen therapy? Answer: The humidifier humidifies the oxygen before it is delivered to the patient, preventing dehydration of the mucous membranes. Humidification is essential to prevent dehydration of the mucous membranes, which can lead to respiratory complications. 18. What is the importance of tucking the tent edges under blanket rolls during oxygen therapy, and how does it impact the effectiveness of the therapy? Answer: Tucking the tent edges under blanket rolls prevents the oxygen from escaping and ensures the patient receives the prescribed amount of oxygen. Securing the tent edges is crucial to maintain the desired oxygen concentration and ensure the effectiveness of therapy. 19. Why is it essential to reassess the patient's respiratory status after adjusting oxygen flow, and what signs of respiratory distress should be monitored? Answer: Reassessing the patient's respiratory status is essential to monitor for signs of respiratory distress, such as increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and decreased oxygen saturation levels. Reassessing the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent adverse effects. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 3/7 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control 20. What is the importance of documenting the patient's oxygen saturation levels during oxygen therapy, and how does it impact ongoing patient care? Answer: Documenting oxygen saturation levels is essential to monitor the patient's response to therapy and make informed decisions about ongoing care. Accurate documentation of oxygen saturation levels is critical to ensure continuity of care and make informed decisions about the patient's treatment plan. 21. What is the primary purpose of bringing necessary equipment to the bedside, and how does it facilitate the oxygen therapy implementation process? Answer: The primary purpose of bringing necessary equipment to the bedside is to conserve time and energy, and to avoid unnecessary stretching and twisting of muscles. This facilitates the implementation process by providing convenient access to the equipment and enabling the nurse to efficiently set up the oxygen therapy. Proper equipment setup is essential for effective oxygen therapy. 22. What is the significance of performing hand hygiene and putting on PPE during oxygen therapy, and how do these actions contribute to infection prevention? Answer: Performing hand hygiene and putting on PPE during oxygen therapy prevent the spread of microorganisms, and are essential for infection prevention. PPE is required based on transmission precautions, and hand hygiene is crucial to prevent the transmission of microorganisms. Infection prevention is a critical aspect of patient care, and hand hygiene and PPE play a vital role in preventing the spread of microorganisms. 23. How does explaining the oxygen therapy procedure to the patient and reviewing safety precautions contribute to patient comfort and cooperation during the implementation process? Answer: Explaining the oxygen therapy procedure to the patient and reviewing safety precautions relieves anxiety and facilitates cooperation, ensuring that the patient is comfortable and informed throughout the implementation process. Patient comfort and cooperation are crucial for effective oxygen therapy implementation. 24. What is the significance of checking that oxygen is flowing out of the prongs during oxygen therapy, and how does this relate to respiratory assessment? Answer: Checking that oxygen is flowing out of the prongs ensures that the patient is receiving the prescribed oxygen therapy, and is a critical aspect of respiratory assessment. This ensures that the patient's oxygen saturation levels are adequate and effectively managed. Respiratory assessment is critical for ensuring that oxygen therapy is effective and safe. 25. Why is it essential to document the oxygen therapy implementation process, including the flow rate and humidification settings, and how does this impact patient care? Answer: Documenting the oxygen therapy implementation process, including the flow rate and humidification settings, is essential for ensuring that the patient receives the prescribed therapy and for evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment. This documentation also facilitates continuity of care and informs future treatment decisions. Accurate documentation of oxygen therapy is critical for ensuring patient safety and effective care. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 4/7 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control 26. What is the significance of frequently checking the patient's bedding and pajamas for moisture during oxygen therapy, and how does this impact patient care? Answer: Frequently checking the patient's bedding and pajamas for moisture during oxygen therapy is important to ensure the patient's comfort and maintain proper temperature regulation. If the bedding and pajamas are not changed regularly, the patient may experience discomfort and temperature dysregulation, which can negatively impact their overall health and well-being. Moisture buildup in bedding and pajamas can be uncomfortable for the patient and affect their body temperature. 27. How does the removal of PPE and performance of hand hygiene after oxygen therapy contribute to the prevention of infection transmission, and what are the consequences of not following this protocol? Answer: The removal of PPE and performance of hand hygiene after oxygen therapy are crucial steps in preventing infection transmission. If not followed, healthcare workers may inadvertently spread microorganisms to other patients, surfaces, and equipment, leading to the spread of infections and potentially life-threatening consequences. Infection transmission is a significant risk in healthcare settings, and proper removal of PPE and hand hygiene can prevent this. 28. What is the importance of reassessing a patient's respiratory status after oxygen therapy, and what specific parameters should be evaluated during this assessment? Answer: Reassessing a patient's respiratory status after oxygen therapy is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and identify any signs of respiratory distress. The parameters that should be evaluated during this assessment include respiratory rate, effort, and lung sounds, as well as signs of distress such as tachypnea, nasal flaring, grunting, and retractions. Respiratory assessment is a critical component of oxygen therapy to ensure the patient is receiving adequate oxygenation. 29. How does the documentation of oxygen therapy, including the amount of oxygen applied, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation levels, impact patient care and inform future treatment decisions? Answer: The documentation of oxygen therapy is essential for patient care, as it provides a comprehensive record of the patient's treatment and response to oxygen therapy. This information informs future treatment decisions, allows for adjustments to be made to the oxygen therapy, and ensures continuity of care. Accurate documentation of oxygen therapy is critical for quality patient care and informed decision-making. 30. What is the relationship between oxygen saturation levels and the patient's overall respiratory status, and how do changes in oxygen saturation levels impact respiratory assessment and treatment decisions? Answer: Oxygen saturation levels are a critical indicator of a patient's overall respiratory status. Changes in oxygen saturation levels can indicate improvements or deteriorations in respiratory function, informing treatment decisions and adjustments to oxygen therapy. A patient's oxygen saturation level within acceptable parameters indicates effective oxygen therapy, while deviations from this range may indicate the need for adjustments to treatment. Oxygen saturation levels are a key indicator of respiratory function and guide treatment decisions. 31. What is the primary purpose of monitoring SaO2 with a pulse oximeter during oxygen therapy? Answer: To verify the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and ensure the patient's oxygen saturation level is within acceptable parameters. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 5/7 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation levels helps to adjust the oxygen flow rate and ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate amount of oxygen. 32. What is the potential consequence of not verifying the FIO2 at the flow rate ordered during Venturi mask high-flow oxygen therapy? Answer: Inaccurate oxygen delivery, which can lead to ineffective oxygen therapy or respiratory distress. Verifying the FIO2 at the flow rate ordered ensures the patient receives the correct amount of oxygen, which is critical for effective oxygen therapy. 33. What is the significance of assessing the patient's respiratory status, including respiratory rate, effort, and lung sounds, before initiating oxygen therapy? Answer: It provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and helps identify potential respiratory complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory status before initiating oxygen therapy helps identify potential respiratory complications and provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. 34. What is the goal of documenting the patient's oxygen saturation levels during oxygen therapy? Answer: To track the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and make adjustments to the oxygen flow rate as needed. Documenting oxygen saturation levels helps track the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and provides a basis for making adjustments to the oxygen flow rate as needed. 35. What is the key consideration for preventing infection transmission when using a humidifier with sterile distilled water in oxygen therapy? Answer: Ensuring the humidifier is properly cleaned and maintained, and the sterile distilled water is changed regularly. Proper cleaning and maintenance of the humidifier, as well as regular changes of sterile distilled water, are essential for preventing infection transmission. 36. What is the primary benefit of assessing the patient's oxygen saturation level before starting oxygen therapy? Answer: It provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and helps identify potential respiratory complications. Assessing the patient's oxygen saturation level before starting oxygen therapy provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and helps identify potential respiratory complications. 37. What is the significance of checking that air intake valves are not blocked during Venturi mask high-flow oxygen therapy? Answer: Ensuring the patient receives the correct amount of oxygen and preventing respiratory distress. Checking that air intake valves are not blocked ensures the patient receives the correct amount of oxygen and prevents respiratory distress. 38. What is the importance of monitoring the patient's respiratory status during oxygen therapy, including signs of respiratory distress? https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 6/7 4/24/24, 4:40 PM Oxygen Therapy and Infection Control Answer: It allows for early identification of respiratory complications and prompt adjustments to oxygen therapy as needed. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status during oxygen therapy helps identify potential respiratory complications and allows for prompt adjustments to oxygen therapy as needed. 39. What is the purpose of documenting the patient's response to oxygen therapy, including any signs of respiratory distress? Answer: To track the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and make adjustments to the oxygen flow rate as needed. Documenting the patient's response to oxygen therapy provides a basis for tracking the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and making adjustments to the oxygen flow rate as needed. 40. What is the significance of using a pulse oximeter to monitor SaO2 during oxygen therapy? Answer: It provides a noninvasive and continuous measurement of oxygen saturation levels, allowing for prompt adjustments to oxygen therapy as needed. Using a pulse oximeter to monitor SaO2 during oxygen therapy provides a noninvasive and continuous measurement of oxygen saturation levels, allowing for prompt adjustments to oxygen therapy as needed. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597711/print/answers 7/7 4/24/24, 4:53 PM ECG Documentation and Procedure ECG Documentation and Procedure Answers 1. What is the primary purpose of labeling an ECG recording with the patient's name, room number, and facility identification number? Answer: To ensure accurate identification and documentation of the patient's ECG results. Accurate labeling of the ECG recording is crucial for maintaining patient safety and confidentiality. 2. What should be done if an artifact appears on the ECG tracing? Answer: Reassess electrode connections and ask the patient to lie extremely still. Redo the ECG if necessary. Artifacts can be caused by loose electrodes or patient movement, and reassessing electrode connections and asking the patient to lie still can help resolve the issue. 3. What is the purpose of applying electrode paste or gel to the patient's skin when using non-disposable electrodes? Answer: To facilitate electrode contact and enhance tracing. Electrode paste or gel helps to improve the quality of the ECG recording by ensuring good contact between the electrodes and the patient's skin. 4. What should be done if minimal complexes are seen on the ECG tracing? Answer: Run longer strips to obtain more accurate results. Minimal complexes may be a sign of extreme bradycardia, and running longer strips can help to obtain more accurate results. 5. What is the importance of documenting the patient's response to the ECG procedure in the medical record? Answer: To ensure accurate documentation of the patient's condition and response to the procedure, and to facilitate continuity of care. Accurate documentation of the patient's response to the ECG procedure is essential for maintaining a complete and accurate medical record. 6. What should you do if the AED displays a 'Check pads' or 'Check electrodes' message? Answer: Check that the pads are firmly and evenly adhered to the patient's skin, verify connections between the cables and the AED and the cables and electrode pads, and check that the patient is not wet or diaphoretic, or has excessive chest hair. Ensuring secure attachment of the electrode pads is crucial for effective AED operation. 7. What should you do if the adhesive electrode pads stick to the hair of the chest instead of the skin? https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597727/print/answers 1/6 4/24/24, 4:53 PM ECG Documentation and Procedure Answer: Press firmly on the current pads to attempt to provide sufficient adhesion, and if unsuccessful, briskly remove the current pads to remove a good portion of the chest hair. Proper adhesion of the electrode pads is essential for effective defibrillation. 8. What should be included in the documentation of a cardiac arrest event? Answer: The time the patient was discovered unresponsive, the time CPR was initiated, and the time(s) AED shocks were initiated. Accurate documentation is essential for providing high-quality patient care and ensuring continuity of care. 9. What is the purpose of a code form in documenting a cardiac arrest event? Answer: To identify the actions and drugs provided during the code. Code forms provide a standardized way to document the interventions and treatments provided during a cardiac arrest event. 10. Why is it important to verify the connections between the cables and the AED and the cables and electrode pads during AED operation? Answer: To ensure that the AED is functioning properly and that the electrode pads are securely attached to the patient. Verifying connections is a critical step in ensuring effective AED operation and patient safety. 11. What is the primary purpose of removing personal protective equipment (PPE) properly in a medical setting? Answer: Reducing the risk of infection transmission and contamination of other items. Properly removing PPE is crucial to preventing the spread of microorganisms and maintaining a sterile environment. 12. Why is it essential to process specimens in a timely manner in a medical setting? Answer: To ensure accuracy of test results. Timely processing of specimens is critical to obtaining accurate results, which inform diagnosis and treatment decisions. 13. What is the primary goal of continued assessment during a medical procedure, such as arterial or femoral line removal? Answer: To allow for early detection and prompt intervention should problems arise. Continuous assessment enables healthcare professionals to identify potential complications early and respond promptly to prevent adverse outcomes. 14. What information should be included in the documentation of an arterial or femoral line removal procedure? Answer: Time of line removal, duration of pressure application, site assessment, peripheral circulation, appearance of site, type of dressing applied, timed assessments, patient's response, and medications given. Accurate and comprehensive documentation is essential for ensuring continuity of care, facilitating communication among healthcare professionals, and maintaining patient safety. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597727/print/answers 2/6 4/24/24, 4:53 PM ECG Documentation and Procedure 15. What is the expected outcome of a successful arterial or femoral line removal procedure? Answer: The patient exhibits a clean and dry site without evidence of injury, infection, bleeding, or hematoma, and demonstrates intact peripheral circulation and reduced anxiety. The expected outcome indicates that the procedure was performed successfully and that the patient is at a lower risk of complications. 16. What are the expected outcomes when obtaining an arterial blood sample, and how does proper specimen collection achieve these outcomes? Answer: The expected outcomes are that a specimen is obtained without compromising the patency of the arterial line, the patient experiences minimal discomfort and anxiety, remains free from infection, and demonstrates an understanding about the need for the specimen collection. Proper specimen collection achieves these outcomes by following guidelines, such as repositioning the patient, removing PPE properly, and performing hand hygiene, which reduce the risk of infection transmission and promote patient comfort and safety. Proper specimen collection is crucial in achieving accurate results and preventing complications. 17. How does removing personal protective equipment (PPE) properly reduce the risk of infection transmission, and what is the importance of hand hygiene in this process? Answer: Removing PPE properly reduces the risk of infection transmission by preventing the contamination of other items, whereas hand hygiene prevents the transmission of microorganisms. Both are crucial steps in preventing infection transmission. Proper removal of PPE and hand hygiene are essential in preventing the spread of infections. 18. What is the importance of documenting laboratory specimens, date and time of collection, and disposition of specimens in the medical record? Answer: Accurate documentation of laboratory specimens, date and time of collection, and disposition of specimens ensures that the healthcare team has access to essential information, which informs patient care and treatment decisions. Thorough documentation is critical in Maintaining accurate patient records and ensuring continuity of care. 19. What is the significance of repositioning the patient and adjusting the bed height during arterial blood sample collection, and how does this promote patient comfort and safety? Answer: Repositioning the patient and adjusting the bed height promote patient comfort and safety by reducing anxiety and discomfort, and preventing falls or injuries. Attention to patient comfort and safety is essential in reducing anxiety and promoting a positive experience during medical procedures. 20. What is the importance of sending specimens to the laboratory immediately, and how does timely processing ensure accuracy of results? Answer: Sending specimens to the laboratory immediately ensures that they are processed in a timely manner, which is critical in achieving accurate results. Delayed processing can compromise the accuracy of results, leading to incorrect diagnoses or treatment decisions. Timely processing of laboratory specimens is critical in ensuring accurate results and informing patient care. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597727/print/answers 3/6 4/24/24, 4:53 PM ECG Documentation and Procedure 21. What is the primary purpose of electrocardiographic monitoring in hospitalized patients, and how can it be used effectively? Answer: The primary purpose of electrocardiographic monitoring is to monitor patients for the development of cardiac dysrhythmias. It can be used effectively by identifying high-risk patients who would benefit from cardiac monitoring, and avoiding its use in low-risk patients. Cardiac monitoring is invaluable for certain patients, but may be overused and may not be indicated in many instances. 22. How can healthcare providers ensure the effective use of electrocardiographic monitoring in hospitalized patients, according to the literature review by Larson and Brady (2008)? Answer: Healthcare providers can ensure the effective use of electrocardiographic monitoring by identifying high-risk patients who would benefit from cardiac monitoring, and using high-yield criteria for its application among inpatient populations. Larson and Brady's literature review suggests that cardiac monitoring is useful for certain high-risk patients and that it is often overused with low-risk patients. 23. What is a consideration for infant and child patients when using electrocardiographic monitoring, and how can it be addressed? Answer: A consideration for infant and child patients is that the leads may not stay in place. This can be addressed by having the infant or child wear a snug undershirt over the leads, which helps to keep the leads in place. Having the infant or child wear a snug undershirt over the leads helps to keep the leads in place (Kyle, 2008). 24. What is an important instruction to give to patients who are using electrocardiographic monitoring, and why is it important? Answer: An important instruction to give to patients is to let the nurse know when they are removing the transmitter during showering or bathing. This is important because it ensures that the nurse is aware of the removal and can take necessary steps to maintain the patient's care. If a medical order is in place, patients should be instructed to remove the transmitter during showering or bathing, if appropriate, but stress that they should let the nurse know the unit is being removed. 25. What is the significance of verifying the connections between the cables and the electrocardiographic monitoring equipment during its operation? Answer: Verifying the connections between the cables and the electrocardiographic monitoring equipment is significant because it ensures that the equipment is functioning correctly and that the patient's data is being accurately recorded. Verifying the connections between the cables and the electrocardiographic monitoring equipment helps to ensure that the equipment is functioning correctly and that the patient's data is being accurately recorded. 26. What is the significance of securing the cardiac monitoring waveform in the correct position, size, and clarity for the patient's cardiac rhythm, and how does it contribute to the expected outcome? Answer: Securing the cardiac monitoring waveform in the correct position, size, and clarity ensures accurate detection of each beat and enables healthcare professionals to monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm effectively. This contributes to the expected outcome of the patient remaining free of complications or injury and demonstrating no undue anxiety. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597727/print/answers 4/6 4/24/24, 4:53 PM ECG Documentation and Procedure The correct positioning and clarity of the cardiac monitoring waveform are crucial for accurate diagnosis and timely interventions. 27. Explain the importance of repositioning the patient to a comfortable position after cardiac monitoring, and how does it promote patient safety and comfort? Answer: Repositioning the patient to a comfortable position after cardiac monitoring promotes patient comfort and safety by reducing the risk of discomfort, anxiety, and injury. Lowering the bed height and adjusting the head of the bed also contribute to patient safety. Patient comfort and safety are critical aspects of healthcare, and repositioning the patient is an essential step in achieving these outcomes. 28. What is the rationale behind documenting a rhythm strip at least every 8 hours and with any changes in the patient's condition, and how does it impact patient care? Answer: Documenting a rhythm strip at regular intervals and with changes in the patient's condition enables healthcare professionals to monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm and respond to any changes or abnormalities. This impacts patient care by ensuring timely interventions and improving patient outcomes. Accurate and timely documentation is essential for effective patient care and decision-making. 29. Explain the significance of removing additional PPE and performing hand hygiene after cardiac monitoring, and how does it reduce the risk of infection transmission and contamination? Answer: Removing additional PPE and performing hand hygiene after cardiac monitoring reduce the risk of infection transmission and contamination by preventing the spread of microorganisms. This is critical for preventing healthcare-associated infections and maintaining a safe environment for patients and healthcare professionals. Infection control practices are essential for preventing healthcare-associated infections and protecting patients and healthcare professionals. 30. What is the purpose of labeling the rhythm strip with the patient's name, room number, date, and time, and how does it contribute to accurate patient identification and documentation? Answer: Labeling the rhythm strip with the patient's name, room number, date, and time enables accurate patient identification and documentation, ensuring that the correct patient's rhythm strip is associated with their medical record. Accurate patient identification and documentation are critical for ensuring patient safety and preventing medical errors. 31. What is the primary goal of verifying the order for cardiac monitoring on the patient's medical record? Answer: To ensure that the correct intervention is performed on the correct patient. Verification of the order ensures patient safety and accuracy of care. 32. What is the rationale for performing hand hygiene and wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) during cardiac monitoring? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms and ensure infection control. Hand hygiene and PPE are essential components of infection control and patient safety. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597727/print/answers 5/6 4/24/24, 4:53 PM ECG Documentation and Procedure 33. What is the expected outcome of successful cardiac monitoring? Answer: A clear waveform, free from artifact, is displayed on the cardiac monitor. A clear waveform indicates accurate cardiac monitoring and facilitates effective patient care. 34. What is the importance of patient identification during cardiac monitoring? Answer: To ensure that the correct patient is monitored and to prevent misidentification. Accurate patient identification is crucial for patient safety and effective care. 35. What is the purpose of gathering all equipment and bringing it to the bedside during cardiac monitoring? Answer: To save time and facilitate the accomplishment of the procedure. Having all necessary equipment readily available streamlines the procedure and promotes efficiency. 36. What is the significance of the patient displaying an understanding of the reason for cardiac monitoring? Answer: It indicates that the patient has received effective education and is aware of their care. Patient education is an essential component of patient-centered care and promotes patient autonomy. 37. What is the relationship between cardiac monitoring and anxiety reduction? Answer: Cardiac monitoring can help reduce anxiety by providing reassurance and promoting a sense of safety. Anxiety reduction is an important outcome of cardiac monitoring, as it promotes patient comfort and well-being. 38. What is the role of telemetry in cardiac monitoring? Answer: Telemetry allows for remote monitoring of the patient's cardiac activity. Telemetry enables continuous monitoring of the patient's cardiac status, even when they are not directly attached to the cardiac monitor. 39. What is the importance of using pregelled electrodes during cardiac monitoring? Answer: They ensure good electrical contact and reduce the risk of artifact. Pregelled electrodes facilitate accurate cardiac monitoring and reduce the risk of technical errors. 40. What is the relationship between cardiac monitoring and activity intolerance? Answer: Cardiac monitoring can help identify activity intolerance and inform care decisions. Cardiac monitoring provides valuable information about the patient's cardiac status, which can inform care decisions and promote effective management of activity intolerance. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597727/print/answers 6/6 4/24/24, 5:06 PM Stoma Care Procedure Stoma Care Procedure Answers 1. What are the consequences of not taking care to protect the skin around the stoma? Answer: Irritation or infection may occur Proper stoma site maintenance is crucial to prevent skin irritation and infection. 2. What is the primary cause of skin erosion around the stoma area? Answer: A leaking appliance A well-fitting appliance is essential to prevent skin erosion and maintain a healthy peristomal area. 3. How often should fluid intake and output be recorded in the initial postoperative period? Answer: Every 4 hours for the first 3 days after surgery Accurate recording of fluid intake and output helps monitor the patient's overall health and detect any potential complications. 4. What is an essential aspect of patient teaching in colostomy care? Answer: Encouraging the patient to participate in care and to look at the ostomy Patient involvement in care helps promote self-care and confidence in stoma management. 5. What is a potential complication of inadequate stoma site cleaning and hygiene? Answer: Candida or yeast infections Proper stoma site cleaning and hygiene practices are crucial to prevent infections and maintain a healthy peristomal area. 6. What is the significance of ensuring the peristomal skin is clean and free of any liquid or stool before applying a new appliance? Answer: It ensures a secure adhesion of the appliance and prevents skin irritation or maceration. A clean and dry peristomal skin is essential for the appliance to adhere properly and prevent any complications. 7. What is the primary purpose of removing gloves and additional PPE after stoma care, and how does it contribute to infection control? Answer: The primary purpose is to prevent the spread of microorganisms, and it contributes to infection control by reducing the risk of transmission and contamination of other items. Removing PPE properly is a crucial step in infection control, as it prevents the spread of microorganisms and reduces the risk of transmission and contamination. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597743/print/answers 1/6 4/24/24, 5:07 PM Stoma Care Procedure 8. What are the expected outcomes when a patient participates in stoma irrigation with increasing confidence, and what does it indicate about the patient's overall well-being? Answer: The expected outcomes include the irrigation solution flowing easily into the stoma opening, the patient expelling soft, formed stool, and the patient remaining free of any evidence of trauma to the stoma and intestinal mucosa. It indicates that the patient is able to cope with the stoma care and is on the path to recovery. The patient's ability to participate in stoma irrigation with confidence is a significant indicator of their overall well-being and ability to adapt to the stoma care. 9. What is the primary purpose of promoting patient comfort during stoma care, and how does it contribute to the overall care process? Answer: The primary purpose is to ensure the patient's physical and emotional comfort during the care process, and it contributes to the overall care process by reducing anxiety and promoting cooperation. Promoting patient comfort is essential during stoma care, as it reduces anxiety and promotes cooperation, making the care process more effective. 10. What is the significance of using adhesive removers during stoma appliance removal, and how does it contribute to the overall stoma care process? Answer: The significance of using adhesive removers is to gently remove the appliance without causing skin irritation or trauma, and it contributes to the overall stoma care process by promoting skin integrity and reducing the risk of complications. Adhesive removers are an essential tool during stoma appliance removal, as they promote skin integrity and reduce the risk of complications. 11. What is the purpose of applying a skin protectant to a 2-inch radius around the stoma, and how long does it take to dry completely? Answer: To protect the skin from the excoriating effect of the excretion and appliance adhesive; it takes about 30 seconds to dry completely. The skin protectant helps to prevent skin irritation and ensures good adherence of the appliance to the skin. 12. Why is it essential to ensure the skin around the stoma is thoroughly dry before applying the appliance? Answer: To get good adherence and prevent leaks. Any moisture on the skin can compromise the adhesive properties of the appliance, leading to poor fit and increased risk of leakage. 13. What is the consequence of a faceplate opening that is too small, and how can it be avoided? Answer: Trauma to the stoma; it can be avoided by cutting the opening 1/8 inch larger than the stoma size. A well-fitting appliance is crucial to prevent stoma trauma and promote healthy stoma care. 14. Why is it necessary to assess the stoma and condition of the surrounding skin during stoma site maintenance? Answer: To identify any changes in color and size of the stoma, which may indicate circulatory problems. Regular assessment of the stoma and surrounding skin is critical to early detection of any potential complications. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597743/print/answers 2/6 4/24/24, 5:07 PM Stoma Care Procedure 15. What is the purpose of gently patting the area around the stoma dry, and how does it prevent trauma? Answer: To prevent trauma to the skin and stoma; gentle patting helps to avoid rubbing or pulling on the skin, reducing the risk of trauma. Trauma to the skin and stoma can be painful and lead to complications, such as skin irritation and delayed healing. 16. What is the correct technique for removing the pouch faceplate from the skin, and why is it important? Answer: Pushing the skin from the appliance rather than pulling the appliance from the skin, starting from the top, to prevent irritation and skin damage. This technique helps to prevent skin irritation and damage, ensuring a safe and comfortable removal process. 17. What is the purpose of applying a silicone-based adhesive remover during pouch faceplate removal, and how should it be applied? Answer: To remove excess adhesive from the skin, by spraying or wiping with a remover wipe, to facilitate easy removal and prevent skin irritation. Silicone-based adhesive removers are gentle on the skin and effective in removing adhesive residue, making the removal process easier and safer. 18. Why is it important to assess the stoma and surrounding skin after cleaning and preparing the site for a new appliance? Answer: To identify any potential issues or complications, such as signs of infection or irritation, and to ensure the skin is clean and dry for the new appliance. Assessing the stoma and surrounding skin is crucial for infection control and to ensure a secure fit of the new appliance. 19. What is the purpose of applying a skin protectant to the peristomal area, and how long should it be allowed to dry? Answer: To protect the skin from irritation and adhesive, and to allow it to dry completely for about 30 seconds. Skin protectants create a barrier between the skin and the adhesive, reducing the risk of skin irritation and promoting a healthy peristomal area. 20. What is the primary benefit of using a silicone-based adhesive remover in patients with ostomies? Answer: Preventing skin irritation and breakdown and improving quality of life Silicone-based adhesive removers can reduce skin irritation and promote wound healing, leading to improved quality of life for patients with ostomies. 21. Why is it important to measure the stoma opening accurately, and how should the faceplate be cut to accommodate the stoma? Answer: To ensure a secure fit of the appliance, and to cut the faceplate 1/8 inch larger than the stoma size to accommodate any variations. Accurate measurement and cutting of the faceplate ensure a comfortable and secure fit of the appliance, reducing the risk of leakage and skin irritation. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597743/print/answers 3/6 4/24/24, 5:07 PM Stoma Care Procedure 22. What is the primary advantage of successful colostomy irrigation in patients with colostomies? Answer: A regular, predictable elimination pattern, allowing for the use of a small covering over the colostomy between irrigations Colostomy irrigation can help patients achieve a regular bowel movement pattern, reducing the need for frequent appliance changes and promoting independence. 23. Why are ileostomies not typically irrigated, unlike some colostomies? Answer: The fecal content of the ileum is liquid and cannot be controlled The liquid consistency of ileal output makes it difficult to control and manage with irrigation, so other methods are used to manage ileostomy output. 24. What is an important consideration during equipment assessment for patients with colostomies? Answer: Determining the patient's typical irrigation solution volume and any special routines during irrigation Understanding the patient's specific irrigation needs and habits can help healthcare professionals tailor their care and support to individual patient needs. 25. What role do nurses play in promoting healthy physiologic responses in patients with ostomies? Answer: Advocating for the use of products that prevent skin irritation and breakdown and improve quality of life Nurses play a critical role in promoting healthy physiologic responses in patients with ostomies by advocating for evidence-based practices and products that support optimal wound healing and quality of life. 26. What is the rationale behind wiping the lower 2 inches of the pouch with toilet tissue during stoma appliance emptying? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms and contamination of other items Wiping the lower 2 inches of the pouch with toilet tissue helps to maintain a clean environment and prevent the spread of microorganisms. 27. Why is it essential to remove the clamp before emptying the pouch into a measuring device? Answer: To prevent accidental spillage of fecal material Removing the clamp before emptying the pouch into a measuring device prevents accidental spillage of fecal material and ensures a clean environment. 28. What is the purpose of using a silicone-based adhesive remover during stoma appliance removal? Answer: To gently remove the pouch faceplate from the skin without causing skin irritation or damage Using a silicone-based adhesive remover helps to gently remove the pouch faceplate from the skin, reducing the risk of skin irritation or damage. 29. Why is hand hygiene crucial after removing PPE and changing an ostomy appliance? Answer: To prevent the spread of microorganisms and infection transmission https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597743/print/answers 4/6 4/24/24, 5:07 PM Stoma Care Procedure Hand hygiene is essential after removing PPE and changing an ostomy appliance to prevent the spread of microorganisms and infection transmission. 30. What is the significance of placing a waterproof pad under the patient at the stoma site during appliance removal? Answer: To protect the linens and patient from moisture and fecal material Placing a waterproof pad under the patient at the stoma site during appliance removal helps to protect the linens and patient from moisture and fecal material, ensuring a clean environment. 31. What is the primary reason for ensuring a tightly sealed appliance, and how does it impact the patient's overall comfort and safety? Answer: A tightly sealed appliance is essential to prevent leakage and subsequent embarrassment and discomfort for the patient. It ensures a secure fit and prevents accidents. A secure fit is crucial to prevent complications and promote patient comfort. 32. Describe the correct technique for removing the backing from the appliance, and explain its significance in stoma site maintenance. Answer: The correct technique involves quickly removing the backing from the appliance and easing it over the stoma, ensuring a smooth and secure fit. This is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure a secure seal. Proper removal of the backing is vital to ensure a secure fit and prevent skin complications. 33. What is the purpose of applying gentle pressure to the appliance for 5 minutes, and how does it contribute to the overall effectiveness of the appliance? Answer: Applying gentle pressure to the appliance for 5 minutes ensures a secure seal and promotes adhesion, making the appliance effective in managing stoma output. Gentle pressure is essential to ensure a secure fit and promote effective stoma management. 34. Explain the significance of removing gloves and additional PPE after stoma care, and how it contributes to infection control. Answer: Removing gloves and additional PPE after stoma care prevents the transmission of microorganisms and promotes infection control, ensuring a safe environment for the patient and healthcare provider. Proper removal of PPE is crucial to prevent cross-contamination and promote infection control. 35. Describe the correct technique for closing the bottom of the appliance or pouch, and explain its significance in preventing leakage and promoting patient comfort. Answer: The correct technique involves folding the end upward and using the clamp or clip that comes with the product, or securing the Velcro closure. This ensures a secure seal and prevents leakage, promoting patient comfort and safety. A secure closure is crucial to prevent accidents and promote patient comfort. 36. What is the purpose of using a skin protectant to a 2-inch radius around the stoma, and how does it contribute to the overall stoma care process? https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597743/print/answers 5/6 4/24/24, 5:07 PM Stoma Care Procedure Answer: The skin protectant creates a barrier that prevents skin irritation and promotes skin health, contributing to the overall stoma care process and patient comfort. Skin protectants play a crucial role in promoting skin health and preventing complications. 37. Explain the significance of assessing the stoma and condition of the surrounding skin during stoma site maintenance, and how it contributes to the overall care process. Answer: Assessing the stoma and surrounding skin enables healthcare providers to identify potential complications and promote early intervention, contributing to the overall care process and patient outcomes. Regular assessment is crucial to identify potential complications and promote timely intervention. 38. What is the primary purpose of promoting patient comfort during stoma care, and how does it contribute to the overall care process? Answer: Promoting patient comfort during stoma care reduces anxiety and promotes relaxation, contributing to the overall care process and patient satisfaction. Patient comfort is crucial to promote relaxation and reduce anxiety during stoma care. 39. Describe the correct technique for tracing the same-sized circle on the back and center of the skin barrier, and explain its significance in stoma site maintenance. Answer: The correct technique involves tracing the same-sized circle on the back and center of the skin barrier, ensuring a proper fit and promoting adhesion. This is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure a secure seal. Proper tracing of the circle is essential to ensure a secure fit and prevent skin complications. 40. Explain the significance of using adhesive removers during stoma appliance removal, and how it contributes to the overall stoma care process. Answer: Adhesive removers facilitate gentle removal of the appliance, reducing the risk of skin trauma and promoting skin health, contributing to the overall stoma care process and patient comfort. Adhesive removers play a crucial role in promoting skin health and preventing complications. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597743/print/answers 6/6 4/24/24, 3:46 PM Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare Answers 1. What should be assessed to determine the necessity for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in a healthcare setting? Answer: The situation, patient's chart, and possibility of exposure to blood and body fluids. Assessment is crucial in determining the necessary equipment to prevent exposure to infectious agents. 2. What is the primary outcome of using Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in a healthcare setting? Answer: Prevention of transmission of microorganisms. The use of PPE aims to prevent the transmission of microorganisms and maintain a safe environment for patients and staff. 3. What type of mask is recommended for barrier protection for mucous membranes in a healthcare setting? Answer: Surgical or particulate respirator mask. The type of mask used depends on the level of barrier protection required, with surgical or particulate respirator masks providing a higher level of protection. 4. What is the primary purpose of gloves in Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) for isolation precautions? Answer: Hand and wrist protection. Gloves are an essential component of PPE, providing protection for hands and wrists from exposure to blood and body fluids. 5. What is the category of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) that includes protective eyewear, such as goggles or face shields? Answer: Protective eyewear. Protective eyewear is a crucial component of PPE, providing barrier protection for mucous membranes and preventing exposure to infectious agents. 6. What is the correct sequence of removing PPE, specifically the gloves, to prevent the spread of microorganisms? Answer: Grasp the outside of one glove with the opposite gloved hand, peel off, and turn the glove inside out. Then, slide the fingers of the ungloved hand under the remaining glove at the wrist and peel off the glove over the first glove. Proper removal of gloves prevents contact with contaminated areas and the spread of microorganisms. 7. What areas of the PPE are considered clean and not likely to have been in contact with infectious organisms? Answer: The inside, outside back, and ties on the head and back of the PPE are considered clean. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597618/print/answers 1/6 4/24/24, 3:46 PM Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare It is essential to distinguish between clean and contaminated areas of PPE to prevent the spread of microorganisms. 8. Why is it important to untie the waist strings of an impervious gown before removing gloves? Answer: Untying the waist strings prevents contact with contaminated areas, as the front of the gown, including the waist strings, are considered contaminated. Proper removal of PPE prevents transmission of microorganisms. 9. What is the correct way to handle goggles or face shields during removal? Answer: Handle by the headband or ear pieces, and lift away from the face. Proper handling of goggles or face shields prevents contact with contaminated areas and the spread of microorganisms. 10. What is the importance of proper disposal of PPE after removal? Answer: Proper disposal of PPE prevents transmission of microorganisms. Discarding PPE in appropriate containers is a crucial step in preventing the spread of microorganisms. 11. What is the primary purpose of a mask in isolation precautions, and how does it achieve this purpose? Answer: The primary purpose of a mask is to protect the nurse or patient from droplet nuclei and large-particle aerosols. It achieves this purpose by fitting securely to prevent air leaks and droplet transmission. Masks are an essential component of personal protective equipment (PPE) in isolation precautions, and their proper fit is crucial for effective protection. 12. What is the significance of extending gloves to cover the cuffs of the gown during donning, and what does it protect? Answer: Extending gloves to cover the cuffs of the gown ensures that the gloves provide protection to the hands and wrists from microorganisms. This prevents any potential gaps in the protective barrier. Hand and wrist protection is critical in infection control, and proper glove use is essential in preventing the transmission of microorganisms. 13. What category of PPE does a respirator belong to, and how does it provide protection? Answer: A respirator belongs to the respiratory protection category of PPE. It provides protection by collapsing when inhaled and not leaking air when exhaled, which prevents the inhalation of airborne pathogens. Respiratory protection is a critical component of PPE, especially in high-risk situations where airborne transmission is a concern. 14. What is the purpose of goggles or face shields in isolation precautions, and what do they protect? Answer: Goggles or face shields protect the mucous membranes in the eye from splashes. They provide a barrier against potential splashes or sprays, preventing the transmission of microorganisms. Barrier protection for mucous membranes is essential in preventing the transmission of microorganisms, and goggles or face shields play a critical role in this protection. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597618/print/answers 2/6 4/24/24, 3:46 PM Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare 15. What is the importance of doffing PPE at the doorway or in an anteroom, and what does it prevent? Answer: Doffing PPE at the doorway or in an anteroom prevents the transmission of microorganisms to other areas, reducing the risk of contamination and infection transmission. Proper doffing procedures are essential in preventing the transmission of microorganisms, and doffing PPE at the doorway or in an anteroom is a critical step in this process. 16. What is the correct sequence of donning personal protective equipment (PPE) for isolation precautions, and what is the rationale behind this sequence? Answer: The correct sequence is to put on the gown, followed by the mask or respirator, and then the gloves. This sequence is important because the gown protects the entire uniform, the mask or respirator protects the nose, mouth, and chin, and the gloves protect the hands and wrists from microorganisms. The sequence of donning PPE is crucial to prevent contamination and ensure effective protection. 17. How do gloves protect the hands and wrists during isolation precautions, and what is the significance of this protection? Answer: Gloves protect the hands and wrists from microorganisms by creating a barrier between the skin and the contaminated environment. This protection is significant because it prevents the spread of microorganisms and reduces the risk of infection transmission. Gloves are an essential component of PPE, and their correct use is critical in preventing infection transmission. 18. What category of isolation precautions would require the use of protective eyewear, and what is the purpose of this protection? Answer: The category of isolation precautions that would require the use of protective eyewear is contact precautions. The purpose of this protection is to prevent splashes or splatters of bodily fluids from contacting the mucous membranes of the eye. Protective eyewear is an important component of PPE, and its use is critical in preventing eye infections and reducing the risk of transmission. 19. What is the primary purpose of masks or respirators in isolation precautions, and how do they provide protection? Answer: The primary purpose of masks or respirators is to provide respiratory protection by preventing the inhalation of airborne microorganisms. They provide protection by creating a barrier between the nose and mouth and the contaminated environment, preventing the spread of microorganisms. Masks or respirators are essential in preventing the transmission of airborne infections and are critical in infection control practices. 20. Why is hand hygiene an essential component of isolation precautions, and what is the consequence of poor hand hygiene? Answer: Hand hygiene is essential because it prevents the spread of microorganisms. Poor hand hygiene can lead to the transmission of infections and the spread of microorganisms, compromising patient and healthcare worker safety. Hand hygiene is a critical component of infection control practices, and its importance cannot be overstated. 21. What is the recommended sequence for donning PPE before contact with a patient, and why is it important? https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597618/print/answers 3/6 4/24/24, 3:46 PM Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare Answer: The recommended sequence is to put on PPE before entering the patient's room. It is important to prevent exposure to potential infections and to ensure that the healthcare worker is properly protected before coming into contact with the patient. Proper donning procedures are crucial in preventing the spread of infections. 22. How should healthcare workers handle their gloves when working with a patient, and why is this important? Answer: Healthcare workers should work from 'clean' areas to 'dirty' ones when wearing gloves, and avoid touching their face or other surfaces. This is important to prevent the spread of infections and to maintain the integrity of the gloves. Gloves are an essential part of PPE, but they can be a source of contamination if not handled properly. 23. What category of PPE is used for respiratory protection, and what type of precautions are associated with it? Answer: Airborne Precautions are used for respiratory protection, and they involve the use of respirators or masks to prevent the transmission of airborne pathogens. Airborne Precautions are an important aspect of Transmission-Based Precautions and are used to prevent the spread of diseases such as tuberculosis. 24. What type of barrier protection is recommended for mucous membranes in a healthcare setting, and why is it important? Answer: Goggles or face shields are recommended for barrier protection of mucous membranes, and they are important to prevent exposure to respiratory pathogens and other infectious agents. Barrier protection is a critical component of PPE, and it helps to prevent the transmission of infections through mucous membranes. 25. What is the purpose of hand hygiene after removing gloves, and why is it an important step in the doffing process? Answer: The purpose of hand hygiene after removing gloves is to remove any residual bacteria or viruses that may have been transferred to the hands during the doffing process. This is an important step in preventing the spread of infections. Hand hygiene is a crucial aspect of infection control, and it is essential to perform hand hygiene after removing gloves to prevent the transmission of infections. 26. What is the primary reason for handling used patient-care equipment with caution, and how does proper cleaning and reprocessing prevent the spread of microorganisms? Answer: The primary reason for handling used patient-care equipment with caution is to prevent the transfer of microorganisms. Proper cleaning and reprocessing of equipment prevent the spread of microorganisms by removing or killing pathogens, ensuring the equipment is safe for use with another patient. This highlights the importance of following proper protocols for handling patient-care equipment to prevent the transmission of microorganisms. 27. What is the purpose of Transmission-Based Precautions, and how do they differ from Standard Precautions? Answer: Transmission-Based Precautions are used in addition to Standard Precautions to prevent the transmission of pathogens that can be spread through airborne, droplet, or contact routes. They differ from Standard Precautions in that they provide additional measures to prevent the transmission of specific pathogens. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597618/print/answers 4/6 4/24/24, 3:46 PM Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare Transmission-Based Precautions are essential in hospitals to prevent the spread of infectious diseases. 28. What is the primary purpose of Airborne Precautions, and how do they protect healthcare workers and other patients? Answer: The primary purpose of Airborne Precautions is to prevent the transmission of airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola. They protect healthcare workers and other patients by requiring patients to be placed in private rooms with monitored negative air pressure, respiratory protection, and appropriate air discharge or filtration. Airborne Precautions are crucial in preventing the transmission of airborne pathogens in healthcare settings. 29. What is the significance of respiratory protection in Airborne Precautions, and when is it required? Answer: Respiratory protection is significant in Airborne Precautions as it prevents the inhalation of airborne pathogens. It is required when entering the room of a patient with known or suspected tuberculosis, and for nonimmune individuals entering the room of a patient with known or suspected rubeola or varicella. Respiratory protection is a critical component of Airborne Precautions to prevent the transmission of airborne pathogens. 30. What is the importance of keeping equipment, such as thermometers and stethoscopes, in the patient's room and not sharing them with other patients? Answer: It is important to keep equipment, such as thermometers and stethoscopes, in the patient's room and not share them with other patients to prevent the transmission of microorganisms. This equipment should be disposable or reprocessed properly to prevent the spread of infection. This emphasizes the importance of proper infection control practices in healthcare settings. 31. What is the correct method of removing a contaminated gown to prevent the transmission of microorganisms? Answer: Unfasten ties, allow the gown to fall away from shoulders, touch only the inside of the gown, pull away from the torso, keep hands on the inner surface, pull from arms, turn gown inside out, fold or roll into a bundle and discard. Proper removal and disposal of the gown prevent transmission of microorganisms. 32. How do you prevent transmission of microorganisms when handling goggles or face shield during removal? Answer: By handling by headband or ear pieces and lifting away from face. The outside of goggles or face shield is contaminated, so handling by headband or ear pieces prevents transmission. 33. What is the correct sequence of removing a mask or respirator to prevent transmission of microorganisms? Answer: Grasp the neck ties or elastic, then top ties or elastic and remove. Not touching the front and proper disposal prevent transmission of microorganisms. 34. How do you remove gloves to prevent transmission of microorganisms? Answer: Grasping the outside of one glove and peeling off, then sliding fingers of ungloved hand under the remaining glove at the wrist, and pulling glove off the hand and over the other glove. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597618/print/answers 5/6 4/24/24, 3:46 PM Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Healthcare Proper removal and disposal of gloves prevent transmission of microorganisms. 35. What is the purpose of removing PPE in a specific sequence, and what does it prevent? Answer: Removing PPE in a specific sequence prevents transmission of microorganisms. Proper removal and disposal of PPE in a specific sequence prevent transmission of microorganisms. 36. What is the category of PPE that includes protective eyewear, and what does it protect? Answer: Goggles or face shields are a category of PPE that protect the eyes and face from mucous membranes. Goggles or face shields provide barrier protection for mucous membranes. 37. What is the primary purpose of a mask in isolation precautions, and how does it achieve this purpose? Answer: The primary purpose of a mask is to provide barrier protection for mucous membranes, and it achieves this by covering the nose and mouth. Masks provide barrier protection for mucous membranes by covering the nose and mouth. 38. What is the category of PPE that includes respirators, and how does it provide protection? Answer: Respirators are a category of PPE that provides respiratory protection by filtering the air breathed in. Respirators provide respiratory protection by filtering the air breathed in. 39. What is the importance of proper hand and wrist protection in PPE, and what does it prevent? Answer: Proper hand and wrist protection in PPE prevents transmission of microorganisms through contact with contaminated surfaces. Gloves and gown sleeves protect the hands and wrists from microorganisms. 40. What is the primary outcome of using PPE in a healthcare setting, and what does it prevent? Answer: The primary outcome of using PPE is to prevent transmission of microorganisms, and it prevents transmission by creating a barrier between the wearer and the microorganisms. PPE creates a barrier between the wearer and the microorganisms, preventing transmission. https://quizgecko.com/quiz/597618/print/answers 6/6 4/24/24, 3:57 PM Pharmacology in Obesity Pharmacology in Obesity Answers 1. What is the implication of increased adipose tissue in older adults on drug response, and what nursing interventions are necessary to prevent drug toxicity? Answer: Implication: accumulation of fat-soluble drugs, leading to prolonged action and increased possibility of toxicity. Nursing interventions: Monitor for signs of drug interactions or toxicity, monitor blood levels of drugs. The increased adipose tissue in older adults can lead to a delayed elimination of