Muscular System Test Bank PDF

***MUSCULAR SYSTEM TEST BANK*** **Marieb 17^th^** Multiple choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. If you compare electron micrographs of a relaxed skeletal muscle fiber and a fully contracted muscle fiber, which would you see only in the relaxed fiber? a\. Z discs b. Sarcomeres c. I bands d....

***MUSCULAR SYSTEM TEST BANK*** **Marieb 17^th^** Multiple choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. If you compare electron micrographs of a relaxed skeletal muscle fiber and a fully contracted muscle fiber, which would you see only in the relaxed fiber? a\. Z discs b. Sarcomeres c. I bands d. A bands e. H zones 2\. After ACh attaches to its receptors at the neuromuscular junction, what is the next step? a\. Sodium channels open. b. Calcium binds to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments. c. Cross bridges attach. d. ATP is hydrolyzed. 3\. Your ability to lift that heavy couch would be increased by which type of exercise? a\. Aerobic b. Endurance c. Resistance d. Swimming 4\. Doing the pincer grasp is an \_\_\_\_\_\_ movement. a\. extending b. abducting c. adducting d. opposing 5\. Which are ways in which muscle names have been derived? a\. Attachments b. Size c. Function d. Location 6\. Which of the following muscles attach to the hip bones? a\. Rectus abdominis b. Rectus femoris c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus lateralis 7\. Which of these thigh muscles causes movement at the hip joint? a\. Rectus femoris b. Biceps femoris c. Vastus lateralis d. Semitendinosus 8\. Which of the following insert on the arm? a\. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Trapezius d. Latissimus dorsi **Marieb 15^th^** Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. A muscle that assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts is a(n) \(a) antagonist, (b) prime mover, (c) synergist, (d) agonist. 2\. The arrangement of muscle fibers in which the fibers are arranged at an angle to a central longitudinal tendon is \(a) circular, (b) longitudinal, (c) pennate, (d) parallel. 3\. Match the muscle names in column B to the facial muscles described in column A. Column A \_\_\_\_(1) squints the eyes \_\_\_\_(2) raises the eyebrows \_\_\_\_(3) smiling muscle \_\_\_\_(4) puckers the lips \_\_\_\_(5) pulls the scalp posteriorly Column B (a) corrugator supercilii (b) depressor anguli oris (c) frontal belly of epicranius (d) occipital belly of epicranius (e) orbicularis oculi (f) orbicularis oris (g) zygomaticus 4\. The prime mover of inspiration is the \(a) diaphragm, (b) internal intercostals, (c) external intercostals, (d) abdominal wall muscles. 5\. The arm muscle that both flexes the elbow and supinates the forearm is the \(a) brachialis, (b) brachioradialis, (c) biceps brachii, (d) triceps brachii. 6\. The is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop. \(a) extensor digitorum longus, (b) tibialis anterior, (c) extensor hallucis longus, (d) fibular is tertius muscle 7\. Muscles that depress the hyoid bone and larynx include all but the \(a) sternohyoid, (b) omohyoid, (c) geniohyoid, (d) sternothyroid. 8\. Intrinsic muscles of the back that promote extension of the spine (or head) include all but \(a) splenius muscles, (b) semispinalis muscles, (c) scalene muscles, (d) erector spinae. 9\. Several muscles act to move and/or stabilize the scapula. Which of the following are small rectangular muscles that square the shoulders as they act together to retract the scapula? \(a) levator scapulae, (b) rhomboids, (c) serratus anterior, (d) trapezius. 10\. The is not a rotator cuff muscle. \(a) supraspinatus, (b) levator scapulae, (c) teres minor, (d) subscapularis muscle 11\. A prime mover of hip flexion is the \(a) rectus femoris, (b) iliopsoas, (c) vastus muscles, (d) gluteus maximus. 12\. The prime mover of hip extension against resistance is the \(a) gluteus maximus, (b) gluteus medius, (c) biceps femoris, (d) semimembranosus. 13\. A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) \(a) antagonist, (b) fixator, (c) synergist, (d) agonist. 14\. A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called? \(a) platysma, (b) masseter, (c) zygomaticus, (d) buccinators. 15\. Which criterion (or criteria) is/are used in naming the gluteus medius? \(a) relative size, (b) muscle location, (c) muscle shape, (d) action, (e) number of origins. 16\. A tennis players who is complaining about pain in the forearm that swings the racquet, has most probably strained the \(a) triceps brachii, (b) anconeus, (c) brachioradialis, (d) flexor digitorum profundus. **Marieb 12^th^** Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The connective tissue covering that encloses the sarcolemma of an individual muscle fiber is called the (a) epimysium, (b) perimysium, (c) endomysium, (d) periosteum. 2\. A fascicle is a (a) muscle, (b) bundle of muscle fibers enclosed by a connective tissue sheath, (c) bundle of myofibrils, (d) group of myofilaments. 3\. Thick and thin myofilaments have different compositions. For each descriptive phrase, indicate whether the filament is (a) thick or (b) thin. \_\_\_\_ (1) contains actin \_\_\_\_ (2) contains ATPases \_\_\_\_ (3) attaches to the Z disc \_\_\_\_ (4) contains myosin \_\_\_\_ (5) contains troponin \_\_\_\_ (6) does not lie in the I band 4\. The function of the T tubules in muscle contraction is to \(a) make and store glycogen, (b) release Ca21 into the cell interior and then pick it up again, (c) transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells, (d) form proteins. 5\. The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membranes are the \(a) neuromuscular junctions, (b) sarcomeres, (c) myofilaments, (d) Z discs. 6. Contraction elicited by a single brief stimulus is called (a) a twitch, (b) wave summation, (c) multiple motor unit summation, (d) fused tetanus. 7\. A smooth, sustained contraction resulting from very rapid stimulation of the muscle, in which no evidence of relaxation is seen, is called \(a) a twitch, (b) wave summation, (c) multiple motor unit summation, (d) fused tetanus. 8\. Characteristics of isometric contractions include all but \(a) shortening, (b) increased muscle tension throughout the contraction phase, (c) absence of shortening, (d) used in resistance training. 9\. During muscle contraction, ATP is provided by \(a) a coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP, (b) aerobic respiration of glucose, and (c) anaerobic glycolysis. \_\_\_\_ (1) Which provides ATP fastest? \_\_\_\_ (2) Which does (do) not require that oxygen be available? \_\_\_\_ (3) Which provides the highest yield of ATP per glucose molecule? \_\_\_\_ (4) Which results in the formation of lactic acid? \_\_\_\_ (5) Which has carbon dioxide and water products? \_\_\_\_ (6) Which is most important in endurance sports? 10\. The neurotransmitter released by somatic motor neurons is \(a) acetylcholine, (b) acetylcholinesterase, (c) norepinephrine. 11\. The ions that enter the skeletal muscle cell during the generation of an action potential are (a) calcium ions, (b) chloride ions, (c) sodium ions, (d) potassium ions. 12\. Myoglobin has a special function in muscle tissue. It (a) breaks down glycogen, (b) is a contractile protein, (c) holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle. 13\. Aerobic exercise results in all of the following except (a) increased cardiovascular system efficiency, (b) more mitochondria in the muscle cells, (c) increased size and strength of existing muscle cells, (d) increased neuromuscular system coordination. 14\. The smooth muscle type found in the walls of digestive and urinary system organs and that exhibits gap junctions and pacemaker cells is (a) multi unit, (b) unitary. ***NERVOUS SYSTEM TEST BANK*** **Marieb 17^th^** Multiple Choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. Which of the following is an example of integration by the nervous system? a\. The feel of a cold breeze b. Shivering and goose bumps in response to cold c. Perceiving the sound of rain d. The decision to go back for an umbrella 2\. Where might a gray matter nucleus be located? a\. Alongside the vertebral column b. Within the brain c. Within the spinal cord d. In the sensory receptors 3\. The innermost delicate meningeal layer is the a\. dura mater. b. corpus callosum. c. arachnoid mater. d. pia mater. 4\. Histological examination of a slice of neural tissue reveals a bundle of nerve fibers held together by cells whose multiple processes wrap around several fibers and form a myelin sheath. The specimen is likely to be a\. a nucleus. b. a ganglion. c. a nerve. d. a tract. 5\. The pineal gland is located in the a\. hypothalamus. c. epithalamus. b. mesencephalon. d. corpus callosum. 6\. Choose the proper term to respond to the statements describing various brain areas. a\. cerebellum b\. corpora quadrigemina c\. corpus callosum d\. hypothalamus e\. medulla f\. midbrain g\. pons h. thalamus \_\_\_\_ 1. Region where there is a gross crossover of fibers of descending pyramidal tracts \_\_\_\_ 2. Control of temperature, autonomic nervous system reflexes, hunger, and water balance \_\_\_\_ 3. Houses the substantia nigra and cerebral aqueduct \_\_\_\_ 4. Relay stations for visual and auditory stimuli input; found in midbrain \_\_\_\_ 5. Houses vital centers for control of the heart, respiration, and blood pressure \_\_\_\_ 6. Brain area through which all the sensory input is relayed to get to the cerebral cortex \_\_\_\_ 7. Brain area most concerned with equilibrium, body posture, and coordination of motor activity. 7. The spinal cord feature associated with the leash of nerves supplying the upper limbs is the a\. brachial plexus. b. brachial enlargement. c. cervical enlargement. d. lateral gray horns. 8\. Which contains only motor fibers? a\. Dorsal root b. Dorsal ramus c. Ventral root d. Ventral ramus 9\. Cranial nerves that have some function in vision include the a\. trochlear. b. trigeminal. c. abducens. d. facial. 10\. Motor functions of the extensor muscles of the arm, forearm, and fingers would be affected by damage to which one of these nerves? a\. Radial b. Axillary c. Ulnar d. Median 11\. Neuroglia present in large numbers in areas of bacterial infection in the brain are most likely a\. oligodendrocytes. c. ependymal cells. d. microglia. b. astrocytes. 12\. Which of the following is true of the autonomic, but not the somatic, nervous system? a\. Neurotransmitter is acetylcholine. b. Axons are myelinated. c. Effectors are muscle cells. d. It has motor neurons located in ganglia. Multiple Choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. Gustatory cells are a\. bipolar neurons. b. multipolar neurons. c. unipolar neurons. d. epithelial cells. 2\. Alkaloids excite gustatory hairs mostly at the a\. tip of the tongue. b. back of the tongue. c. vallate papillae. d. fungiform papillae. 3\. Cranial nerves that are part of the gustatory pathway include a\. trigeminal. b. facial. c. hypoglossal. d. glossopharyngeal. 4\. Which cranial nerve controls contraction of the circular smooth muscle of the iris? a. Trigeminal b. Facial c. Oculomotor d. Abducens 5\. The cornea is nourished by a\. corneal blood vessels. b. aqueous humor. c. vitreous humor. d. scleral blood vessels. 6\. When the eye focuses for far vision, a\. the lens is at its thinnest. b. the ciliary muscles contract. c. the light rays are nearly parallel. d. suspensory fibers of the ciliary zonule are slack. 7\. Convergence a\. requires contraction of the medial rectus muscles of both eyes. b. is needed for near vision. c. involves transmission of impulses along the abducens nerves. d. can promote eyestrain. 8\. Which of the following are paired incorrectly? a\. Cochlear duct---cupula b. Vestibule---macula c. Ampulla---otoliths d. Semicircular duct---ampulla 9\. Movement of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ membrane triggers bending of hairs of the hair cells in the spiral organ of Corti. a\. tympanic b. tectorial c. basilar d. vestibular 10\. Sounds entering the external acoustic meatus are eventually converted to nerve impulses via a chain of events including a\. vibration of the eardrum. b. vibratory motion of the ossicles against the oval window. c. stimulation of hair cells in the spiral organ of Corti. d. resonance of the cupula. **Marieb 15^th^** Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. Which of the following structures is not part of the central nervous system? \(a) the brain, (b) a nerve, (c) the spinal cord, (d) a tract. 2\. Match the names of the supporting cells found in column B with the appropriate descriptions in column A. Column A \_\_\_\_ (1) myelinates nerve fibers in the CNS \_\_\_\_ (2) lines brain cavities \_\_\_\_ (3) myelinates nerve fibers in the PNS \_\_\_\_ (4) CNS phagocyte \_\_\_\_ (5) helps regulate the ionic composition of CNS extracellular fluid 11 Column B (a) astrocyte (b) ependymal cell (c) microglial cell (d) oligodendrocyte (e) satellite cell (f) Schwann cell 3\. Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? \(a) support and brace neurons, (b) anchor neurons to blood vessels, (c) control the chemical environment around neurons, (d) provide the defense for the CNS. 4\. Assume that an EPSP is being generated on the dendritic membrane. Which will occur? \(a) specific Na+ channels will open, (b) specific K+ channels will open, (c) a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of Na+ and K+, (d) Na+ channels will open first and then close as K+ channels open. 5\. The \(a) mechanically gated, (b) voltage-gated, (c) leakage, (d) ligand gated ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials. 6. Regulation by the nervous system results in reaction to impulses that are \(a) fast and long-lasting, (b) fast and short-lived, (c) relatively slow and long-lasting, (d) relatively slow and short-lived. 7\. Biogenic amine neurotransmitters include all but \(a) norepinephrine, (b) acetylcholine, (c) dopamine, (d) serotonin. 8\. The primary function of the \(a) efferent neuron, (b) afferent neuron, (c) association neuron, (d) glial cell is connecting other neurons. 9. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by poisoning blocks neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction because \(a) ACh is no longer released by the presynaptic terminal, (b) ACh synthesis in the presynaptic terminal is blocked, (c) ACh is not degraded, hence prolonged depolarization is enforced on the postsynaptic cell, (d) ACh is blocked from attaching to the postsynaptic ACh receptors. 10\. Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin, and methadone? \(a) acetylcholine, (b) endorphin, (c) serotonin, (d) nitric oxide. 11\. An IPSP is inhibitory because \(a) it hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane, (b) it reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal, (c) it prevents calcium ion entry into the presynaptic terminal, (d) it changes the threshold of the neuron. 12\. Identify the neuronal circuits described by choosing the correct response from the key. Key: (a) converging (b) diverging (c) parallel after-discharge (d) reverberating \_\_\_\_ (1) Impulses continue around and around the circuit until one neuron stops firing. \_\_\_\_ (2) One or a few inputs ultimately influence large numbers of neurons. \_\_\_\_ (3) Many neurons influence a few neurons. \_\_\_\_ (4) May be involved in exacting types of mental activity. Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The transverse cerebral fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres from \(a) the cerebellum, (b) the brain stem, (c) the spinal cord, (d) each other. 2\. Which one of the following structures is not found in gray matter? (a) neuron cell bodies, (b) dendrites, (c) glial cells, (d) fiber tracts. 3\. Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the \(a) midbrain, (b) medulla, (c) pons, (d) cerebrum. 4\. An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in \(a) paraplegia, (b) hemiplegia, (c) quadriplegia, (d) spinal shock only. 5\. Choose the correct term from the key to respond to the statements describing various brain areas. Key: (a) cerebellum (b) corpora quadrigemina (c) corpus callosum 12 (d) striatum (e) hypothalamus (f) medulla (g) midbrain (h) pons (i) thalamus \_\_\_\_ (1) basal nuclei involved in fine control of motor activities \_\_\_\_ (2) region where there is a gross crossover of fibers of descending pyramidal tracts \_\_\_\_ (3) control of temperature, autonomic nervous system reflexes, hunger, and water balance \_\_\_\_ (4) houses the substantia nigra and cerebral aqueduct \_\_\_\_ (5) relay stations for visual and auditory stimuli input; found in midbrain \_\_\_\_ (6) houses vital centers for control of the heart, respiration, and blood pressure \_\_\_\_ (7) brain area through which all the sensory input is relayed to get to the cerebral cortex \_\_\_\_ (8) brain area most concerned with equilibrium, body posture, and coordination of motor activity 6\. Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are \(a) pyramidal and corticospinal, (b) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal, (c) segmental and nigrostriatal, (d) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine. 7\. Destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord results in loss of \(a) integrating impulses, (b) sensory impulses, (c) voluntary motor impulses, (d) all of these. 8\. Fiber tracts that allow neurons within the same cerebral hemisphere to communicate are \(a) association fibers, (b) commissures, (c) projection fibers. 9\. A number of brain structures are listed below. If an area is primarily gray matter, write a in the answer blank; if mostly white matter, respond with b. \_\_\_\_ (1) cerebral cortex \_\_\_\_ (2) corpus callosum and corona radiata \_\_\_\_ (3) red nucleus \_\_\_\_ (4) medial and lateral nuclear groups \_\_\_\_ (5) medial lemniscus \_\_\_\_ (6) cranial nerve nuclei \_\_\_\_ (7) spinothalamic tract \_\_\_\_ (8) fornix \_\_\_\_ (9) cingulate and precentral gyri 10.An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the (a) calcarine cortex, (b) primary visual area, (c) visual association area, (d) lateral geniculate body. 11\. Identify the stage of sleep described by using choices from the key. (Note that responses a--d refer to NREM sleep.) Key: (a) stage 1 (b) stage 2 (c) stage 3 (d) stage 4 (e) REM \_\_\_\_ (1) the stage when blood pressure and heart rate reach their lowest levels \_\_\_\_ (2) indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs \_\_\_\_ (3) when sleepwalking may occur \_\_\_\_ (4) when the sleeper is very easily awakened; EEG shows alpha waves 12.All of the following descriptions refer to dorsal column--medial lemniscal ascending pathways except one: \(a) they include the fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus; (b) they include a chain of three neurons; (c) their connections are diffuse and poorly localized; (d) they are concerned with precise transmission of one or a few related types of sensory input. multiple Choice 1\. The large onion-shaped receptors that are found deep in the dermis and in subcutaneous tissue and that respond to deep pressure are \(a) tactile discs, (b) lamellar corpuscles, (c) free nerve endings, (d) muscle spindles. 2\. Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by \(a) interoceptors, (b) photoreceptors, (c) nociceptors, (d) proprioceptors. 3\. The aspect of sensory perception by which the cerebral cortex identifies the site or pattern of stimulation is \(a) perceptual detection, (b) feature abstraction, (c) pattern recognition, (d) spatial discrimination. 4\. The neural machinery of the spinal cord is at the \(a) precommand level, (b) projection level, (c) segmental level. 5\. Dorsal root ganglia contain \(a) cell bodies of somatic motor neurons, (b) axon terminals of somatic motor neurons, (c) cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons, (d) axon terminals of sensory neurons, (e) cell bodies of sensory neurons. 6\. The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the \(a) trigeminal, (b) facial, (c) glossopharyngeal, (d) trochlear. 7\. Match the receptor type in column B to the correct description in column A. Column A \_\_\_\_ (1) pain, itch, and temperature receptors \_\_\_\_ (2) contains intrafusal fibers and anulospiral and flower spray endings \_\_\_\_ (3) discriminative touch receptor in hairless skin (fingertips) \_\_\_\_(4) contains receptor endings wrapped around thick collagen bundles \_\_\_\_ (5) rapidly adapting deep- pressure receptor \_\_\_\_ (6) slowly adapting deep- pressure receptor Column B (a) bulbous corpuscles (b) tendon organ (c) muscle spindle (d) free nerve endings (e) lamellar corpuscle (f) tactile corpuscle multiple Choice/matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of \(a) parasympathetic innervations, (b) sympathetic stimulation, (c) vagus nerve activity, (d) neurosecretory substances. 2\. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system: \_\_\_\_ (1) short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers \_\_\_\_ (2) intramural ganglia \_\_\_\_ (3) craniosacral part \_\_\_\_ (4) adrenergic fibers \_\_\_\_ (5) cervical ganglia \_\_\_\_ (6) otic and ciliary ganglia \_\_\_\_ (7) generally short-duration action \_\_\_\_ (8) increases heart rate and blood pressure \_\_\_\_ (9) increases gastric motility and secretion of lacrimal, salivary, and digestive juices \_\_\_\_ (10) innervates blood vessels \_\_\_\_ (11) most active when you are relaxing in a hammock \_\_\_\_ (12) active when you are running in the Boston Marathon 3\. The white rami communicantes contain what kind of fibers? (a) preganglionic parasympathetic, (b) postganglionic parasympathetic, (c) preganglionic sympathetic, (d) postganglionic sympathetic. 4\. The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the (a) sympathetic trunk, (b) phrenic nerve, (c) vagus nerve, (d) sacral nerve. Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. Accessory glands that produce an oily secretion are the \(a) conjunctiva, (b) lacrimal glands, (c) tarsal glands. 2\. The structure that regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye is the \(a) aqueous humor, (b) lens, (c) cornea, (d) iris. 3\. Which sequence best describes a normal route for the flow of tears from the eyes into the nasal cavity? \(a) lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sacs, nasolacrimal ducts; (b) lacrimal ducts, lacrimal canaliculi, nasolacrimal ducts; (c) nasolacrimal ducts, lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sacs. 4\. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system causes \(a) contraction of the sphincter pupillae muscles, (b) contraction of the dilator pupillae muscles, (c) contraction of the ciliary muscles, (d) a decrease in ciliary zonule tension. 5\. Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect \(a) accommodation, (b) refraction, (c) convergence, (d) pupil constriction. 6\. The phenomenon of dark adaptation is best explained by the fact that \(a) rhodopsin does not function in dim light, (b) rhodopsin breakdown occurs slowly, (c) rods exposed to intense light need time to generate rhodopsin, (d) cones are stimulated to function by bright light. 7\. Receptors for hearing are located in the \(a) cochlea, (b) semicircular canals, (c) tympanic membrane, (d) vestibule. 8\. Nearsightedness is more properly called \(a) myopia, (b) hyperopia, (c) presbyopia, (d) emmetropia. 9\. Of the neurons in the retina, the axons of which of these form the optic nerve? \(a) bipolar cells, (b) ganglion cells, (c) cone cells, (d) horizontal cells. 10.Which reactions occur when a person looks at a distant object? \(a) pupils constrict, ciliary zonule (suspensory ligament) relaxes, lenses become less convex; \(b) pupils dilate, ciliary zonule Chapter 15 The Special Senses 613 becomes taut, lenses become less convex; \(c) pupils dilate, ciliary zonule becomes taut, lenses become more convex; \(d) pupils constrict, ciliary zonule relaxes, lenses become more convex. 11.The blind spot of the eye is \(a) where more rods than cones are found, (b) where the macula lutea is located, (c) where only cones occur, (d) where the optic nerve leaves the eye. 12.Visible light fits between \(a) X rays and UV, (b) infrared and microwaves, (c) microwaves and radio waves, (d) UV and infrared. 13.Sensory impulses transmitted over the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves are involved in the sensation of \(a) taste, (b) touch, (c) equilibrium, (d) smell. 14.Taste buds are found on the \(a) anterior part of the tongue, (b) posterior part of the tongue, (c) palate, (d) all of these. 15.Gustatory epithelial cells are stimulated by \(a) movement of otoliths, (b) stretch, (c) substances in solution, (d) photons of light. 16.The modiolus is \(a) a bone in the center of a semicircular canal, (b) a bone around the cochlea, (c) a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea, (d) a bony area around the junction of the facial, vestibular, and cochlear nerves. 17.Which of the following is not a characteristic of olfactory receptor cells? \(a) They are ciliated. (b) They are unipolar neurons. (c) They are chemoreceptors. (d) They have a short life span of about 60 days. 18.Conduction of sound from the middle ear to the internal ear occurs via vibration of the \(a) malleus against the tympanic membrane, (b) stapes in the oval window, (c) incus in the round window, (d) stapes against the tympanic membrane. 19.The transmission of sound vibrations through the internal ear occurs chiefly through \(a) nerve fibers, (b) air, (c) fluid, (d) bone. 20.Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the spiral organ? \(a) Sounds of high frequency stimulate hair cells at the basal end, (b) the "hairs" of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane, (c) the basilar membrane acts as a resonator, (d) the more numerous outer hair cells are largely responsible for our perception of sound. 21.Pitch is to frequency of sound as loudness is to \(a) quality, (b) intensity, (c) overtones, (d) all of these. 22.The structure that allows pressure in the middle ear to be equalized with atmospheric pressure is the (a) pinna, (b) pharyngotympanic tube, (c) tympanic membrane, (d) oval window. 23.Which of the following is important in maintaining the balance of the body? \(a) visual cues, (b) semicircular canals, (c) the saccule, (d) proprioceptors, (e) all of these. 24.Equilibrium receptors that report the position of the head in space relative to the pull of gravity are (a) spiral organs, (b) maculae, (c) cristae ampullares, (d) otoliths. 25.Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness? \(a) impacted cerumen, (b) middle ear infection, (c) cochlear nerve degeneration, (d) otosclerosis. 26.Ceruminous glands are \(a) saliva glands found at the base of the tongue, (b) modified apocrine sweat glands, (c) glands found in the lateral corners of your eye, (d) modified taste buds. 27.Tinnitus, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called \(a) Ménière's syndrome, (b) conjunctivitis, (c) strabismus, (d) motion sickness. Marieb 12^th^ Multiple Choice/Matching 12 (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The primary motor cortex, Broca's area, and the premotor cortex are located in which lobe? \(a) frontal, (b) parietal, (c) temporal, (d) occipital. 2\. The innermost layer of the meninges, delicate and closely apposed to the brain tissue, is the (a) dura mater, (b) corpus callosum, (c) arachnoid mater, (d) pia mater. 3\. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by \(a) arachnoid villi, (b) dura mater, (c) choroid plexuses, (d) all of these. 4\. A patient has suffered a cerebral hemorrhage that has caused dysfunction of the precentral gyrus of his right cerebral cortex. As a result, \(a) he cannot voluntarily move his left arm or leg, (b) he feels no sensation on the left side of his body, (c) he feels no sensation on his right side. 5\. Choose the correct term from the key to respond to the statements describing various brain areas. Key: (a) cerebellum (b) corpora quadrigemina (c) corpus callosum (d) striatum (e) hypothalamus (f) medulla \_\_\_\_ (1) basal nuclei involved in fine control of motor activities \_\_\_\_ (2) region where there is a gross crossover of fibers of descending pyramidal tracts \_\_\_\_ (3) control of temperature, autonomic nervous system reflexes, hunger, and water balance \_\_\_\_ (4) houses the substantia nigra and cerebral aqueduct \_\_\_\_ (5) relay stations for visual and auditory stimuli input; found in midbrain \_\_\_\_ (6) houses vital centers for control of the heart, respiration, and blood pressure \_\_\_\_ (7) brain area through which all the sensory input is relayed to get to the cerebral cortex \_\_\_\_ (8) brain area most concerned with equilibrium, body posture, and coordination of motor activity 6\. Which of the following tracts convey vibration and other specific sensations that can be precisely localized? \(a) pyramidal tract, (b) medial lemniscus, (c) lateral spinothalamic tract, (d) reticulospinal tract. 7\. Destruction of the ventral horn cells of the spinal cord results in loss of \(a) integrating impulses, (b) sensory impulses, (c) voluntary motor impulses, (d) all of these. 8\. Fiber tracts that allow neurons within the same cerebral hemisphere to communicate are \(a) association fibers, (b) commissures, (c) projection fibers. 9\. A number of brain structures are listed below. If an area is primarily gray matter, write a in the answer blank; if mostly white matter, respond with b. \_\_\_\_ (1) cerebral cortex \_\_\_\_ (2) corpus callosum and corona radiata \_\_\_\_ (3) red nucleus \_\_\_\_ (4) medial and lateral nuclear groups \_\_\_\_ (5) medial lemniscus \_\_\_\_ (6) cranial nerve nuclei \_\_\_\_ (7) spinothalamic tract \_\_\_\_ (8) fornix (g) midbrain (h) pons (i) thalamus \_\_\_\_ (9) cingulate and precentral gyri 10\. A professor unexpectedly blew a loud horn in his anatomy and physiology class. The students looked up, startled. The reflexive movements of their eyes were mediated by the \(a) cerebral cortex, (b) inferior olives, (c) raphe nuclei, (d) superior colliculi, (e) nucleus gracilis. 11\. Identify the stage of sleep described by using choices from the key. (Note that responses a--d refer to NREM sleep.) Key: (a) stage 1 (b) stage 2 (c) stage 3 (d) stage 4 (e) REM \_\_\_\_ (1) the stage when blood pressure and heart rate reach their lowest levels \_\_\_\_ (2) indicated by movement of the eyes under the lids; dreaming occurs \_\_\_\_ (3) when nightmares are likely to occur \_\_\_\_ (4) when the sleeper is very easily awakened; EEG shows alpha waves 12\. All of the following descriptions refer to dorsal column medial lemniscal ascending pathways except one: \(a) they include the fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus; (b) they include a chain of three neurons; (c) their connections are diffuse and poorly localized; (d) they are concerned with precise transmission of one or a few related types of sensory input Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. All of the following characterize the ANS except \(a) a two-neuron efferent chain, (b) presence of nerve cell bodies in the CNS, (c) presence of nerve cell bodies in the ganglia, (d) innervation of skeletal muscles. 2\. Relate each of the following terms or phrases to either the sympathetic (S) or parasympathetic (P) division of the autonomic nervous system: \_\_\_\_ (1) short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers \_\_\_\_ (2) intramural ganglia \_\_\_\_ (3) craniosacral part \_\_\_\_ (4) adrenergic fibers \_\_\_\_ (5) cervical ganglia \_\_\_\_ (6) otic and ciliary ganglia \_\_\_\_ (7) generally short-duration action \_\_\_\_ (8) increases heart rate and blood pressure \_\_\_\_ (9) increases gastric motility and secretion of lacrimal, salivary, and digestive juices \_\_\_\_ (10) innervates blood vessels \_\_\_\_ (11) most active when you are relaxing in a hammock \_\_\_\_ (12) active when you are running in the Boston Marathon 3\. Preganglionic neurons develop from \(a) neural crest cells, (b) neural tube cells, (c) alar plate cells, (d) endoderm. 4\. The white rami communicantes contain what kind of fibers? \(a) preganglionic parasympathetic, (b) postganglionic parasympathetic, (c) preganglionic sympathetic, (d) postganglionic sympathetic. 5\. Collateral sympathetic ganglia are involved with innervating \(a) abdominal organs, (b) thoracic organs, (c) head, (d) arrector pili, (e) all of these. Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. Accessory glands that produce an oily secretion are the \(a) conjunctiva, (b) lacrimal glands, (c) tarsal glands. 2\. The portion of the fibrous layer that is white and opaque is the \(a) choroid, (b) cornea, (c) retina, (d) sclera. 3\. Which sequence best describes a normal route for the flow of tears from the eyes into the nasal cavity? \(a) lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sacs, nasolacrimal ducts; (b) lacrimal ducts, lacrimal canaliculi, nasolacrimal ducts; (c) nasolacrimal ducts, lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sacs. 4\. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system causes \(a) contraction of the sphincter pupillae muscles, (b) contraction of the dilator pupillae muscles, (c) contraction of the ciliary muscles, (d) a decrease in ciliary zonule tension. 5\. Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect \(a) accommodation, (b) refraction, (c) convergence, (d) pupil constriction. 6\. The phenomenon of dark adaptation is best explained by the fact that \(a) rhodopsin does not function in dim light, (b) rhodopsin breakdown occurs slowly, (c) rods exposed to intense light need time to generate rhodopsin, (d) cones are stimulated to function by bright light. 7\. Blockage of the scleral venous sinus might result in \(a) a sty, (b) glaucoma, (c) conjunctivitis, (d) a cataract. 8\. Nearsightedness is more properly called \(a) myopia, (b) hyperopia, (c) presbyopia, (d) emmetropia. 9\. Of the neurons in the retina, the axons of which of these form the optic nerve? \(a) bipolar cells, (b) ganglion cells, (c) cone cells, (d) horizontal cells. 10\. Which sequence of reactions occurs when a person looks at a distant object? \(a) pupils constrict, ciliary zonule (suspensory ligament) relaxes, lenses become less convex; (b) pupils dilate, ciliary zonule becomes taut, lenses become less convex; (c) pupils dilate, ciliary zonule becomes taut, lenses become more convex; (d) pupils constrict, ciliary zonule relaxes, lenses become more convex. 11\. During embryonic development, the lens of the eye forms \(a) as part of the choroid coat, (b) from the surface ectoderm overlying the optic cup, (c) as part of the sclera, (d) from mesodermal tissue. 12\. The blind spot of the eye is \(a) where more rods than cones are found, (b) where the macula lutea is located, (c) where only cones occur, (d) where the optic nerve leaves the eye. 13\. Olfactory tract damage would probably affect your ability to \(a) see, (b) hear, (c) feel pain, (d) smell. 14\. Sensory impulses transmitted over the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves are involved in the sensation of (a) taste, (b) touch, (c) equilibrium, (d) smell. 15\. Taste buds are found on the \(a) anterior part of the tongue, (b) posterior part of the tongue, (c) palate, (d) all of these. 16\. Gustatory epithelial cells are stimulated by (a) movement of otoliths, (b) stretch, (c) substances in solution, (d) photons of light. 17\. Cells in the olfactory bulb that act as local "integrators" of olfactory inputs are the \(a) hair cells, (b) amacrine granule cells, (c) olfactory stem cells, (d) mitral cells, (e) supporting cells. 18\. Olfactory nerve filaments are found \(a) in the optic bulbs, (b) passing through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone, (c) in the optic tracts, (d) in the olfactory cortex. 19\. Conduction of sound from the middle ear to the internal ear occurs via vibration of the \(a) malleus against the tympanic Chapter 15 The Special Senses 589 membrane, (b) stapes in the oval window, (c) incus in the round window, (d) stapes against the tympanic membrane. 20\. The transmission of sound vibrations through the internal ear occurs chiefly through \(a) nerve fibers, (b) air, (c) fluid, (d) bone. 21\. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the spiral organ? \(a) Sounds of high frequency stimulate hair cells at the basal end, (b) the "hairs" of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane, (c) the basilar membrane acts as a resonator, (d) the more numerous outer hair cells are largely responsible for our perception of sound. 22\. Pitch is to frequency of sound as loudness is to \(a) quality, (b) intensity, (c) overtones, (d) all of these. 23\. The structure that allows pressure in the middle ear to be equalized with atmospheric pressure is the (a) pinna, (b) pharyngotympanic tube, (c) tympanic membrane, (d) oval window. 24\. Which of the following is important in maintaining the balance of the body? \(a) visual cues, (b) semicircular canals, (c) the saccule, (d) proprioceptors, (e) all of these. 25\. Equilibrium receptors that report the position of the head in space relative to the pull of gravity are (a) spiral organs, (b) maculae, (c) cristae ampullares, (d) otoliths. 26\. Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness? \(a) impacted cerumen, (b) middle ear infection, (c) cochlear nerve degeneration, (d) otosclerosis. 27\. Which of the following are intrinsic eye muscles? \(a) superior rectus, (b) orbicularis oculi, (c) smooth muscles of the iris and ciliary body, (d) levator palpebrae superioris. 28\. Which lies closest to the exact posterior pole of the eye? \(a) optic nerve, (b) optic disc, (c) macula lutea, (d) point of entry of central artery into the eye. 29\. Otoliths (ear stones) are (a) a cause of deafness, (b) a type of hearing aid, (c) important in equilibrium, (d) the rock-hard petrous temporal bones ***ENDOCRINE SYSTEM TEST BANK*** **Marieb 17^th^** Multiple Choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. The major endocrine organs of the body a\. tend to be very large organs. b. are closely connected with each other. c. all contribute to the same function (digestion). d. tend to lie near the midline of the body. 2\. Which is generally true of hormones? a\. Exocrine glands produce them. b. They travel throughout the body in the blood. c. They affect only non--hormone-producing organs. d. All steroid hormones produce very similar physiological effects in the body. 3\. Which of the following hormones is (are) secreted by neurons? a\. Oxytocin b. Insulin c. ADH d. Cortisol 4\. ANP, the hormone secreted by the heart, has exactly the opposite function to this hormone secreted by the outermost zone of the adrenal cortex. a\. Epinephrine b. Cortisol c. Aldosterone d. Testosterone 5\. Hormones that act directly or indirectly to elevate the blood glucose level include which of the following? a. GH b. Cortisol c. Insulin d. ACTH 6\. Hypertension may result from hypersecretion of a. thyroxine. b. cortisol. c. aldosterone. d. ADH. 7\. Hormones that regulate mineral (salt) levels include a\. calcitonin. b. aldosterone. c. atrial natriuretic peptide. d. glucagon. 8\. Which of the following is given as a drug to reduce inflammation? a\. Epinephrine b. Cortisol c. Aldosterone d. ADH 9\. The element needed for thyroid gland function is a\. potassium. c. calcium. b. iodine. d. manganese. **Marieb 15^th^** Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The major stimulus for release of parathyroid hormone is \(a) hormonal, (b) humoral, (c) neural. 2\. The anterior pituitary secretes all but \(a) antidiuretic hormone, (b) growth hormone, (c) gonadotropins, (d) TSH. 3\. Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure? \(a) gastrin, (b) secretin, (c) leptin, (d) renin. 4\. Parathyroid hormone \(a) increases bone formation and lowers blood calcium levels, (b) increases calcium excretion from the body, (c) decreases calcium absorption from the gut, (d) demineralizes bone and raises blood calcium levels. 5\. Choose from the following key to identify the hormones described. Key: (a) aldosterone (b) antidiuretic hormone (c) growth hormone (d) luteinizing hormone (e) oxytocin (f) prolactin (g) T4 and T3 (h) TSH \_\_\_\_ (1) important anabolic hormone; many of its effects mediated by IGFs \_\_\_\_ (2) cause the kidneys to conserve water and/or salt (two choices) \_\_\_\_ (3) stimulates milk production \_\_\_\_ (4) tropic hormone that stimulates the gonads to secrete sex hormones \_\_\_\_ (5) increases uterine contractions during birth \_\_\_\_ (6) major metabolic hormone(s) of the body \_\_\_\_ (7) causes reabsorption of sodium ions by the kidneys \_\_\_\_ (8) tropic hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone \_\_\_\_ (9) secreted by the posterior pituitary (two choices) \_\_\_\_ (10) the only steroid hormone in the list 6\. A hypodermic injection of epinephrine would \(a) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi of the lungs, and increase peristalsis, (b) decrease heart rate, decrease blood pressure, constrict the bronchi, and increase peristalsis, \(c) decrease heart rate, increase blood pressure, constrict the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis, \(d) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis. 7\. Testosterone is to the male as which hormone is to the female? \(a) luteinizing hormone, (b) progesterone, (c) estrogen, (d) prolactin. 8\. Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the \(a) hepatic portal system, (b) general circulatory system, (c) hypophyseal portal system, (d) feedback loop. 9\. If there is adequate carbohydrate intake, secretion of insulin results in \(a) lower blood glucose levels, (b) increased cell utilization of glucose, (c) storage of glycogen, (d) all of these. 10.Hormones (a) are produced by exocrine glands, (b) are carried to all parts of the body in blood, (c) remain at constant concentration in the blood, (d) affect only non-hormone producing organs. 11.Some hormones act by \(a) increasing the synthesis of enzymes, (b) converting an inactive enzyme into an active enzyme, (c) affecting only specific target organs, (d) all of these. 12.Absence of thyroid hormone would result in \(a) increased heart rate and increased force of heart contraction, \(b) depression of the CNS and lethargy, \(c) exophthalmos, \(d) high metabolic rate. 13.Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP? \(a) the heart, (b) the kidney, (c) the skin, (d) the spleen. 14.When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is \(a) estrogen, (b) epinephrine, (c) angiotensinogen, (d) rennin. **Marieb 12^th^** Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The major stimulus for release of parathyroid hormone is \(a) hormonal, (b) humoral, (c) neural. 2\. The anterior pituitary secretes all but \(a) antidiuretic hormone, (b) growth hormone, (c) gonadotropins, (d) TSH. 3\. A hormone not involved in glucose metabolism is \(a) glucagon, (b) cortisone, (c) aldosterone, (d) insulin. 4\. Parathyroid hormone \(a) increases bone formation and lowers blood calcium levels, \(b) increases calcium excretion from the body, \(c) decreases calcium absorption from the gut, \(d) demineralizes bone and raises blood calcium levels. 5\. Choose from the following key to identify the hormones described. Key: (a) aldosterone Chapter 16 The Endocrine System 629 (b) antidiuretic hormone (c) growth hormone (d) luteinizing hormone (e) oxytocin (f) prolactin (g) T4 and T3 (h) TSH \_\_\_\_ (1) important anabolic hormone; many of its effects mediated by IGFs \_\_\_\_ (2) cause the kidneys to conserve water and/or salt (two choices) \_\_\_\_ (3) stimulates milk production \_\_\_\_ (4) tropic hormone that stimulates the gonads to secrete sex hormones \_\_\_\_ (5) increases uterine contractions during birth \_\_\_\_ (6) major metabolic hormone(s) of the body \_\_\_\_ (7) causes reabsorption of sodium ions by the kidneys \_\_\_\_ (8) tropic hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone \_\_\_\_ (9) secreted by the posterior pituitary (two choices) \_\_\_\_ (10) the only steroid hormone in the list 6\. A hypodermic injection of epinephrine would \(a) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi of the lungs, and increase peristalsis, (b) decrease heart rate, decrease blood pressure, constrict the bronchi, and increase peristalsis, \(c) decrease heart rate, increase blood pressure, constrict the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis, \(d) increase heart rate, increase blood pressure, dilate the bronchi, and decrease peristalsis. 7\. Testosterone is to the male as which hormone is to the female? \(a) luteinizing hormone, (b) progesterone, (c) estrogen, (d) prolactin. 8\. If anterior pituitary secretion is deficient in a growing child, the child will \(a) develop acromegaly, \(b) become a dwarf but have fairly normal body proportions, \(c) mature sexually at an earlier than normal age, \(d) be in constant danger of becoming dehydrated. 9\. If there is adequate carbohydrate intake, secretion of insulin results in \(a) lower blood glucose levels, (b) increased cell utilization of glucose, (c) storage of glycogen, (d) all of these. 10\. Absence of thyroid hormone would result in \(a) increased heart rate and increased force of heart contraction, \(b) depression of the CNS and lethargy, \(c) exophthalmos, \(d) high metabolic rate. 11\. Medullary chromaffin cells are found in the \(a) parathyroid gland, (b) anterior pituitary gland, (c) adrenal gland, (d) pineal gland. 12\. Atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of this hormone secreted by the zona glomerulosa: \(a) antidiuretic hormone, (b) epinephrine, (c) calcitonin, (d) aldosterone, (e) androgens. ***CARDIO SYSTEM AND BLOOD TEST BANK*** **M 17^th^** **BLOOD** Multiple Choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. Which would lead to increased erythropoiesis? a\. Chronic bleeding ulcer b\. Reduction in respiratory ventilation c\. Decreased level of physical activity d\. Reduced blood flow to the kidneys 2\. In a person with sickle cell anemia, sickling of RBCs can be induced by a\. blood loss. b. vigorous exercise. c. stress. d. fever. 3\. A child is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. This means that a\. one parent had sickle cell anemia. b\. one parent carried the sickle cell gene. c\. both parents had sickle cell anemia. d\. both parents carried the sickle cell gene. 4\. Polycythemia vera will result in a\. overproduction of WBCs. b. exceptionally high blood volume. c. abnormally high blood viscosity. d\. abnormally low hematocrit. 5\. Which of the following is not typical of leukocytes? a\. Amoeboid movement c. Nucleated cells b. Phagocytic (some) d. The most numerous cells in the blood stream 6\. The leukocyte that releases histamine and other inflammatory chemicals is the a\. basophil. b. monocyte. c. eosinophil. d. neutrophil. 7\. Which of the following formed elements are phagocytic? a\. Erythrocytes b. Neutrophils c. Monocytes d. Lymphocytes 8\. A condition resulting from thrombocytopenia is a\. thrombus formation. b. embolus formation. c. petechiae. d. hemophilia. 9\. Which of the following can cause problems in a transfusion reaction? a\. Donor antibodies attacking recipient RBCs b\. Clogging of small vessels by agglutinated clumps of RBCs c\. Lysis of donated RBCs d\. Blockage of kidney tubules Chapter 10: Blood 355 10\. If an Rh− mother becomes pregnant, when can hemolytic disease of the newborn not possibly occur in the child? a\. If the child is Rh− b. If the child is Rh+ c. If the father is Rh+ d. If the father is Rh− 11\. Plasma without the clotting proteins is called a\. serum. b. whole blood. c. fibrin. d. tissue factor. 12\. Albumin a\. is a blood buffer. b. helps maintain blood's osmotic pressure c. distributes body heat. d. transports certain molecules. **CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM** Multiple Choice More than one choice may apply. 1\. Pulmonary veins deliver freshly oxygenated blood from the lungs to the a\. right ventricle. b. left ventricle. c. right atrium. d. left atrium. 2\. Given a volume of 150 ml at the end of diastole, a volume of 50 ml at the end of systole, and a heart rate of 60 bpm, the cardiac output is a\. 600 ml/min. b. 6 liters/min. c. 1200 ml/min. d. 3 liters/min. 3\. Which of the following depolarizes next after the AV node? a\. Atrial myocardium b. Ventricular myocardium c. Bundle branches d. AV bundle 4\. During atrial systole, a\. the atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure. b\. 70 percent of ventricular filling occurs. c\. the AV valves are open. d\. valves prevent backflow into the great veins. 5\. Atrial repolarization coincides in time with the a\. P wave. b. T wave. c. QRS wave. d. P-Q interval. 6\. Soon after the onset of ventricular systole, the a\. AV valves close. b. semilunar valves open. c. first heart sound is heard. d. aortic pressure increases. 7\. The base of the heart is its \_\_\_\_\_\_ surface. a\. diaphragmatic b. superior c. anterior d. inferior 8\. In comparing a parallel artery and vein, you would find that a\. the artery wall is thicker. b. the artery diameter is greater. c. the artery lumen is smaller. d\. the artery endothelium is thicker. 9\. Which of these vessels is bilaterally symmetrical (i.e., one vessel of the pair occurs on each side of the body)? a\. Internal carotid artery b. Brachiocephalic trunk c. Azygos vein d. Renal vein 10\. A stroke that occludes a posterior cerebral artery will most likely affect a\. hearing. b. vision. c. smell. d. higher thought processes. 11\. Vessels involved in the circulatory pathway to and/ or from the brain are the a\. brachiocephalic trunk. b. subclavian artery. c. internal jugular vein. d. internal carotid artery. 12\. Which layer of the artery wall thickens most in atherosclerosis? a\. Tunica media b. Tunica intima c. Tunica adventitia d. Tunica externa 13\. Which of the following are associated with aging? a\. Increasing blood pressure b. Weakening of venous valves c. Arteriosclerosis d. Collapse of the ductus arteriosus 14\. An increase in BP would be caused by all of the following except a\. increase in SV. b. increase in heart rate. c. hemorrhage. d. vasoconstriction of the arterioles. 15\. The most external part of the pericardium is the a\. parietal layer of serous pericardium. b. fibrous pericardium. c. visceral layer of serous pericardium. d\. epicardium. 16\. Which heart chamber pumps blood with the greatest amount of force? a\. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle 17\. How many cusps does the right atrioventricular valve have? a\. Two b. Three c. Four d. Six 18\. Which layer of the heart wall is an endothelium? a\. Endocardium b. Myocardium c. Epicardium d. Pericardium **M 15^th^** **BLOOD** multiple Choice/matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. The blood volume in an adult averages approximately \(a) 1 L, (b) 3 L, (c) 5 L, (d) 7 L. 2\. The hormone erythropoietin, which promotes red blood cell formation, is released by the \(a) pancreas, (b) kidney, (c) adrenal gland, (d) thymus gland. 3\. Which of the following is true of RBCs? \(a) biconvex discs, (b) contain nuclei, (c) lifespan of approximately 10 days, (d) contain hemoglobin. 4\. The most numerous WBC is the \(a) eosinophil, (b) neutrophil, (c) monocyte, (d) lymphocyte. 5\. Blood proteins play an important part in \(a) blood clotting, (b) immunity, (c) maintenance of blood volume, (d) all of the above. 6\. The white blood cells which lead the attack against parasitic worms are \(a) basophils, (b) neutrophils, (c) eosinophils, (d) monocytes. 7\. Which blood cells do not mature in the bone marrow before being released into the blood? \(a) lymphocytes, (b) basophils, (c) erythrocytes, (d) neutrophils. 8\. Which of the following does not promote multiple steps in the clotting pathway? \(a) platelet phospholipids, (b) factor XI, (c) thrombin, (d) Ca2+. 9\. The normal pH of the blood is about \(a) 8.4, (b) 7.8, (c) 7.4, (d) 4.7. 10\. Suppose your blood is O positive. This means that \(a) there are no A or B agglutinogens present on your red blood cells, \(b) there are anti-A and anti-B antibodies in your plasma, \(c) your blood is Rh+, \(d) all of the above. **CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM** Multiple Choice/Matching (Some questions have more than one correct answer. Select the best answer or answers from the choices given.) 1\. When the semilunar valves are open, which of the following are occurring? \(a) 2, 3, 5, 6, (b) 1, 2, 3, 7, (c) 1, 3, 5, 6, (d) 2, 4, 5, 7. \_\_\_\_ (1) coronary arteries fill \_\_\_\_ (2) AV valves are closed \_\_\_\_ (3) ventricles are in systole \_\_\_\_ (4) ventricles are in diastole \_\_\_\_ (5) blood enters aorta \_\_\_\_ (6) blood enters pulmonary arteries \_\_\_\_ (7) atria contract 2\. The portion of the intrinsic conduction system located in the superior interventricular septum is the (a) AV node, (b) SA node, (c) AV bundle, (d) subendocardial conducting network. 3\. An ECG provides information about \(a) cardiac output, (b) movement of the excitation wave across the heart, (c) coronary circulation, \(d) valve impairment. 4\. Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole? \(a) venae cavae, (b) pulmonary trunk, (c) aorta, (d) pulmonary veins. 5\. The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to \(a) accommodate a greater volume of blood, (b) expand the thoracic cage during diastole, (c) pump blood with greater pressure, (d) pump blood through a smaller valve. 6\. The chordae tendineae \(a) close the atrioventricular valves, \(b) prevent the AV valve flaps from everting, \(c) contract the papillary muscles, \(d) open the semilunar valves. 7\. In the heart, which of the following apply? \(1) Action potentials are conducted from cell to cell across the myocardium via gap junctions, \(2) the SA node sets the pace for the heart as a whole, \(3) spontaneous depolarization of cardiac cells can occur in the absence of nerve stimulation, \(4) cardiac muscle can continue to contract for long periods in the absence of oxygen. \(a) all of the above, (b) 1, 3, 4, (c) 1, 2, 3, (d) 2, 3. 8\. The activity of the heart depends on intrinsic properties of cardiac muscle and on neural factors. Thus, (a) vagus nerve stimulation of the heart reduces heart rate, \(b) sympathetic nerve stimulation of the heart decreases time available for ventricular filling, \(c) sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases its force of contraction, \(d) all of the above. 9\. Damage to the \(a) SA node, (b) AV valves, (c) AV bundle, (d) AV node is referred to as heart block.