English Special Test -2 PDF
Document Details
2024
Sreedhar's CCE
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Summary
This is a sample English special test -2. Questions cover English grammar and sentence structure.
Full Transcript
Sreedhar’s CCE ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST -2 ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST - 2 Directions (1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, is in one part of the sentence. The...
Sreedhar’s CCE ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST -2 ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST - 2 Directions (1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, is in one part of the sentence. The alphabet of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5) i.e ‘No error’. r’s 1. Ennackal Chandy George Sudarshan, popular known as ECG Sudarshan, earned (A) / a name for himself in the field of theoretical physics (B) / and the scientist, born in 1931, was an Indian American theoretical physicist (C) / and a professor at the University of Texas. (D) / 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error 2. ha Indonesia is about to make one’s dream vacation more attainable (A) / and the Indonesian government has announced plans (B) / to offer free visas to travellers from India, alongside 19 other countries (C) / to boost tourism and revitalizing E the economy. (D) / No error d 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error 3. Andaman and Nicobar Police Department has bolstered their Canine Unit (A) / with the induction of four highly trained Belgian Malinois police dogs (B) / and ee these new members, which are specialized in explosive and narcotic detection, (C) / completed their training at the esteemed NTC for Dogs. (D) / 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error C 4. The CEO of KEC International Ltd. commented (A) / that they were delightful Sr with the continuous inflow of orders (B) / and the prestigious solar order had reaffirmed their confidence (C) / that the Renewable EPC business would contribute significantly to their growth. (D) / 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error 5. The world’s fourth large (A) / and India’s biggest LED light manufacturer Dixon Technologies engaged(B) / in manufacturing products in the consumer durables, C (C) / lighting and mobile phone markets in India. (D) / 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error Directions (6–10): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits into the blank appropriately. On 19 June 2024, the Ministry of Education announced the …………6………….. of the University Grants Commission (UGC)-National Eligibility Test (NET), which was held nationwide only a day before on 18 June. The ministry pointed out that the UGC received ……………7…………… information from the National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit of the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C), which falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs, regarding ……………8…………….. in the conduct of the NET exam. The ministry’s press release did not divulge any specific 1 Sreedhar’s CCE ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST -2 details about the information shared by the I4C; however, it pointed out that this information prima facie indicated that the ………9………….. of the NET exam may have been compromised. In a press conference chaired by the union minister of education on 20 June 2024, it was stated that preliminary investigations reveal that the NET question paper was leaked in the darknet (sic), which was later ………10…………. on a social media platform and was found to be matching with the official question paper. 6. 1) withdrawal 2) cancellation 3) postpone 4) rescheduling 5) preparation 7. 1) believe 2) corresponding 3) credible 4) ridiculous 5) exact r’s 8. 1) irregularities 2) uncertain 3) irrelevant 4) resolutions 5) improbable 9. 1) intend 2) inspiring 3) involved 4) integrity 5) introducing 10. 1) spread 2) published 3) proclamation 4) informing 5) circulated Directions (11 - 15):Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer the ha questions given below them. A. Though most Indian companies comply, the law fails to increase gender diversity in Indian corporate boards E B. Many European countries force companies to appoint a minimum of 25% women directors d C. They are mandatory rules, recommendatory provisions and self-disclosure of gender diversity policy and performance ee D. In India, an entirely different approach is adopted where instead of fixing a minimum percentage of women directors, it requires the appointment of only one woman director on corporate boards E. European and Indian legislations on the gender diversity of corporate boards C are examined to show using three instruments Sr 11. Which of the following sentence is the first after rearrangement? 1) B 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) D 12. Which of the following sentence is the third after rearrangement? 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) A 13. Which of the following sentence is the second after rearrangement? 1) E 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B 14. Which of the following sentence is the fifth after rearrangement? C 1) E 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D 15. Which of the following sentence is the fourth after rearrangement? 1) A 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) B Directions (16 - 17): In the following sentence, there is one blank space. Below the Sentence, there are five words out of which one word can be used to fill the blank to make the sentence grammatically and coherently correct. Find the most appropriate word that fits into the blank contextually. 16. Space Zone India stands poised to revolutionize the space technology industry, making significant …………………… to India’s position in the global space arena. 1) serving 2) contribution 3) allotting 4) sanctioned 5) allocate 17. The meeting attended by Minister of Commerce and Industry and top officials focussed on …………………. 100 billion dollar in exports of electronics and textiles. 1) target 2) secured 3) provision 4) achieving 5) reach 2 Sreedhar’s CCE ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST -2 Directions (18 - 19): In the following question, improve the Sentence by replacing the underlined part grammatically and contextually with one of the options given. If the underlined part is correct, then choose the option 5 i.e ‘No Improvement is required.’ 18. No sooner did the guard blew the whistle and waved the green flag thenthe train moved. 1) did the guard blow the whistle and waved the green flag that 2) did the guard blow the whistle and wave the green flag than 3) did the guard blown the whistle and waved the green flag then 4) did the guard blows the whistle and waves the green flag than 5) No correction is required. r’s 19. We could donate a huge amount for the construction of the school building if we have enough money. 1) if we had enough money. 2) if we has enough money. 3) if we would have enough money. 4) if we will have enough money. 5) No correction is required. ha Directions (20 - 21): In the following question, a Sentence is divided into four parts consisting of a highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting the word which is misspelt. If all the highlighted words are correct, choose option (5) i.e. “All are correct.” as your answer. 20. E In a significant move towards (1) / equitable treatment for Regional Rural Bank (2) / employees, the Department of Financial Services has (3) / mandated the d implementation of salary revisions according to the 12th Bipartite (4) / Settllement. 1) equitable 2) employees 3) mandated 4) settllement 5) All are correct. 21. From a legal point of view, (1) / citigenship refers to the formal (2) / relationship ee between an (3) / individual and a country and a citizen has the status of being a legal member of a (4) / sovereign state. 1) citigenship 2) relationship 3) individual 4) sovereign 5) All are correct. Directions (22 - 23): In the following questions, a Sentence is divided into four C parts consisting of a highlighted word in each part. Choose the option reflecting Sr the word which is inappropriate. If all the highlighted words are appropriate, choose option (E) i.e. “All are correct.” as your answer. 22. Indian (1) / Culture is (2) / touted as a way of life, a (3) / safeguard over recession and the origin of human (4) / behaviour. 1) culture 2) touted 3) safeguard over 4) behaviour 5) All are correct. 23. Pongamia trees (1) / do not needs fertilizer or pesticides and they (2) / flourish in drought or rainy conditions and they (3) / do not require teams of workers (4) / to pick the beans. C 1) do not needs 2) flourish 3) do not require 4) to pick 5) All are correct. Directions (24 - 25): In this question, words A, B, C and D are given in bold. If two of these words are interchanged, the Sentence will be meaningful and grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words. If all the words are appropriate, then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer. 24. Tata Company Limited, a joint (A) / accessories between the Tata Group and the Tamilnadu Industrial Development Corporation is (B) / engaged in the business of (C) / manufacturing and sale of watches, jewellery and other (D) / venture and products. 1) BA 2) CD 3) BD 4) DA 5) All are correct. 25. (A) / Thousands of Bangladesh university students (B) / discriminatory roadblocks across key highways, (C) / demanding the end of (D) / threw quotas for coveted government jobs. 1) CD 2) DB 3) CA 4) BA 5) All are correct. 3 Sreedhar’s CCE ENGLISH SPECIAL TEST -2 Directions (26 – 30): Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. Cambridge University Press is a department of the University of Cambridge, and is both an academic and an educational publisher. It became part of Cambridge University Press & Assessment, following a merger with Cambridge Assessment in 2021. With a global sales presence, publishing hubs, and offices in more than 40 countries, it publishes over 50,000 titles by authors from over 100 countries. Its publications include more than 420 academic journals, monographs, reference works, school and university textbooks, and English language teaching and learning publications. It also publishes Bibles, runs a bookshop in Cambridge, sells through Amazon, and has a conference venues business in Cambridge at the Pitt Building r’s and the Sir Geoffrey Cass Sports and Social Centre. Cambridge University Press is the oldest university press in the world. It originated from letters patent granted to the University of Cambridge by Henry VIII in 1534. Cambridge is one of the two privileged presses (the other being Oxford University Press). Authors published by Cambridge have included John ha Milton, William Harvey, Isaac Newton, Bertrand Russell, and Stephen Hawking.University printing began in Cambridge when the first practising University Printer, Thomas Thomas, set up a printing house in 1584. The first E publication was a book, Two Treatises of the Lord His Holie Supper. In 1591 the first Cambridge Bible was printed by John Legate and in 1629 Cambridge folio d edition of the King James Bible was printed by Thomas and John Buck.In July 1697, the Duke of Somerset made a loan of £200 to the university “towards the printing house and press” and James Halman, Registrar of the university, lent ee £100 for the same purpose.A new home for the press, The Pitt Building, on Trumpington Street in the centre of Cambridge was completed in 1833, which was designed by Edward Blore. It became a listed building in 1950. C 26. What is this passage about particularly? 1) various courses offered by Cambridge University Sr 2) various books published by Cambridge University Press 3) Various authors in English 4) various University Presses 5) various languages in the world 27. Who designed The Pitt Building? 1) Bertrand Russel 2) James Halman 3) Stephen Hawking 4) Edward Blore 5) William Harvey 28. When was the first Cambridge Bible published? C 1) 1950 2) 1697 3) 1591 4) 1534 5) 1629 29. Choose the Antonym of the word ‘privileged’. 1) advantageous 2) promoted 3) deterrent 4) instrumental 5) beneficial 30. According to the passage, choose the name of the author among these five. 1) Henry VIII 2) John Legate 3) Thomas 4) John Buck 5) John Milton KEY 1.1 2.4 3.1 4.2 5.1 6.2 7.3 8.1 9.4 10.5 11.3 12.1 13.4 14.2 15.4 16.2 17.4 18.2 19.1 20.4 21.1 22.3 23.1 24.4 25.2 26.2 27.4 28.3 29.3 30.5 4