Moatasem Anatomy PDF Quiz

1)Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? A)nervous B)muscular C)immune D)lymphatic Point: 0.40000000000000002 2)Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is NOT correctly matched.A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region. B) Micros...

1)Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? A)nervous B)muscular C)immune D)lymphatic Point: 0.40000000000000002 2)Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is NOT correctly matched.A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region. B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye. C) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye. D) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth Point: 0.40000000000000002 3)Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains a. a static state with no deviation from preset points. b. a dynamic state within an unlimited range. c. a relatively stable internal environment within limits. d. the lowest possible energy usage Point: 0.40000000000000002 4)Which statement about enzymes is FALSE? A)Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements. B)Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute. C)Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature. D)Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form Point: 0.40000000000000002 5)Which of the following statements is FALSE? A)Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in highernumbers B)Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures. C)Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversiblechanges in shape. D)Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. Point: 0.40000000000000002 6)Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages? A) phagocytosis b)exocytosis c)lysosomal degradation d) pinocytosis e)intracellular vesicular trafficking Point: 0.40000000000000002 7)In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________. A) the smooth ER B) the rough ER C) both smooth and rough ER D) the cytoplasm Point: 0.40000000000000002 8)The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is ________. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) ssRNA Point: 0.40000000000000002 9)A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________. A) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached. B) swell and burst C) neither shrink nor swell D) shrink Point: 0.44444 10)Which of the following describes the plasma membrane? A) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell B) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae C) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma D) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell Point: 0.40000000000000002 11)Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells? A) goblet cells B) cilia C) mast cells D) macrophages Point: 0.40000000000000002 12)Which of the following is NOT a step in tissue repair? A) Formation of new stem cells B) Restoration of blood supply C) Regeneration and fibrosis. Supply D) Inflammation Point: 0.40000000000000002 13)Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. A. Areolar B. Reticular C. Embryonic D. Dense Regular Point: 0.40000000000000002 14)Which tissue type would likely function to hold the kidneys in place? Answer: skeletal muscle Point: 0.40000000000000002 19)Choose which tissue type likely functions to add support to an organ. A)hyaline cartilage B)stratified squamous epithelium C)cardiac muscle D)transition Point: 0.40000000000000002 20)A light-skinned person may appear pink when they become over heated. The best explanation for this is ________. a. the melanocytes are responding to the heat of the sun and change the appearance of the skin with increased production. b. blood flow has increased to the sweat glands in order to increased their metabolic activity. c. the heart is pumping faster because the person was probably exercising. d. the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasodilation, bringing a greater volume of blood to the skin. Point: 0.40000000000000002 21)William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information, you would predict that the cut has penetrated to ________. a. the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum. b. the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper. c. the stratum basale but not the dermal layers. d. the papillary layer but not the reticular layer. Point: 0.44444 22)The surge of sex hormones that accompanies puberty has a wide range of effects on the body. One of those effects is to enhance the activity of the sebaceous glands, increasing the production of sebum. Which of the following is the most likely to result from the increased sebaceous activity? a. Increased cooling of the skin. b. Increased oily appearance and more acne. c. Increased hair growth. d. Decreased vitamin D synthesis. Point: 0.40000000000000002 23)Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. a. Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant. b. Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. c. Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum. d. Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant. Point: 0.40000000000000002 24 )A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale D) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum Point: 0.40000000000000002 25) Which of the following bones are NOT a part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Shoulder b. Hip c. Skull d. Upper limb Point: 0.40000000000000002 26)Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. a. Cartilage and compact bone b. Dense irregular connective tissue c. Osteogenic cells d. Chondrocytes and osteocytes Point: 0.40000000000000002 27)The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by ________. a. Volkmann's canals b. A bony matrix with hyaline cartilage c. Perforating (Sharpey's) fibers d. The struts of bone known as spicules Point: 0.40000000000000002 28)The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae B) osteoclasts and osteoblasts C) yellow marrow and spicules D) blood vessels and nerve fibers Point: 0.40000000000000002 29)The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following? a) amount of mineral salts and proteins in the bone. b) presence of osteoblasts in the bone. c) amount of mineral salts in the bone. d) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules. Point: 0.444444 30)The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system. It works closely with the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is, therefore, ________. a)superior to the sella turcica b)superior to the crista galli c)the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull d)inferior to the cribriform plate Point: 0.40000000000000002 31)During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________. A)crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place B)perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity C)styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone D)pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles Point: 0.40000000000000002 32)Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________. a) applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping. b) providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities. c) giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock. d) limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension. Point: 0.40000000000000002 33)When looking at the range of motion of the various sections of the vertebral column the ________ has the most flexibility. a)cervical spine b)sacral spine c)thoracic spine d)lumbar spine Point: 0.40000000000000002 34)The range of motion as well as the direction of motion for the various regions of the spine differs. For example, the lumbar spine is capable of flexion and extension but little rotational movement, while the thoracic spine rotates with little flexion or extension. This is due to variation in ________. a. the arrangement of muscular attachment to the spinous processes b. the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets c. the thickness of the intervertebral disc d. the composition of the intervertebral disks Point: 0.40000000000000002 35)The anatomy of the thoracic cage provides ridged support and protection but at the same time is also flexible and mobile. Of the list below, which feature does NOT aid in the flexibility and movement of the thoracic cage? A)the costal spaces occupied by costal muscle B)the costal cartilages C)the sternal angle D)the jugular notch Point: 0.40000000000000002 36)The axial skeleton includes ________. A) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis B) arms, legs, hands, and feet C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage D) the skull, the scapula, and the vertebral column Point: 0.40000000000000002 37)Which vertebra does NOT have a body? A)axis B)atlas C)last cervical D)last lumbar Point: 0.40000000000000002 38)Which of the following bones is NOT weight bearing? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) talus Point: 0.40000000000000002 39)Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus? a)head b)calcaneus c)lateral malleolus d)medial malleolus Point: 0.40000000000000002 40)The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because ________..A) the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range ofmotion B) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate C) muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power D) these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate Point: 0.40000000000000002 41)All of the following are factors that influence synovial joint stability EXCEPT ________. a. structure and shape of the articulating bone b.strength and tension of joint ligaments c. arrangement and tension of the muscles d.number of bones in the joint Point: 0.4444444 42)Performing "jumping jacks" requires ________. A) pronation and supination B) flexion and extention C) abduction and adduction D) inversion and eversion Point: 0.44444 43)Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________. A) pronation B) retraction C) adduction D) protraction Point: 0.444 44)Rigor mortis occurs because ________. A) sodium ions leak out of the muscle B) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules C) the cells are dead D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions Point: 0.40000000000000002 45)The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________. A) hemoglobin B) ATP C) myoglobin D) immunoglobin Point: 0.40000000000000002 46)The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________. A. microtubules B. myofibrils C. T tubules D. mitochondria Point: 0.40000000000000002 47)Sarcomeres are functional units of ________ muscle. A. smooth B. cardiac C. skeletal D. Band C only Point: 0.4444444444444 48)What is the functional role of the T tubules? A) stabilize the G and F actin B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction C) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle D) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction Point: 0.40000000000000002 49)During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. A) stearic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) a strong base D) lactic acid Point: 0.40000000000000002 50)When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? A) relaxation period B) refractory period C) latent period D) fatigue period Point: 0.40000000000000002 51)The ________ extends the great toe. A) gastrocneumius B)extensor hallucis longus D)tibialis anterior C)fibularis (peroneous) tertius Point: 0.40000000000000002 52)Which type of lever is exemplified by the flexing of the forearm by the biceps brachii muscle? a. First-class lever b. Second-class lever c. Third-class lever d. Fourth-class lever Point: 0.40000000000000002 53)What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop? A)extensor hallucis longus B)tibialis anterior C)fibularis tertius D) extensor digitorum longus Point: 0.40000000000000002 54)What is the major factor controlling how levers work? A. How much gravity is acting upon them B. The difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum C. The structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever D. The weight of the load E. The direction the load is being moved Point: 0.40000000000000002 55)Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process? a. internal intercostal b. external intercostal c. latissimus dorsi d. diaphragm Point: 0.40000000000000002 56)What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? A)the number of neurons innervating it B)the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction C)the shape D)the length Point: 0.40000000000000002 57)What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? A) an agonist B) an antagonist C) a synergist D) a fixator Point: 0.40000000000000002 58)Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? A)mechanically-gated channel B)leakage channel C)voltage-gated channel D)ligand-gated channel Point: 0.40000000000000002 59)Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? a)amplify or enhance the effect of ACh b)inability to release acetylcholine c)inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft d)stimulation of the production of acetylcholine Point: 0.40000000000000002 60)Which of the following is NOT a function of the autonomic nervous system? a. innervation of cardiac muscle. b. innervation of skeletal muscle. c. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract. d. innervation of glands. Point: 0.40000000000000002 61)Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. a) nuclei b) ganglia c) nerves d) tracts Point: 0.40000000000000002 62)The term central nervous system refers to the ________. a) spinal cord and spinal nerves b) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves c) autonomic nervous system d) brain and spinal cord Point: 0.40000000000000002 63)A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________. A)afferent neuron B)efferent neuron C)glial cell D)interneuron Point: 0.40000000000000002 64)Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. a) large nerve fibers b) erratic transmission of nerve impulses c) diphasic impulses d) the myelin sheath Point: 0.40000000000000002 65)The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________. a. Thalamus. b. Pyramids. c. Limbic system. d. Reticular formation. Point: 0.444 66)Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid? A. glucose B. protein C. red blood cells D. potassium Point: 0.4444 67)REM sleep is associated with ________. a. decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure. b. decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex. c. temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm. d. decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex. Point: 0.4444 68)Which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF? A) reduction of brain weight B) protection from blows C) nourishment of the brain D) initiation of nerve impulses Point: 0.4444 69)Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) sleep disturbances B) loss of body temperature control C) dehydration D) loss of fine motor control Point: 0.40000000000000002 70)Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________. a.Red nuclei.B. Vestibular nuclei. C. Reticular nuclei. D. Superior Colliculi. Point: 0.4444 71)Which of the following structures is probably NOT directly involved in memory? A)prefrontal cortex B)hippocampus C)thalamus D)medulla oblongata Point: 0.4444 72)Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. A) always mediated by the brain B) rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses C) autonomic only D) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior Point: 0.40000000000000002 73)Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. a.) radial nerve b.) sciatic nerve c.) ulnar nerve d.) median nerve Point: 0.40000000000000002 74)A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. A) tendon reflex B) flexor reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) plantar reflex Point: 0.40000000000000002 75)Which receptors respond to stimuli within the body? A)proprioceptors. B) interoceptors C)exteroceptors D) photoreceptors Point: 0.40000000000000002 76)Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. A) Afferent nerves B) Efferent nerves C) Motor nerves D) Mixed nerves Point: 0.40000000000000002 77)After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. A) Wallerian cells B) Schwann cells C) Dendrites D) Golgi organs Point: 0.40000000000000002 78)Regeneration within the CNS ________. A)is more successful than with the PNS B)typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm C)is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars D)is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes Point: 0.40000000000000002 79)In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________. A)extend B) also flex c) abduct D)adduct Point: 0.40000000000000002 80)Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation? a. increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera b. elimination of urine c. dilation of the pupils d. salivation Point: 0.40000000000000002 81)Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS: parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served. C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers. Point: 0.40000000000000002 82)Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. a. Inactivation of ACh is fairly slow. b. NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response. c. Preganglionic fibers are short. d. Preganglionic fibers are long. Point: 0.40000000000000002 83)Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? A. second cervical B. third lumbar C. first coccyx D. first thoracic Point: 0.40000000000000002 84)Autonomic ganglia contain ________. a. the cell bodies and dendrites of motor neurons b. an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons c. both somatic afferent and efferent neurons d. synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors Point: 0.40000000000000002 85)The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerve stimulate many large glands in the head such as the nasal and lacrimal glands. a) trochlear (IV) b)facial (VII) c) oculomotor (III) d)optic (II) Point: 0.40000000000000002 86)Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic trunks without synapsing form structures called ________. A) white rami communicates B) gray rami communicates C) spinal nerves D) splanchnic nerves Point: 0.40000000000000002 87)Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus (X) nerve? A)pulmonary B)cardiac C)esophageal D)inferior hypogastric Point: 0.40000000000000002 88)Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? A)any sagittal plane except in the midline B)any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions C)two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves D)a transverse cut just above the knees Point: 0.4444 89)Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region? A) appendix B) stomach C) Liver D) intestines Point: 0.4444 90)The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane A) covering individual lungs B) lining the thoracic cavity C) covering the heart D) lining the abdominal cavity Point: 0.40000000000000002 91)Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) synthesis B) exchange C) decomposition D) reversible Point: 0.444 92)Which of the following is NOT considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate? A)concentration of reactants B)time C)temperature D)particle size Point: 0.4444 93)Which of the following structures would aid a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the cell? A) microvilli B) stereocilia C) primary cilia D) flagella Point: 0.444 94)Which of the following statements is correct regarding net diffusion? A)The lower the temperature, the faster the rate.B)The rate is independent of temperature. C)Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate. D)The greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate Point: 0.444 95)In a tissue type that undergoes a relatively great deal of mechanical stress, like the tissue that lines the intestine, you would expect to see an abundance of ________ between the individual cells of the tissue. A)gap junctions b)desmosomes c)connexons d)tight junctions Point: 0.40000000000000002 96)Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? (a) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. (b) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back. (c) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength. (d) Reticular fibers form thick, rope-like structures. Point: 0.40000000000000002 97)Select the correct statement regarding the stem cells of connective tissue. (a) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells. (b) Connective tissue cells are non-dividing. (c) Connective tissue does not contain cells. (d) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper. Point: 0.4444 98)Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection. B) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot. C) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable. D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers. Point: 0.40000000000000002 99)Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. (a) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers. (b) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells. (c) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important. (d) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another. Point: 0.444 100)Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. (a) It is composed mostly of the extracellular matrix. (b) Its primary function is nutrient storage. (c) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic. (d) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus Point: 0.4444 101)The friction ridges seen in finger, palm and foot prints are different among various people but very similar between identical twins. This evidence suggests which of the following? A)That friction ridges aid in griping. B)That friction ridges allow for better tactile sensation. C)That friction ridges are genetically determined. D)That friction ridges change over time. Point: 0.44444 102)Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? A)The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help toactivate the immune system. B)Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, issynthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight. C)Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a naturalsunscreen. D)The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color Point: 0.40000000000000002 103)Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following would indicate a liver disease such as hepatitis resulting in elevated bilirubin? a. The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. b. Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause. c. The skin and sclera of the eyes appear to have an abnormal, yellowish tint. d. It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin. Point: 0.40000000000000002 104)A dendritic or Langerhans cell is a specialized ________. a. squamous epithelial cell. b. phagocytic cell. c. nerve cell. d. melanocyte. Point: 0.4444 105)What are the most important factors influencing hair growth? a)sex and hormones b)nutrition and hormones c)age and glandular products d)the size and number of hair follicles Point: 0.4444444444444 106)Which of the following is a bone disorder characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption? A)rickets B)Paget's disease C)osteoporosis D)osteomalacia Point: 0.4444 107)Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it. A)meatus B)trochanter C)fossa D)foramen Point: 0.4444 108)The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses? A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) trabecular bone Point: 0.40000000000000002 109)Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. a. Fat b. Blood-forming cells c. Elastic tissue d. Perforating fibers Point: 0.40000000000000002 110)The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) chondrocyte Point: 0.40000000000000002 111)The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? Where do they start and stop? A. The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions. B. Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull. C. Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings. D. Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures. Point: 0.4444 112)Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses? A) The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through. B) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones. C) Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment. D) Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function Point: 0.40000000000000002 113)Which of the bones of the skull would you also refer to as a cheekbone? A) the occipital bone B) the zygomatic bone C) the temporal bone D) the parietal bone Point: 0.4444 114)Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs? A)the nasal cavity B)the cranial bones C)hyoid bone D)the temporal bones Point: 0.4444 115)Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming, humidifying, and filtering the air we inhale? a. hyoid bone b. the nasal cavity c. the cranial bones d. the bones comprising the orbits Point: 0.40000000000000002 116)Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones? A) protection of the brain B) allowing introduction of food into the digestive system C) house the special sense organs D) provide passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body Point: 0.40000000000000002 117)The sphenoid bone is sometimes referred to as a "key stone" of the skull. This is due to the fact that A)the sphenoid bone is solid like a stone and provides the strength necessary to support the skull B)the sphenoid is wedged in the superior most portion of the skull and supports all of the other bones below (excluding the mandible) C)the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible) D)the intricate shape of the sphenoid makes it critical to the distinct characteristics of the individual human face Point: 0.40000000000000002 118)The sella turcica is part of the ________ bone and houses the ________ gland. A) ethmoid; thymus B) sphenoid; thymus C) ethmoid; pituitary D) sphenoid; pituitary Point: 0.40000000000000002 119)From the list below, select the least likely explanation for the relatively high mobility of the arms. A) The clavicle articulates to the axial skeleton at only the sternal end. B) The scapula does not articulate to the axial skeleton directly. C) The subscapular notch is a passageway for nerves. D) The relatively open glenoid cavity of the glenohumeral joint. Point: 0.40000000000000002 120)The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows for ________..a. the rotational motion of the forearm b. the curling of the fingers c. the hinge like motion of the forearm d. the hyper extension of the forearm Point: 0.40000000000000002 121)The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function. The cup-like surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum. This forms a joint that allows for ________. A) the hyper extension of the forearm B) the curling of the fingers C) the rotational motion of the forearm D) the hinge like motion of the forearm Point: 0.4444444444444444 122)Baseball pitchers often require "Tommy John" surgery to repair damage to their elbow. Which ligament would this surgery target? A)anular ligament B)acetabular labrum C)ulnar collateral ligament D)lateral ligament Point: 0.40000000000000002 123)An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________. A)the radius and ulna along its length B)between the humerus and the glenoid cavity C)between the vertebrae D)the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends Point: 0.40000000000000002 124)Which of the following statements best describes angular movements? A)They occur only between bones with flat articular processes B)They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones. C)They turn a bone along its own long axis. D)They allow movement only in one plane Point: 0.444444 125)In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________. A) changes in length and moves the "load" B) does not change in length but increases tension C) never converts pyruvate to lactate D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP Point: 0.40000000000000002 126)Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? a. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments b. neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from Sp, ATP-driven power stroke c. neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke d. muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments Point: 0.40000000000000002 127)The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________. (a) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism (b) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium (c) the site of calcium regulation differs (d) ATP energizes the sliding process. Point: 0.40000000000000002 128)Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle? A. They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other. B. They exhibit spontaneous action potentials. C. They depend upon recruitment using the autonomic nervous system. D. They are used for vision and hair raising. Point: 0.4444 129)Which of the following is true about smooth muscle? A. Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle. B. Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements. C. Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. D. Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination. Point: 0.4444 130)Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A. there are more thick filaments than thin filaments B. there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell C. there are no sarcomeres D. it appears to lack troponin Point: 0.4444 131)Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? A)gluteal muscles B)brachioradialis C)hamstring muscles D)soleus Point: 0.4444 132)Which of the following muscles does NOT act in plantar flexion? A)popliteus B)flexor digitorum longus C)tibialis posterior D)gastrocnemius and soleus Point: 0.40000000000000002 133)________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint. A) Brachialis B) Triceps brachil c)Biceps brachii d)Brachioradialis Point: 0.444 134)The ________ is known as the "boxer's muscle." a. biceps brachii b. serratus anterior c. rectus abdominis d. flexor digitorum longus Point: 0.4444444444444 135)The ________ runs deep to the internal oblique. a. rectus abdominis b. external oblique c. latissimus dorsi d. transversus abdominis. Point: 0.444 136)The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing. A)mentalis B)orbicularis oris C)buccinator D)risorius Point: 0.4444 137)The ________ tightens the neck and draws the corners of the mouth downward as in expressing horror. A)sternohyoid B)mentalis C)sternocleidomastoid D)platysma Point: 0.444444 138)What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus? A) Origin of the stimulus. B) Type of stimulus receptor. C) Frequency of action potentials. D) Size (amplitude) of action potentials. Point: 0.40000000000000002 139)Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. A)found in the retina of the eye B)called neuroglial cells C)found in ganglia D)motor neurons Point: 0.40000000000000002 140)Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? a. norepinephrine. b. cholinesterase. c. gamma aminobutyric. d. acetylcholine. Point: 0.444 141)Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function? A)senses changes in the environment B)responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction C)analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions Point: 0.40000000000000002 142)The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________. A) depolarization B) repolarization C) absolute refractory period D) resting period Point: 0.40000000000000002 143) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neurons? A)They are mitotic. B)They conduct impulses. C)They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate. D)They have extreme longevity Point: 0.40000000000000002 144)The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the ________. A)parietal lobe B)prefrontal lobe C)frontal lobe D)temporal lobe Point: 0.4444 145)Spinocerebellar tracts ________. A)give rise to conscious experience of perception B)carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum C)are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord D)terminate in the spinal cord Point: 0.40000000000000002 146)What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain? a. epithelial cells. b. astrocytes c. neurons. d. ependymal cells. 147)The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? a. Arachnoid and epidural. b. Arachnoid and pia. c. Arachnoid and dura. d. Dura and epidural. Point: 0.40000000000000002 148)Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. A)pons B)midbrain C)medulla oblongata D)cerebrum Point: 0.40000000000000002 149)Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in ________. A)sympathetic ganglia B)the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord C)the thalamus D)the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord Point: 0.444 150)What groove separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe? A)lateral fissure B)parieto-occipital sulcus C)longitudinal fissure D)central sulcus Point: 0.40000000000000002 151)The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves? A)posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial B)pudendal and common fibular C)pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous D)common fibular and tibial Point: 0.40000000000000002 152)Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome? A)median B)ulnar C)axillary D)radial Point: 0.40000000000000002 153)Bell's palsy is ________. A)characterized by paralysis of facial muscles B)often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve C)characterized by loss of vision D)characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles Point: 0.40000000000000002 154)Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? a. effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor b. receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector c. effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor d. receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector Point: 0.4444 155)Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all EXCEPT which of the following? A)facial B)olfactory C)trigeminal D)oculomotor Point: 0.40000000000000002 156)Transduction refers to conversion of ________. A. Stimulus energy into energy of a graded potential B. Presynaptic nerve impulses into postsynaptic nerve impulses C. Receptor energy into stimulus energy D. Electrical energy into mechanical energy Point: 0.40000000000000002 157)The coxal joint is most likely found in the ________ region of the body a. hip. b. foot. c. hand. d. groin. Point: 0.4444 158)The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A) palms turned posteriorly B) thumbs pointed laterally C) arms at sides D) body erect Point: 0.40000000000000002 159)With a family history of cardiovascular disease, which toast spread would be considered the most "heart healthy"? A) olive oil B) lard (pig fat) C) margarine containing trans fats D) butter containing butterfat Point: 0.40000000000000002 160)If a human cell were to increase the amount of cholesterol embedded within its plasma membrane, which of the following would most likely happen? A)The plasma membrane would become more stable, less fluid, and less permeable. B)The plasma membrane would become more permeable to ions and less permeable to lipids. C)The plasma membrane would become more fluid and the phospholipids less stable. D)The cell would form a plaque that could potentially block a blood vessel Point: 0.4444 161)Cancerous cells can divide so rapidly that they will often produce a glycocalyx that is different than the other cells in the body. This may result in ________. a) allowing the cancer cells to bond to their healthy, neighboring cells b) cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them c) the cancer cells conserving energy for more growth d) a decrease in the permeability of the tumor cell's plasma membrane preventing the uptake of chemotherapy drugs Point: 0.40000000000000002 162)The myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) undergoes a significant amount of physical stress due to its contractions. You would expect to see relatively large numbers of which of the following embedded within their plasma membrane? A) tight junctions B) desmosomes C) glycolipids D) transport proteins Point: 0.444 163)Which of the following will NOT speed up the net rate of diffusion for glucose into a cell? A)Decreasing the concentration of glucose within the cell B)Decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane. C)Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell D. Increasing the number of glucose transport proteins within the plasma membrane. Point: 0.4444444444 164)The lungs deliver a regular supply of oxygen to the blood, which is in turn circulated to most all the cells of the body. At the same time oxygen is consumed during aerobic cellular respiration within these cells. This implies that ________. A)the concentration gradient for oxygen is steepness inside of the cell B)oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells C)the rate of oxygen diffusion is independent of concentration D)oxygen requires active transport to enter most cells Point: 0.4444 165)Your instructor gives you an unknown organ for you to examine and identify through microscopy. What should you do first with the sample? A) examine it for artifacts B) stain it to enhance contrast C) fix it with preservative D) cut it into sections Point: 0.4444 166)Choose which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus. A)smooth muscle B)simple cuboidal epithelium C)ciliated simple columnar epithelium D)stratified squamous epithelium Point: 0.40000000000000002 167)Skin, lung, and blood vessel walls have which tissue characteristic in common? a. simple squamous epithelium b. simple columnar epithelium c. reticular fibers d. elastic fibers Point: 0.4444 168)Which of the following cells and their function are correctly matched? A) keratinocytes -- provide sense of touch and pressure B) tactile cells -- produce the protein keratin C) dendritic cells -- produce fibers that strengthen the epidermis D) melanocytes -- protect cells from the effects of UV radiation Point: 0.4444 169)Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________. a. provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis b. accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer c. maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules d. maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature Point: 0.40000000000000002 170)The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? a)Stratum granulosum b) Stratum lucidum c)Stratum basale. d)Stratum corneum Point: 0.40000000000000002 171)Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? A. fat associated with skin prevents water loss B. glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces C. the dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through D. the size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments Point: 0.444 172)The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? A) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells B) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes C) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells Point: 0.044444 173)Cranial bones develop ________. a. from cartilage models b. within fibrous membranes c. from a tendon d. within osseous membranes Point: 0.4444 174)In humans, the effect of the hormone calcitonin is to ________. a. increase blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts b. temporarily decrease blood calcium levels when administered in large doses c. decrease mitosis of chondrocytes at the epiphyseal plate d. increase blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoblasts Point: 0.444 175)At what age do bones reach their peak density? a. At birth b. Early childhood c. Early adulthood d. Late adulthood Point: 0.40000000000000002 176)Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth? a. Growth at the epiphyseal plate. b. The secretion of a new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage. c. Along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger. d. The lengthening of hyaline cartilage. Point: 0.4444 177)Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage? a. Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. b. Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage. c. Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. d. Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix allowing the cartilage to grow from within. Point: 0.4444 178)A situation where the bones are connected exclusively by ligaments, cords, or bands of fibrous tissue is a A. suture B. gomphosis C. synchondrosis D. syndesmosis Point: 0.4444 179)The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. A. tend to run parallel to one another B. also are called collateral ligaments C. prevent hyperextension of the knee D. assist in defining the range of motion of the leg Point: 0.40000000000000002 180)Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. A)produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis) B)form the synovial membrane C)provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints D)attach tendons Point: 0.44444 181)What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? A)mitochondria B)intermediate filament network C)myofibrillar network D)sarcoplasmic reticulum Point: 0.4444 182)What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent? A)the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion B)amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work C)the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity andthe amount actually used D)the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used Point: 0.40000000000000002 183)Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors. A) refractory B) latent C) contraction D) relaxation Point: 0.0 184)Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________. A)inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments B)forming a chemical compound with actin C)storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP D)forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin Point: 0.444 185)What is the primary function of wave summation? A) Prevent muscle relaxation. B) Prevent muscle fatigue. C) Increase muscle tension. D)Produce continuous muscle contraction. Point: 0.4444 186)During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? A)myosin filaments B)Z discs C)actin filaments D)thick filaments Point: 0.4444 187)Which of the following surrounds an individual muscle cell? A)perimysium B)endomysium C)fascicle D)epimysium Point: 0.444 188)When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? a. The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively. b The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively. c. The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively d. The muscle has two three, or four origins, respectively Point: 0.44 189)The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________. A)gastrocnemius B)gluteus maximus C)rectus abdominis D)quadriceps femoris Point: 0.444 190)Which of the following describes a bipennate pattern of fascicles? A)An arrangement in which the fascicles insert into only one side of a tendon. B)An arrangement that looks like many feathers side by side. C)An arrangement of five fascicles on each side of the tendon. D)An arrangement in which the fascicles insert into the tendon from opposite sides Point: 0.40000000000000002 191)Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles? A)They are often called strap muscles. B)They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed. C)They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity. D)They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing Point: 0.40000000000000002 192)The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? A)to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi B)to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major C)to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally D) to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus Point: 0.4444 193)Which of the following is NOT a chemical class of neurotransmitters? A)ATP and other purines B)amino acid C)nucleic acid D)biogenic amine Point: 0.40000000000000002 194)Which of the following is false or incorrect? A)An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than theexcitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane. B)An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than theinhibitory effect but less than threshold. C)A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. Point: 0.444 195)Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses. A) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses. B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled. C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells. D) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell. Point: 0.4000000000000000 196)Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential? A)It has a depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization phase. B)It travels long distances. C)It can have amplitudes of various sizes. D)It is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane. Point: 0.4444 197)Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________. A) pyramidal and corticospinal B) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal C) segmental and nigrostriatal D) supplementary and cerebrellar-pontine Point: 0.40000000000000002 198)An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________. A)visual association area B)calcarine cortex C)lateral geniculate body D)primary visual cortex Point: 0.40000000000000002 199)Broca's area ________. A)is considered a motor speech area B)is usually found only in the right hemisphere C)controls voluntary movements of the eyes D)serves the recognition of complex objects Point: 0.40000000000000002 200)Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality? a. Prefrontal cortex (anterior association area). b. Posterior association area. c. Limbic association area. d. Combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex. Point: 0.40000000000000002 201)The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. a) nutrients such as glucose b) anesthetics c) alcohol d) metabolic waste such as urea Point: 0.40000000000000002 202)All of the following are structures of the limbic system EXCEPT the ________. a. hippocampus. b. cingulate gyrus. c. amygdaloid body. d. caudate nucleus Point: 0.40000000000000002 203)If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? 1)chemoreceptors 2) thermoreceptors 3) nociceptors 4) mechanoreceptors Point: 0.444444444444 204)Receptors that respond to changes in room temperature are found in the skin. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above? a) thermoreceptors that are also interceptors b) mechanoreceptors that are also interceptors c) mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors d) thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors Point: 0.444 205)We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. The following receptors are most likely responsible for this ability. A)interoceptors B)proprioceptors C)nociceptors D)exteroceptors Point: 0.4444444444444 206)Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch, and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation? A)nociceptors B)thermoreceptors C)mechanoreceptors D)proprioceptors Point: 0.40000000000000002 207)A person has gone for an appointment to receive a deep-tissue therapeutic massage. Which of the following receptors would be stimulated by the massage? A)lamellae corpuscle B)bulbous corpuscle C)tendon organ D)free nerve ending Point: 0.444 208)Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus's strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? a. More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus. b. Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases. c. Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus strength increases. d. An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus strength increases. Point: 0.444 209)A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? a. Hypoglossal nerve (XII). b. Vagus nerve (X). c. Facial nerve (VIII). d. Olfactory nerve (I). Point: 0.40000000000000002 210)A patient has lost the ability to taste food. Which nerve may have been damaged? a)the optic nerves b)the abducens nerves c) the facial nerves d) trigeminal nerves Point: 0.40000000000000002 211)Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve ________. a) v (trigeminal) b)vii (facial) c) x (vagus) d)xii (hypoglossal) Point: 0.4444 212)The "fight or flight" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. a) parasympathetic division b) peripheral nervous system c) somatic division d) sympathetic division Point: 0.40000000000000002 213)Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the _______ A) medulla B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamu Point: 0.40000000000000002 214)Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) most glands Point: 0.4444 215)The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following? A) lungs B) intestines C) brain D) liver Point: 0.4444 216)Select the most correct statement. A)Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life. B)The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system. C)Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both. D)The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system. Point: 0.40000000000000002 217)One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to a)indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system b)sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them c)the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger d)the necessity for all organisms to reproduce Point: 0.4444 218)Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of A) cholesterol B) glycogen C) glucose D) triglycerides Point: 0.4444444444 219)Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes? A)Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor. B)Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation. C)Some enzymes are purely protein. D)Each enzyme is chemically specific Point: 0.40000000000000002 220)Mitochondria ________. A) are always the same shape B) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP C) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function D) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell Point: 0.40000000000000002 221)Peroxisomes ________. A)are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action B)sometimes function as secretory vesicles C)are functionally the same as lysosomes D)function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis Point: 0.4444 222)Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes? A. help in the formation of cell membranes B. breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood C. degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles D. digesting particles taken in by endocytosis Point: 0.4444 223)In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes line up along the midline or equator of the cell? a) telophase b) anaphase c) metaphase d) prophase Point: 0.44 224)Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure? a)Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains b)The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell. c) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell. d)Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules. Point: 0.40000000000000002 225)Which layer of tissue is damaged in a first-degree burn? a. epidermis b. dermis c. hypodermis d. both the epidermis and dermis Point: 0.4444 226)Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________. A)the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle B)hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predeterminedlength C)they grow much slower D)eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months Point: 0.444444 227)Cells of the stratum spinosum have many interlocking desmosomes that will remain between the cells as they migrate to the stratum corneum. These cell junctions serve the body by ________. A)stopping water loss and preventing dehydration B)allowing secretions like sweat or sebum to pass through C)preventing ultraviolet light from penetrating the deeper layers of the epidermis D)preventing mechanical stress or trauma from damaging the epidermis Point: 0.40000000000000002 228)Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? A) Production of vitamin D initiated by the suns UV light striking the skin. B) Formation of cerumen wax to deter insects from entering the ear. C) Thickening of epidermis to form a callus in places where the skin is exposed to friction. D) Changes in the response of the hair follicle to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). Point: 0.44444 229)Which of the following examples listed below illustrates homeostasis maintained by a negative feedback? A)Removal of nitrogenous compounds like urea within the sweat. B)The secretion of antibacterial compounds in sebum. C)Release of chemical signals by keratinocytes that have been damaged by UV light that willincrease the production of melanin. D)The near waterproof secretions of glycolipids that is released by cells in the stratumgranulosum Point: 0.40000000000000002 230)Ossification (Osteogenesis) is the process of ________. A. bone formation B. making a cartilage model of the fetal bone C. making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage D. bone destruction to liberate calcium Point: 0.444444 231)Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. A) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity C) differentiation of osteoclasts D) calcification of the matrix Point: 0.40000000000000002 232)Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is of greatest importance for bone growth during infancy and childhood? a. Thyroid hormones b. Parathyroid hormone c. Growth hormone d. Calcitonin Point: 0.44444444 233)In some cases, the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause? a. Overproduction of thyroid hormone. b. Elevated levels of sex hormones c. Too much vitamin D in the diet. d. Osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity Point: 0.40000000000000002 234)Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. A) transverse foramina B) costal facets C) no intervertebral discs D) no transverse processes Point: 0.44444 235)What is the major function of the axial skeleton? A)provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement B)provide central support for the body and protect internal organs C)provide a space for the major digestive organs D)give the body resilience Point: 0.40000000000000002 236)Which bone forms the anterior cranium? Answer: maxilla Point: 0.40000000000000002 237)Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy? a)scoliosis b) lordosis c)hunchback d)kyphosis e)none of the above Point: 0.40000000000000002 238)How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae? A)The orientation of the articular processes is different from all the other thoracic vertebrae. B)The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum. C)The transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs. D)There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12 Point: 0.44444 239)The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone? A)maxilla B)sphenoid C)vomer D)ethmoid Point: 0.40000000000000002 240)Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum? A)crista galli B)cribriform plate C)perpendicular plate D)orbital plate Point: 0.40000000000000002 241)Which of the following is NOT a movement that can occur between vertebrae? A)supination B)rotation C)lateral flexion D)flexion and extension Point: 0.44444 242)Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. A)diarthroses B)synovial joints C)amphiarthroses D)synarthroses Point: 0.4444 243)Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? A)Synchondrosis B)Symphysis C)Diarthrosis D)Both A and B Point: 0.40000000000000002 244)Bowing to your opponent before a jiu jitsu match would be considered a ________ movement. A) hyperextension B) circumduction C) extension D) flexion Point: 0.40000000000000002 245)A potential benefit of recruiting slow oxidative fibers for contraction before recruiting fast oxidative and fast glycolytic fibers might be ________. A- his will help to allow for fine control with delicate contractile force with a small stimulus B- because they are slower to respond, slow oxidative fibers must be stimulated first in order to contract simultaneously with the faster fibers C- there is little to no benefit from recruiting slow oxidative fibers first and therefore it is in fact fast glycolytic fibers that will be recruited first D- recruiting slow oxidative fibers early helps to tire them out first so that they won't interfere with the more powerful contractions of fast glycolytic fibers Point: 0.40000000000000002 246)Addition of more mitochondria to a muscle fiber will have the greatest effect on ________. A- fast oxidative fibers B- both slow and fast oxidative fibers C- fast glycolytic fibers D- slow oxidative fibers Point: 0.40000000000000002 247)If given the exact same amount of ATP, which of the three fiber types would be able to contract for the longest amount of time? A. Fast oxidative fbers B. They wouid si contract for the same amount of time C. Both fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fbers D. Fast glycolytc fiters E. Siow oxidative fibers Point: 044444 248)The 100-meter dash is a quick and short run requiring explosive speed. On completion of the dash, the runners will continue to breathe hard for several seconds to minutes even though they are no longer running. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this is so? A) Slow oxidative fibers are recruited last and have only started to work at completion of the run. B) Since the exercise was mostly aerobic exercise, the runners' bodies have not yet realized the run is over. C) The runners' use of stored oxygen, glucose and creatine phosphate is being replenished and this requires a prolonged increase of oxygen intake. D) The runners' fast oxidative muscles are so slow to utilize oxygen it only begins aerobic respiration by the time the run has finished Point: 0.4444 249)What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? 1)Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads. 2)Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules. 3)Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. 4)Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter. Point: 0.40000000000000002 250)Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? a) skeletal. b) no muscle can regenerate. c) smooth. d) cardiac. Point: 0.444 251)Most skeletal muscles contain ________. A) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers B) a mixture of fiber types C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers D) muscle fibers of the same type Point: 0.40000000000000002 252)Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs? A- thigh adductors B- quadriceps C- lateral rotators D- hamstrings Point: 0.44 253)What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? A) speed levers B) power levers C) functional levers D) dysfunctional levers Point: 0.444 254)Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? 1)the flexor digitorum profundus 2)the anconeus 3) the triceps brachit 4) the brachioradialis Point: 0.44444 255)Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? A) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus B) diaphragm alone C) external intercostals and diaphragm D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm Point: 0.40000000000000002 256)Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? A)soleus B)biceps femoris C)iliopsoas and rectus femoris D)vastus medialis Point: 0.40000000000000002 257)First-class levers ________ A) Have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle B) Are typified by tweezers or forceps C) In the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location D) Are the type found in the joints forming the ball of the foot as used in raising the body on the toes Point: 0.44444 258)What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common? A- All act on the tongue. B- All names reflect direction of muscle fibers. C- All names indicate the relative size of the muscle. D- Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw. Point: 0.4444 260)The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so? A)Acetylcholine has many different forms B. Acetylcholine has a "dose effect; that is, larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit c. Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors D)Post-synaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times Point: 0.4444 261)Which of the following is NOT a function of dendrites? A) convey incoming messages toward the cell body B)generate nerve impulses and transmit them away from the cell body C) provide enormous surface area for receiving signals from other neurons. D)produce short-distance signals called graded potentials Point: 0.4000000000000000 262)Which of the choices below describes the ANS? a) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands b) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles c) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract d) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS. Point: 0.44444 263)These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid. A) astrocytes B). Schwann cells C)oligodendrocytes D)ependymal cells Point: 0.444444 264)Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. a. called neuroglial cells. b. motor neurons. c. found in ganglia. d. found in the retina of the eye. Point: 0.44444 265)Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? a. norepinephrine. b. cholinesterase. c. gamma aminobutyric. d. acetylcholine. Point: 0.44444 266)Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function? A) senses changes in the environment B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction Point: 0.40000000000000004 267)Which of the following best describes the cerebrum? A) visceral command center B) motor command center C) executive suite D) decussation center Point: 0.44444 268)The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve? A) radial B) median C) ulnar D) musculocutaneous Point: 0.40000000000000002 269)Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve? a) vestibulocochlear b) accessory c) trigeminal d) abducens Point: 0.40000000000000002 270)A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve? A) accessory B) vagUs C) glossopharyngeal D) olfactory Point: 0.40000000000000002 271)Select the statement that is most correct. A. Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons B. The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord. C. Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers. D. The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure. Point: 0.4444 272)A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________. A) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy. B) sciatica. C) paresthesia. D) neurofibromatosis Point: 0.4444 273)Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. hair follicle receptors b. tactile discs c. Lamellar corpuscles d. Meissner's corpuscles Point: 0.44444 274)A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged? a. Glossopharyngeal. b. Hypoglossal. c. Facial. d. Accessory. Point: 0.40000000000000002 275)If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? 1) complete loss of sensation 2) a complete loss of sensation and movement 3) a complete loss of voluntary movement 4) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control Point: 0.444444 276)One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of physiological study, the rest are from an anatomical perspective. Select the description below that comes from physiological perspective a. The contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasoconstriction) can reduce the flow of blood through the vessel. b. The chambers of the heart and blood vessels leading to and from the heart are separated by valves composed of fibrous connective tissue. c. The pancreas lies deep to the stomach within the abdominal cavity. d. The skull is formed by 22 facial and cranial bones Point: 0.40000000000000002 277)Which of the following is the best explanation for why cells are considered the smallest units of living things a. Cells have the ability to reproduce identical copies of themselves in a process called mitosis. b. Cells cannot be seen with the naked eye and are considered microscopic. c. Cells are the simplest structure to fit all of the characteristics necessary to be considered alive. d. Cells are highly ordered and complex Point: 0.44444 278)Prevention of water loss is a necessary function for life that would best fit in the category of A. maintaining boundaries B. metabolism C. responsiveness D. excretion Point: 0.4444 279)Which of the following is a general function for a fibrous protein? A)catalysis B)protein management C)structural framework D)transport E)body defense Point: 0.4444 280)A chemical reaction in which bonds are created is usually associated with a. a synthesis b. forming a larger molecule c. the release of energy d. the consumption of energy Point: 0.44444 281)Which organelle is responsible for processing and packaging proteins destined for export from the cell? A.) Golgi apparatus B.) microtubules C.) mitochondria D.) ribosomes Point: 0.40000000000000002 282)The functions of centrioles include ________. A. producing ATP B. serving as the site for protein synthesis C. serving as the site for RNA synthesis D. organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division Point: 0.40000000000000002 283)A gene can best be defined as ________. A)a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid B)an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide C)a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain D)noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long Point: 0.40000000000000002 284)Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ________. A) blood plasma B) an isotonic solution C) a hypertonic solution D) a hypotonic solution Point: 0.40000000000000002 285)Some hormones enter cells via ________. A) pinocytosis B) primary active transport C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis Point: 0.4444 286)Blood vessels keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ is intact and healthy. A) endothelium B) mesothelium C) transitional epithelium D) simple cuboidal epithelium Point: 0.4444 287)Which is true concerning muscle tissue? _ A. contains contractile units made of collagen. B. highly cellular and well vascularized. C. in a single-celled tissue. D. cuboidal shape enhances function Point: 0.40000000000000002 288)The first step in tissue repair involves ________. A)inflammation A)are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae B)remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes C)within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix D)never lose their ability to divide Point: 0.40000000000000002 289)What are the three main components of connective tissue? A)ground substance, fibers, and cells B)fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts C)collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers D)alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells Point: 0.40000000000000002 290)A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? 1) granulosum 2) spinosum 3) basale 4) lucidum Point: 0.40000000000000002 291)Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch? 1)free nerve ending 2)Pacinian corpuscle 3)Ruffini body 4)tactile cells Point: 0.40000000000000002 292)Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does? A) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair. B) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts. C) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin. D) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair. Point: 0.40000000000000002 293)The function of the root hair plexus is to ________. a.cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle b.serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed c.bind the hair root to the dermis d.allow the hair to assist in touch sensation Point: 0.4444 294)Which of the following glands secrete sebum, an oily like substance? a. Merocrine glands b. Apocrine glands c. Sebaceous glands d. Eccrine glands Point: 0.40000000000000002 295)Which of the following bones are NOT a part of the appendicular skeleton? a. Shoulder b. Hip c. Skull d. Upper limb Point: 0.4000000000000000 296)Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid? A) It contains enzymes only. B) It contains lactic acid. C) It contains hyaluronic acid. D) It contains hydrochloric acid. Point: 0.444444 297)Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility B) interphalangeal joints C) joints that permit angular movements D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones Point: 0.40000000000000002 298)What are menisci (articular discs)? a) small sacs containing synovial fluid b)cavities lined with cartilage c)wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity d)tendon sheaths Point: 0.40000000000000002 299)If a muscle fiber were to suddenly and permanently stop producing ATP the fiber would no longer be able to actively transport calcium out of the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) and the intracellular calcium concentration would rise. Which of the following would you expect to happen? A- Myosin would be able to bind to the exposed binding sites on thin filaments but it would not be able to detach. B- Calcium would be transported to the sarcoplasmic reticulum therefore contractions would cease. C- The fiber would twitch uncontrollably due to excessive calcium bound to troponin. D- No change would occur in a muscle that was relaxed to begin with. Point: 0.40000000000000002 300)When a sarcomere contracts and thin filaments move over thick filaments you would expect to see A- the I bands to appear smaller B- the | bands to appear wider C- the A band to appear darker D- the H zone to appear wider Point: 0.40000000000000002 301)Addition of more myoglobin to a muscle fiber would have the largest effect on ________ A- fast oxidative and slow oxidative fibers B- fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers C- fast oxidative fibers only D- fast glycolytic fibers only Point: 0.40000000000000002 302)Exhaustion of glycogen storage within a muscle fiber would have the biggest effect on ______ A- fast oxidative fibers B- slow oxidative fibers C- fast glycolytic fibers D- both slow and fast oxidative fibers Point: 0.40000000000000002 303)Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________. A- slow oxidative fibers B- fast glycolytic C- fast oxidative fibers D- both slow and fast oxidative Point: 0.44444 304)The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________. A) olfactory cortex B) gusatory cortex C) vestibular cortex D) visceral sensory area Point: 0.40000000000000002 305)Which statement about coma is true? a)Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma. b)Coma is a form of deep sleep. C)Coma is neurologically identical to syncope. d) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state. Point: 0.40000000000000002 306)A patient suffering from memory loss, shortened attention span, disorientation, and eventual language loss is most likely suffering from ________. A) Alzheimer's disease B) cerebellar disease C) Parkinson's disease D) Huntington's disease Point: 0.40000000000000002 307)Emotional memory ________. 1)involves your pounding heart when you hear a rattlesnake 2)involves remembering a skill such as playing a musical instrumentfim 3)involves remembering names, faces, words, and dates 4)involves remembering motor skills such as riding a bike Point: 0.444 308)Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following tests might the doctor try on her patient? A)Have Bill flex and extend his arm against resistance. B)Have Bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away. C)Check for reflex on the medial condyle of the humerus with a rubber mallet. D)Check for hyperextension at the knuckles of the little and ring finger Point: 0.40000000000000002 309)Which of the following nerves does NOT arise from the brachial plexus? A) median B) phrenic C) radial D) ulnar Point: 0.4444 310)The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve..A) femoral B) tibial C) obturator D) common fibular Point: 0.44444 311)Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________ a)divisions, roots, trunks, and cords b)roots, divisions, cords, and trunks c)roots, trunks, divisions, and cords d) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots Point: 0.40000000000000009 312)The cranial nerve that emerges from the pons and serves the motor and proprioceptive functions of the eyeball is the ________. (A) glossopharyngeal (B) vagus (C) abducens (D) hypoglossal Point: 0.444444 313)Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? 1)The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. 2)The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. 3)The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor. 4)A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold Point: 0.44444 314)A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________. A) femoral B) iliohypogastric C) sciatic D) ilioinguinal Point: 0.40000000000000002 315)Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) sacral plexus D) thoracic plexus Point: 0.44444 316)Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. A)visceral arcs involve two motor neurons B)visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons C)somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess D)visceral arcs do not use integration centers Point: 0.40000000000000002 317)The parasympathetic tone ________. a. prevents unnecessary heart deceleration b. accelerates activity of the digestive tract c. determines normal activity of the urinary tract d. causes blood pressure to rise Point: 0.4444444 318)Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all of the following EXCEPT A. synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion B. synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion C. ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion D. pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron Point: 0.4444 319)Which of the following appears to exert the most direct influence over autonomic functions? A. hypothalamus B. midbrain C. reticular formation D. medulla oblongata Point: 0.40000000000000002 320)Drugs called beta-blockers ________. A. increase a dangerously low heart rate B. decrease heart rate and blood pressure C. have widespread sympathetic effects D. are potent antidepressants Point: 0.40000000000000002 321)Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things, make them bigger or more complex. Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex. If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions, which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished? A) growth B) movement C) responsiveness D) digestion Point: 0.40000000000000002 322)Anatomical position is important because A) It allows diagrams within textbooks to display a greater surface area of the body with one simple diagram B) it is the position most comfortable to hospital patients c) it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships D) it provides the greatest circulation to the extremities Point: 0.40000000000000002 323)Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because: A. positive feedback is generally beneficial while negative feedback is typically harmful. B. positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus while negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level. C. positive feedback is critical to health while negative feedback serves only to alert us to potential health threats. D. positive feedback provides moment-to-moment well-being while negative feedback causes a cascade effect. Point: 0.40000000000000002 324)In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils at room temperature have A long fatty acid chains B) a high water content C) unsaturated fatty acids D) saturated fatty acids Point: 0.444444 325)The genetic information is coded in DNA by the A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules B) sequence of the nucleotides C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix D) arrangement of the histones Point: 0.44444 326)If cells are placed in a hypotonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? A)The cells will shrink at first but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and retur to original condition. B)The cells will lose water and shrink. C)the cells will swell and ultimately burst. D)The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent. Point: 0.444444 327)Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to ________. a. specific codes from the DNA b. specific tRNAs c. the presence or absence of ubiquitins d. changes in the environment Point: 0.444444444 328)Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein? A) oxygen transport B) forms a lipid bilayer C) circulating antibody D) molecular transport through the membrane Point: 0.40000000000000002 329)Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA? A) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCAGU. B) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis. C) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid. D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER. Point: 0.40000000000000002 330)Which of the following would NOT be a constituent of a plasma membrane? A) messenger RNA B) glycolipids C) glycoproteins D) phospholipids Point: 0.40000000000000002 331)Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? (a) sebaceous and merocrine (b) mammillary and ceruminous (c) eccrine and apocrine (d) holocrine and mammillary Point: 0.40000000000000002 332)What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? a) hyaline cartilage. b) dense fibrous connective tissue. c) fibrocartilage. d) elastic connective tissue. Point: 0.40000000000000002 333)What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A. Inadequate calcification of bone. B. Decreased osteoclast activity. C. Decreased epiphyseal plate activity. D. Increased osteoclast activity. Point: 0.40000000000000002 334)A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. a. Epiphysis b. Metaphysis c. Diaphysis d. Articular cartilage Point: 0.40000000000000002 335)Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal? A) medial cuneiform B) lateral cuneiform C) cuboid D) calcaneus Point: 0.40000000000000002 336)The pelvic girdle does not include the a)Pults b) ischium c)femur d)ilium Point: 0.40000000000000002 337)Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? A) suture B) synchondrosis C) symphysis D) hinge joint Point: 0.4444 338)Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________. A)the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly B)cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together C)the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella D)fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, which prevent lateral or medial rotation Point: 0.40000000000000002 339)A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________. A) fixator B) antagonist C) synergist D) agonist (prime mover) Point: 0.444444 340)What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? A)an agonist B)an antagonist C)a prime mover D)a synergist Point: 0.40000000000000002 341)Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings? A)semitendinosus B)semimembranosus C)biceps femoris D)gracilis Point: 0.40000000000000002 342)A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that inserts to the muscle which adults also use for whistling (orbicularis oris). What is this muscle called? a)Platysma b) masseter c)zygomaticus d)buccinator Point: 0.40000000000000002 343)The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________. a. platysma b. sternum c. clavicle d. mastoid process of the temporal bone Point: 0.40000000000000002 344)In general, a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces ________. A)adduction B)flexion C)extension D)abduction Point: 0.40000000000000002 345)Which of these is NOT a way of classifying muscles? A) muscle shape B) muscle location C) the type of action they cause D) the type of muscle fibers Point: 0.44444 346)Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. (a) ependymal cells (b) microglia (c) oligodendrocytes (d) astrocytes. Point: 0.44444 347)Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? A) Voltage gated potassium channels. B) Chemically gated chloride channels C) Voltage gated sodium channels D) Voltage gated calcium channels Point: 0.40000000000000002 348)Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)? a. Red nuclei b. Gustatory cortex c. Postcentral gyrus d. Wernicke's area Point: 0.40000000000000002 349)Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate? A. During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked. B. Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and is often severely disabling. C. Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor. D. The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness. Point: 0.40000000000000002 350)White matter is found in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________. A)corticospinal tracts B)outer portion of the spinal cord C)corpus callosum D)cerebral cortex Point: 0.40000000000000002 351)Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the A)spinal cord B)somatosensory cortex C)thalamus D)medulla Point: 0.4444 352)Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________. a. spinal cord. b. premotor cortex. c. primary motor cortex. d. rubrospinal tracts. Point: 0.44444 353)Which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults, but are common for children? A) alpha. B) beta. C) delta. D) theta Point: 0.4444 354)While sleep requirements vary, most adults need ________ hours of sleep for optimal health and function. A)11-12 B)3-4 C)7-8 D)9-10 Point: 0.40000000000000002 355)The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. a. vagus X nerve activity b. somatic nervous system c. parasympathetic innervation d. sympathetic stimulation Point: 0.444444 356)Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS? a. A system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands. b. A system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells. c. Involuntary nervous system. d. General visceral motor system. Point: 0.444444 357)Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. a. cerebrum. b. parasympathetic division. c. somatic nervous system. d. sympathetic division Point: 0.40000000000000002 358)The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) their effectors B) their efferent pathways and ganglia C) target organ responses to their neurotransmitters D) regulation of activity by higher brain centers Point: 0.4444444 359)Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor? A) all postganglionic neurons B) skeletal muscle motor end plates C) adrenal medulla hormone producing cells D) all parasympathetic target organs Point: 0.40000000000000002 360)The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the lacrimal gland and nasal mucosa is the ________. A)submandibular ganglion B) pterygopalatine ganglion C)ciliary ganglion D)otic ganglion Point: 0.40000000000000002 361)Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic division? A)increases heart rate and force of contraction B)contracts smooth muscle of the bladder wall and relaxes urethral, sphincter C)dilates bronchioles D)produces "gooscbumps" Point: 0.40000000000000002 362)In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located? A) left lower quadrant B) right lower quadrant C) left upper quadrant D) right upper quadrant Point: 0.444 363)Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance? A)It is considered the cause of most diseases B)Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally. C)Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed D)The internal environment is becoming more stable Point: 0.40000000000000002 364)The term pollex refers to the A)great toe B)fingers C)thumb D)calf Point: 0.40000000000000002 365)The four elements that make up about 96% of body weight are ________. A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium C) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen D) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen 366)________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function. A)Vitamin K B)Vitamin A C)Vitamin D D)Cortisol Point: 0.44444 367)Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"? A) Second messengers act through receptors caled K-proteins. B) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes. C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers. D) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell Point: 0.4444 368)The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________. 1)It is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock 2) It has no delicate nervc endings and can therefore absorb more shock 3)the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber 4) the cels that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus Point: 0.444444 369)Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous because it is highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy? a. Melanoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Basal cell carcinoma d. Adenoma Point: 0.4444 370)For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? a. A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. b. Ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane. c. The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. d. A medullary cavity forms. Point: 0.444444 371)The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________. a. Closing of the epiphyseal plate b. Epiphyseal plate closure c. Appositional growth d. Concentric growth Point: 0.4444 372)Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? a. Osteoclast b. Osteocyte c. Osteoblast d. Stem cell Point: 0.44444 373)The suture that is found where a parietal and temporal bone meet on the lateral aspect of the skull is ________. A)coronal B)squamous C)sagittal D)lambdoid Point: 0.40000000000000002 374)The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. A) is shaped like a plow B) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone C) is covered with mucosa D) has no specific f