Mock-Exam-Part3.pdf

Licensure Examination for Agricultural and Biosystems Engineers MOCK EXAMINATION A 4-hour Examination Compiled and prepared by Juven Subject 3 – 33% Rural Electrification, Agricultural Processing, Agricultural Struct...

Licensure Examination for Agricultural and Biosystems Engineers MOCK EXAMINATION A 4-hour Examination Compiled and prepared by Juven Subject 3 – 33% Rural Electrification, Agricultural Processing, Agricultural Structures, and allied subjects MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to the Constructor’s Performance Evaluation System (CPES), all projects shall be subjected to a minimum of ___ evaluation(s) to be performed by the CPE. (ABE Board 2019) a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 2. Constructor’s Performance Evaluation System (CPES) falls under what government agency? (ABE Board 2018) a. BAFE b. NEDA c. DA d. DPWH 3. According to the Constructor’s Performance Evaluation System (CPES), all projects with 90 calendar days or below durations shall be subjected to a minimum of ___ evaluation(s) to be performed by the CPE. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 4. What does UCS in AutoCAD stands for? (ABE Board 2018) a. Uniform Coordinate System b. Unified Coordinate System c. Universal Coordinate System d. User Coordinate System 5. In AutoCAD, a function which smoothen the edge of an object. a. fillet b. trim c. poly d. cut 6. PAES 404:2001, Agricultural Structures – Housing for Goat and Sheep. The recommended minimum slotted floor space requirement for Bucks/Ram. (ABE Board 2019) a. 0.5 m2/animal b. 2 m2/animal c. 2.5 m2/animal d. 3 m2/animal 7. PAES 404:2001, Agricultural Structures – Housing for Goat and Sheep. The recommended minimum solid floor space requirement for Buck/Ram. (ABE Board 2019) a. 0.5 m2/animal b. 2 m2/animal c. 2.5 m2/animal d. 3 m2/animal 8. PAES 419:2000, Agricultural Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage of Grains. The recommended dimensions of a warehouse having 10,000 cavans capacity. (ABE Board 2019) a. 10m x 30m b. 20m x 48m c. 25m x 78m d. 75m x 142m 9. PAES 251:2018, Agricultural Machinery – Corn Mill. Grits with a particle size from 0.842mm to 1.00mm which passed through US Sieve No. 18 but are retained in US Sieve No. 20. (ABE Board 2019) a. corn grits #12 b. corn grits #16 c. corn grits #18 d. corn grits #20 10. PAES 421:2009, Farm-to-Market Road. The maximum slope of road shoulder shall be __ from the edge of the road carriageway. (ABE Board 2019) a. 2% b. 3% c. 4% d. 5% 11. In parallel circuit, what remains constant? (ABE Board 2019) a. resistance b. voltage c. current d. NOTA 12. A room is to be lighted with direct spreading fluorescent lamp at a mounting height ratio of 1.50. The lamps will be mounted on a grid measuring 5x5m. Determine the minimum mounting height of the fluorescent lamp. (ABE Board 2018) a. 1m b. 2m c. 3m d. 4m 13. Define coefficient of hulling. (ABE Board 2019) a. Measure of the ability of the machine to remove the hulls without breaking the grain b. Measure of the ability of the machine to remove the hulls c. Measure of the extent or degree by which the bran layer of brown rice is removed d. NOTA 14. Define coefficient of wholeness. (ABE Board 2019) a. Measure of the ability of the machine to remove the hulls without breaking the grain b. Measure of the ability of the machine to remove the hulls c. Measure of the extent or degree by which the bran layer of brown rice is removed d. NOTA 15. Define illuminance. (ABE Board 2019) a. The light that seems to radiate from an object viewed b. A strong, steady, dazzling light or reflection  c. An intensity of light per unit area d. NOTA 16. What is risk analysis? (ABE Board 2019) a. a qualitative problem-solving approach that uses various tools of assessment to work out and rank risks for the purpose of assessing and resolving them b. a quantitative problem-solving approach of identification, analysis, and response to risk factors c. a quantitative problem-solving approach that uses various tools of assessment to work out and rank risks for the purpose of assessing and resolving them d. a qualitative problem-solving approach of identification, analysis, and response to risk factors 17. What is risk management? (ABE Board 2019) a. Encompasses the identification, analysis, and response to risk factors b. Offers the potential to reduce both the possibility of a risk occurring and its potential impact c. Attempting to control future outcomes by acting proactively rather that reactively d. AOTA 18. Define facultative lagoon. a. Pit in the ground where liquid waste is stored before final disposal b. Pit in the ground which can function as aerobic depending on the environment c. Pit in the ground which can function as anaerobic depending on the environment d. Pit in the ground which can function as aerobic and anaerobic depending on the environment 19. Define eutrophication. (ABE Board 2019) a. The process by which a body of water becomes enriched in algal bloom b. The process by which ammonium is converted to nitrates c. The process by which algae overgrowths in water producing dangerous toxins d. The process by which a body of water becomes enriched with nutrients 20. Define nitrification. (ABE Board 2019) a. Conversion of ammonium to nitrite b. Conversion of ammonium to nitrogen gas c. Conversion of ammonium to nitrite and nitrate d. Conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas 21. Define insulators. (ABE Board 2019) a. a material having high conductance but low resistance b. a material having high resistance to heat and electricity c. a material best for conduction of heat and electricity d. a material best for low resistance of heat and electricity 22. Which of the following metal has lowest resistivity and highest conductivity? (ABE Board 2019) a. Copper b. Gold c. Aluminum d. Silver 23. An electrical equipment but is not an electrical device. (ABE Board 2019) a. receptacle b. panel board c. junction box d. convenience outlet 24. PAES 415:2001, Greenhouses. Method of greenhouse construction where modular roof units are connected at the eave by a common gutter. (ABE Board 2019) a. Gable b. Quonset c. Arch d. ridge and furrow 25. PAES 421:2009, Farm-to-Market Road. The absolute minimum slope that is acceptable for storm drain. a. 0.5% b. 0.6% c. 0.75% d. 1% 26. A type of slab for flooring. (ABE Board 2019) a. conventional slab b. flat slab c. waffle slab d. NOTA 27. The ampere rating of a convenience outlet. (ABE Board 2019) a. 2.0 A b. 2.5 A c. 1.5 A d. 1.0 A 28. A three-phase transformer is supplying 50 VA and having a power factor of 0.9. Determine the consumable power. a. 45 watts b. 86.6 watts c.63.63 watts d. 77.94 watts 29. Determine the number of secondary turns of a transformer given the primary turns of 1000, primary voltage of 4160V, and secondary voltage of 250V. a. 100 turns b. 60 turns c. 40 turns d. 80 turns 30. A log having a diameter of 30cm and a length of 3m is to be cut into lumber. Determine the volume of lumber made from that log. (ABE Board 2019) a. 23 bd-ft b. 127 bd-ft c. 40 bd-ft d. 54 bd-ft 31. What is the reason for spot overloading? (ABE Board 2019) a. any current in excess of the rated current of the equipment or the ampacity of a conductor b. a connection of comparatively low resistance accidentally or intentionally made between points in a circuit between which the resistance is normally much greater c. operation of equipment in excess of normal, full-load rating, or a conductor in excess of rated ampacity d. NOTA 32. During construction, testing of cement prior to sample taking takes a time of __. (ABE Board 2019) a. 10 min b. 5 min c. 15 min d. 30 min 33. A mechanical device used to force on a system. (ABE Board 2019) a. turbine b. pump c. motor d. generator 34. For an 8A current to produce 10C charge, how much time is needed? (ABE Board 2019) a. 0.8 sec b. 80 sec c. 1.25 sec d. 1.3 sec 35. Converts rotational motion to linear. (ABE Board 2018) a. piston b. crankshaft c. connecting rod d. AOTA 36. A wire of 16 strands has a each strand a diameter of 0.0837 inches. Determine the circular mill of the wire. (ABE Board 2019) a. 110,080 CM b. 111,100 CM c. 112,192 CM d. 112,092 CM 37. Convert 35610 to octal number. a. 6568 b. 5448 c. 7988 d. 6908 38. Estimate the biogas production in cubic meters per day from a large balloon type digester using a 1:1 water-manure ratio. The source farm has 2,000 heads of porkers of mixed ages. Use a retention period of 30 days. The mean daily manure production of porkers is 2.2 kg/head while the specific gas production for 30-day manure retention period is 0.063 m3/kg. a. 4,400 b. 126 c. 277 d. 162 39. How many heads of breeding cattle are needed as source of manure to generate 85 cubic meter of biogas a day if the retention period is 25 days and water-manure ratio is 1:1. The mean daily manure production of breeding cattle is 13 kg/head while its specific gas production for 25-day manure retention period is half of that of chicken dung. a. 33 b. 7 c. 34 d. 218 40. In big wind farm projects, which should be done first? (ABE Board 2019) a. wind velocity measurement b. energy demand survey c. transmission d. rotor sizing 41. The purpose of machine limit test. (ABE Board 2019) 42. PAES 405:2001, Cattle Feedlot. The central alley or driveway should be elevated and shall have a minimum width of __ if vehicles are allowed to enter within the building and it shall have a solid base. (ABE Board 2019) a. 2 m b. 3 m c. 1.5 m d. 1 m 43. Determine the elevation of a hill if the pressure reading at the top and bottom of the hill are 94 kPa and 95.5 kPa, respectively. Assume air density of 1.2 kg/m3. (ABE Board 2019) a. 130 m b. 200 m c. 150 m d. 127 m 44. What is an insulator? (ABE Board 2019) a. a material which has a higher resistance b. a material used for separating conductors c. a material which has a higher conductivity d. a material which does conduct heat or electricity 45. A concrete cast in pre-assembled forms in combination with rebar and steel cable reinforcement. These cables are tensioned to transfer the tensile stresses into the concrete. a. precast concrete b. prestressed concrete c. lightweight concrete d. heavyweight concrete 46. Hazard classification of HACCP. These include any foreign material which is not expected in the food such as hair, fingernails, metal, pieces of wood, plastic, glass, and insect debris. (ABE Board 2018)  a. chemical hazard b. microbiological hazard c. physical hazard d. allergenic hazard 47. A point, step. Procedure in food manufacturing process at which control can be applied and a food hazard can be prevented or reduced. a. GMP b. SOP c. HACCP d. CCP 48. What is the abbreviation HACCP means? a. hazard analysis conventional control protocol b. hazard analysis critical control point c. hazard analysis critical control protocol d. hazard analysis and critical control point 49. When hidden lines, center lines, and visible lines coincide on a drawing, which line is needed to show in the drawing? a. hidden line b. center line c. visible line d. AOTA 50. A plane section cuts a sphere at center in a 45 degrees angle. What is the shape of the cut when viewed in top view and front view? a. circle, circle b. ellipse, circle c. circle, ellipse d. ellipse, ellipse 51. A section that is not in direct projection from the view containing the cutting plane and is drawn to an enlarge scale. a. broken section b. revolved section c. removed section d. offset section 52. A type of line that defines axes and section runs a. dash line b. visible line c. dash-dot line d. cutting plane line 53. It is intended to simplify representing individual elements in drawings and provide information about the nature of representation, and the qualities of materials and components used in planning. a. labeling b. hatching c. dimensioning d. NOTA 54. PAES 206:2000, Rice Mill. Grain or fraction of grain with its length equal to or greater than __ of the average length of the whole grain. a. 8/10 b. 1/6 c. 8/16 d. 10/16 55. A 1.5 tons rice mill has a milling recovery of 65%. The weight of broken rice is 340 kg and the whole rice is 610 kg. Compute the percent head rice. a. 56% b. 63% c. 41% d. 64% 56. An electric pump has a total resistance of 9.5 ohms. If its power source is from a 220 Volts outlet, what should be the current rating of its safety fuse? Assume 27% surge current. (ABE Board 2015) a. 45 amp b. 40 amp c. 30 amp d. 50 amp 57. The penstock of a dam has a diameter of 2.0 m. If water of velocity 5 m/s passes through the penstock, what must be the power generated in the turbine located 15 m below. Turbine efficiency is 75%. (USeP Preboard 2019) a. 1733.57 kW b. 1377.75 kW c. 1573.37 kW d. 1777.53 kW 58. Consider a person standing in a room always maintained at 20°C. The inner surfaces of the walls, floors, and ceiling of the house are observed to be at an average temperature of 12°C in winter and 23°C in summer. Determine the rates of radiation heat transfer between the person and the surrounding surfaces in the summer if the exposed surface area, emissivity, and average outer surface temperature of the person are 1.6 m2, 0.95, and 32°C, respectively. a. 177.2 W b.84.2 W c. 78.8 W d. 336 W 59. Consider problem 61, compare the radiation heat transfer from the person in winter and summer. a. doubled b. tripled c. lesser d. more than doubled 60. The unheated storage facility is located on flat open terrain, where the specified ground snow load is 15 lb/ft2. Determine the design snow load on the roof which has a slope of 4%. Assume Ce = 0.8, Ct = 1.2, and Is = 0.8. P = 0.7CeCtIs (ABE Board 2018) a. 12 lb/ft2 b. 8.06 lb/ft2 c. 15 lb/ft2 d. 18 lb/ft2 61. Under what conditions is the ideal-gas assumption suitable for real gases? (ABE Board 2019) a. When it is at a high temperature or low pressure relative to its saturation temperature  b. When it is at a low temperature or high pressure relative to its critical temperature c. When it is at a high temperature or low pressure relative to its critical temperature d. When it is at a high temperature or high pressure relative to its saturation temperature 62. In PERT/CPM, these nodes in a network that require no time. (ABE Board 2019) a. float b. critical path c. dummy activity d. backward pass 63. In testing of corn sheller, what should be the moisture content of corn? (ABE Board 2018) a. 18-24% db b. 18-24% wb c. 12-16% db d. 12-16% wb 64. A barangay road 6.0m wide and 2km long after base preparation requires concreting. How many 50kg bags of cement are required using class A concrete if the slab is 6in thich? a. 16,460 b. 13,463 c. 14,874 d. 12,082 65. A concrete fire wall measures 30m long and 12m high. Determine the number of gallons (4L content) required using acrylic gloss latex paint if the wall is fine to smooth finished. a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d. 20 66. A concrete open fence shall be constructed. Two sides are 20m long while the other side (facing the opening) is 15m long. Estimate the number of hollow blocks needed if the height of the fence is 2m. a. 1,450 b. 1,210 c. 1,525 d. 1,375 67. A 3m x 5m floor requires 8” x 8” unglazed floor tiles. How many tiles are needed? a. 375 b. 350 c. 425 d. 400 68. Calculate the available power that can be generated from a hydropower plant with the following operating conditions: river flow rate = 0.5m 3/s, river flow speed = 8m/s, turbine efficiency = 75%, and water density = 1,000 kg/m 3. a. 13 hp b. 14 hp c. 15 hp d. 16 hp 69. A 100g object is suspended on a light spring of unknown spring constant, and the system is gently allowed to come to rest at its equilibrium position. If the change in position between the stretched and unstretched equilibrium positions is 5.4cm, what is the value of the spring constant? a. 10.8 N/m b. 18.1 N/m c. 5.6 N/m d. 24.3 N/m 70. A 12in thick furnace wall with a dimension of 5m by 2m has a temperature difference of 60°C. The wall has a thermal conductivity of 0.75 Btu/h-ft-°F. Calculate the heat transmitted across the wall. a. 2554 W b. 2455 W c. 2440 W d. 2445 W 71. How many 75 watt-peak solar modules are needed for a solar powered incubator having a power rating of 144 watts, system voltage of 48 volts and amperage of 6 amperes? All solar modules used have 12 volts nominal voltage and 4.6 amperes peak amperage. a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16 72. A structure that connects the web members and the top members. (ABE Board 2017) a. belt b. truss c. purlin d. collar 73. A brand-new refrigerator has an EER of 11 kJ/Wh. What is the equivalent COP? a. 3.06 b. 3.22 c. 11.0 d. 5.50 74. A typical new household refrigerator consumes about 700 kWh of electricity per year and has a coefficient of performance of 1.4. The amount of heat removed by this refrigerator space per year is a. 1,050 MJ/yr b. 1,800 MJ/yr c. 3,528 MJ/yr d. 6,048 MJ/yr 75. The over current rating of a circuit breaker is 30 amperes. When will the circuit breaker trips off? a. If the current is 25 amp b. If the current is 30 amp c. If the current is 35 amp d. If the current is 40 amp 76. When the system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at very instant of its state, it is undergoing __. (ABE Board 2017) a. isobaric process b. quasi-steady process c. isometric process d. isentropic process 77. A wooden pole (SG = 0.65) 9cm by 9cm by 5m long hangs vertically from a string in such a way that 3m is submerged in water and 2m is above the surface. What is the tension of the string? (ABE Board 2017) a. 19.87 N b. 17.89 N c. 18.96 N d. 16.97 N 78. A voltage drop is __. (ABE Board 2018)  a. Difference in voltage between two points b. Circuit potential difference c. An electric potential d. AOTA 79. A Carnot engine takes 2000 J of heat from a reservoir at 500 K, does some work, and discards some heat to a reservoir at 350 K. How much work does it do? a. 600 J b. 700 J c. 800 J d. 900 J 80. In relation to problem 82, what is its efficiency? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% 81. The Clausius statement refers to __. (ABE Board 2018) a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics b. First Law of Thermodynamics c. Second Law of Thermodynamics d. NOTA 82. PAES 413:2001, Biogas Plant. A plant consisting of a heat-sealed plastic or rubber bag, combining digester and gasholder. (ABE Board 2018) a. fixed type b. integrated type c. balloon type d. floating type 83. PAES 413:2001, Biogas Plant. The pH value should normally take on a value between 7-8.5, if pH value drops below __, the medium will have a toxic effect on methanogenic bacteria. a. 4.2 b. 5.7 c. 6.2 d. 6.9 84. PAES 204:2015, Mechanical Rice Thresher. The minimum efficiency of rice thresher. a. 60% b. 75% c. 97% d. 99% 85. A mass of ice at -4°C is needed to cool 114 kg of vegetables in a bunker for 24 hours. The initial temperature of the vegetables is assumed to be 29°C. It is also assumed that the average temperature in the bunker is 7°C, within the 24-hour period. If the heat gained per hour in the bunker is 30% of the heat removed to cool the vegetables from 29°C to 7°C, what would be the required mass of ice? Specific heat of ice = 1.9387 kJ/kg-°C, specific heat of vegetable = 3.35 kJ/ kg- °C, specific heat of water = 4.2292 kJ/kg-°C, heat of fusion of ice = 335 kJ/kg a. 39.14 kg b. 29.33 kg c. 39.22 kg d. 19.44 kg 86. 100 kg of ice at -5°C is placed in a bunker to cool some vegetables, 24 hours later, the ice has melted into water at 10°C. What is the average rate of cooling in kJ/h provided by the ice? Specific heat of ice = 1.94 kJ/kg-K, specific heat of water = 4.1868 kJ/kg-K, latent heat of fusion of ice at 0°C = 335 kJ/kg. a. 1270 kJ/h b. 1611 kJ/h c. 1694 kJ/h d. 3170 kJ/h 87. The maximum possible coefficient of performance (COP) of a domestic refrigerator which produces refrigeration at -25°C and heat ejected to the ambient at 60°C is __. (ABE Board 2016) a. 3.9 b. 2.9 c. 1.34 d. 0.25 88. A refrigerant that is highly toxic and flammable. (ABE Board 2018) a. R12 b. ammonia c. freon d. methyl chloride 89. Determine the number of corrugated GI roof sheet if the required side lapping is 1-1/2 corrugations with 30cm end lapping on a 2” by 3” purlins. Effective covering of GI roofing sheet = 0.70, gutter length = 14m, rafter length = 6m. a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10 90. Four 40W by 128cm fluorescent lamp, each producing 3,200 lumens of light, are installed in a room having a general dimension of of 20’ by 50’. Find the illumination. a. 16 fc b. 25.5 fc c. 10.5 fc d. 12.8 fc 91. In relation to problem 93, if the mounting height ratio of fluorescent lamp is 1.50 and the lamp is mounted on a 3.75m x 3.75m grid, find the minimum mounting height of the fluorescent lamp. (ABE Board 2018) a. 1.5 m b. 2.5 m c. 1.8 m d. 2 m 92. Drying efficiency is __. (ABE Board 2018) a. ratio of the total heat utilized for drying, to the heat available in the fuel expressed in percent b. total amount of heat utilized to vaporize moisture in the material c. ratio of the total heat utilized to vaporize moisture in the material, to the amount of heat added to the drying air expressed in percent d. ratio of the heat released by the fuel, to the theoretical heat available from the fuel 93. What is the purpose of a thermal relay? (ABE Board 2017) a. prevents short circuit b. prevents ground fault c. prevents fire d. both a and b 94. PAES 401:2001, Housing for Swing. The required flow rate of ventilation provided for breeding and gestating pens is _. (ABE Board 2017) a. 0.08 m3/min b. 0.12 m3/min c. 0.28 m3/min d. 1.0 m3/min 95. PAES 221:2004, Peanut Sheller. The test material to be used shall have a moisture content of __. (ABE Board 2017) a. 12-14% db b. 12-14% wb c. 18-24% db d. 18-24% wb 96. According to CPES during construction, the maximum weight or rating for the environmental, safety and health (ESH) is __. (ABE Board 2017) a. 0.4 b. 0.3 c. 0.15 d. 0.07 97. A narrow canal. (ABE Board 2018) a. alley b. gutter c. pit d. NOTA 98. In construction of farmhouse, how many percent is allotted for windows? (ABE Board 2016) a. 5-15% b. 5-10% c. 10-15% d. 10-20% 99. What diode is needed as protection against lightning in solar panel installation? (ABE Board 2015) a. bypass diode b. blocking diode c. lightning diode d. shading diode 100. A body or substance that absorbs heat through expansion or vaporization at lower to higher temperature. a. coolant b. black body c. refrigerant d. both a and c “The starting point of all achievements is desire. Weak desire brings weak result, just as A small fire makes a small amount of heat.” Napoleon Hill (Think and Grow Rich) Note: This material is a compilation of previous board examination questions. Most of the answers are validated but may still have minimal errors. Please utilize this material to the fullest. You may refer to the compiler for further clarification.  ANSWER KEY 1 B 26 B 51 C 76 B 2 B 27 C 52 C 77 A 3 A 28 D 53 B 78 D 4 D 29 B 54 A 79 A 5 A 30 C 55 B 80 B 6 C 31 C 56 C 81 C 7 S 32 B 57 A 82 C 8 A 33 B 58 B 83 C 9 C 34 C 59 D 84 D 10 C 35 C 60 A 85 B 11 B 36 D 61 C 86 C 12 C 37 B 62 C 87 B 13 B 38 C 63 B 88 B 14 A 39 D 64 D 89 C 15 C 40 A 65 B 90 D 16 A 41 66 D 91 B 17 D 42 B 67 A 92 C 18 D 43 D 68 D 93 D 19 D 44 A 69 B 94 C 20 C 45 B 70 A 95 B 21 B 46 C 71 B 96 D 22 D 47 D 72 B 97 B 23 C 48 B 73 A 98 B 24 D 49 C 74 C 99 B 25 A 50 D 75 C 100 C