Microbiology Past Paper PDF

MCQ - 225 The basic taxonomic unit in microbiology: A. genus B. family C. species D. order E. class A distinctive feature of a prokaryotic cell: A. with nuclear substance (nucleoid) B. reproduces by meiosis C. has a nucleus D. has mitochondria E. ribosome size is 80S How...

MCQ - 225 The basic taxonomic unit in microbiology: A. genus B. family C. species D. order E. class A distinctive feature of a prokaryotic cell: A. with nuclear substance (nucleoid) B. reproduces by meiosis C. has a nucleus D. has mitochondria E. ribosome size is 80S How long do bacterial spores live in the environment? A. several years B. a few minutes C. a few hours D. several days E. several weeks Bacterial organelles involved in adhesion and conjugation processes: A. capsule B. pili C. flagella D. spores E. mesosome Ribosomes are: A. cytoplasmic membrane derivative B. supply of nutrients C. to save the species D. protein synthesis center E. protects the cell from adverse external influences Functions of flagella: A. provides movement B. gives bacteria a certain shape C. protects the cell from adverse external influences D. transports solutes into the cell E. is involved in cell division Cocci are arranged in chains: A. micrococci B. streptococci  C. sarcina D. staphylococci E. bacillus Importance of bacterial spore formation: A. ability to reproduce B. participates in nutrition C. the ability to move D. ability to survive in the environment E. the ability to protect the human body Cocci are arranged like grapes: A. sarcins B. streptococci C. staphylococci D. bacillus E. micrococci Chlamydia and rickettsia are different from other bacteria: A. they cannot breed in an oxygen environment B. forms spores under unfavorable conditions C. does not cause infectious disease in humans D. are intracellular parasites E. has no cell wall Color staining of Gram-positive bacteria: A. brown B. blue C. yellow D. green E. red In what unit is the size of bacteria measured: A. in nanometers B. in millimeters C. in micrometer D. in angstroms E. in centimeters For what purpose smears are fixed: A. for the detection of flagella B. for degreasing preparations C. to identify spores D. for attaching bacteria to a glass slide E. to identify capsules The location of cocci in the smear depends on: A. to the number and arrangement of fibers  B. to the size of cocсi C. to the feature of the capsule D. to the conjugation process E. from divisions in different planes The main forms of bacteria: A. spherical, rod-shaped, spiral B. conical, crimped, cubic C. bullet-shaped, filiform, cubic D. rod-shaped, crimped, cubic E. spherical, filiform, cubic Spore formation conditions: A. adverse external environment B. when ingested C. when exposed to sulfuric acid D. with volumetric oxygen access E. depends on the morphology of bacteria Bacteria without a cell wall: A. rickettsia B. mycoplasma C. spirochetes D. actinomycetes E. chlamydia The bacterial cell wall is characterized by: A. includes cholesterol B. contains chitin C. consists of a bilipid layer D. includes a complex biopolymer - peptidoglycan E. consists of individual protein subunits - capsomeres Peritrichous are bacteria that have: A. flagella over the entire surface of the cell B. polar single flagella C. polar beams of flagella D. single polar flagellum E. flagella on both sides The purpose of applying Gram stain: A. identification of flagella, determines mobile activity B. difference of gram-negative bacteria from gram-positive C. identification of protoplasts, spheroplasts, L-form bacteria, D. detection of viruses in the patient’s material E. used to identify fungi Fixation of a smear made from a microbial culture is carried out:  A. in the Nikiforov mixture B. with acetone C. in flame burner D. in methylene alcohol E. in hydrochloric acid The morphology of bacteria is: A. ability to dye with aniline dyes B. feature of growth in nutrient medium C. relation to air composition D. the ability to ferment carbohydrates E. size, shape, nature of arrangement To study the morphology of bacteria in a colored state, use: A. luminescent microscope B. phase contrast microscopy C. immersion lens D. dry lens E. dark field of view The method of studying bacteria in a living state: A. simple coloring B. according to Neisser C. according to Burri D. complex coloring E. "hanging drop" The function of the cell wall: A. energetic B. defense C. participates in metabolism D. participates in breathing E. participates in reproduction The following reagents are used for Gram stain: A. hydrogen peroxide B. vesuvin C. crystal violet D. azur-eosin E. methylene blue A nucleoid is: A. accumulation of ribosomes B. information RNA C. single-stranded DNA D. double-stranded DNA molecule E. fragmented RNA One of the tasks of medical microbiology is A. overcoming antibiotic resistance of bacteria B. obtaining microorganisms for the purification of petroleum products C. obtaining genetically modified food D. study of intestinal microflora in animals E. development of a vaccine for cattle The main functions of the cytoplasmic membrane: A. carries out transport of nutrients into the cell B. gives a certain form to bacteria C. does not form mesosomes D. protects the cell E. does not contain respiratory chains While microscopying smear, stained by India ink method. What can be seen: A. chaotic mobility of bacteria B. the process of sporulation C. gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria D. elementary and reticular bodies of chlamydia E. colorless capsules on a dark background Gram stain: filter paper impregnated with crystal violet was placed on a fixed smear, then what will you do: A. washing with water B. discoloration with alcohol C. fixed with iodine solution D. fuchsin stain E. microscopy A laboratory technician discovered a spherical purple colored bacteria, arranged in clusters, during microscopy of a smear from the sputum of a patient with pneumonia stained by the Gram method. Indicate which microorganisms have these characteristics: A. E.coli B. Tuberculosis C. Staphylococci D. Spirochete E. Mold fungus In a stained sputum smear of a patient with tuberculosis, red slightly curved rods were found against the background of fibrin filaments, other microorganisms in blue. Specify coloring method: A. Gram B. Neisser C. Burri-Hins D. Ziehl-Neelsen  E. Albert Acid resistance of microorganisms depends on: A. with the presence of a nucleic acid B. with the presence of fatty-wax substances in the cell wall C. with the presence of a polysaccharide capsule D. with the presence of intracellular inclusions in the cytoplasm E. with the presence carbohydrates When preparing a smear, the researcher applied a drop of sodium chloride to a glass slide and introduced a bacterial culture into it, dried it, and fixed it on Bunsen burner. Microscopy did not detect bacteria. Indicate the reason: A. distilled water was used B. after fixation, the bacteria dissolved in sodium chloride C. the wrong way to fix the smear D. microscopy was performed without using immersion oil E. bacteria were not stained Significance of immersion microscopy system: A. distorts ray refraction B. increases the resolution ability of the microscope C. the refractive index of immersion oil is close to the refractive index of air D. the same refractive index of oil and glass E. the different refractive index of oil and glass Divisions of the prokaryotic kingdom: A. aerobes and anaerobes B. lactose negative and lactose positive C. photobacteria and scotobacteria D. heterotrophs and autotrophs E. eukaryotes and viruses The purpose of the bacterioscopic diagnostic method is: A. smear preparation and microscopy B. isolation of pure culture C. identification of the selected culture D. infection of experimental animals E. determination of antigenic structure What coloring method is used to identify the capsule: A. Ziehl-Neelsen B. Neisser C. Gram D. Burri-Hins E. Romanovsky-Giemsa What coloring method is used to detect volutin grains: A. Ziehl-Neelsen  B. Burri-Hins C. Neisser D. Gram E. Romanovsky-Giemsa The purpose of the bacteriological diagnostic method is: A. smear preparation and microscopy B. allergic test of the selected culture C. infection of experimental animals D. determination of antigenic structure E. isolation of pure culture and identification Pure culture is: A. a collection of bacteria of the same species B. a collection of bacteria of the same family C. a collection of viruses and bacteria of different species D. a collection of bacteria of two species E. a collection of bacteria of the same genus The thermostat uses: A. to grow microorganisms B. to sterilize laboratory dishes C. to sterilize surgical instruments D. to sterilize nutrient media E. to strengthen spore formation of bacteria Who suggested the use of the bacteriological method (isolation of pure culture): A. L.Pasteur B. I.Mechnikov C. R.Koch D. A.van-Levenguk E. C.Ebert On yolk-salt agar can be distinguished: A. enterobacteria B. staphylococci C. streptococci D. mycobacteria E. rickettsia Saccharolytic activity is determined: A. on bismuth-sulfite agar B. on blood agar C. on Hiss medium D. on blood-tellurite agar E. on serum agar Elective media:  A. blood agar B. meat-pepton agar C. Endo medium D. yolk-salt agar E. meat-pepton broth Transport of nutrients into the cell without a carrier according to the concentration gradient is called: A. passive diffusion B. facilitated diffusion C. active transport D. translocation E. osmosis The transport of nutrients into the cell against the concentration gradient occurs due to: A. passive diffusion B. facilitated diffusion C. active transport D. translocation E. osmosis The transport of nutrients into the cell according to the concentration gradient with the participation of permeases is called: A. passive diffusion B. facilitated diffusion C. active transport D. translocation E. osmosis Enzymes released into the environment are called: A. exoenzymes B. endoenzymes C. lyases D. ligases E. hydrolases The substrate for saccharolytic enzymes are: A. lipids B. proteins C. hydrogen peroxide D. carbohydrates E. amino acids Using the energy of sunlight is typical for: A. autotrophs B. phototrophs C. heterotrophs D. chemotrophs  E. metotrophs Select differential diagnostic media: A. MPA and blood agar B. Rapopport and glycerin mixture C. Mac Conkey and alkaline agar D. Leffler medium and serum agar E. Endo and Hiss A set of differential-diagnostic media used for the isolation of enterobacteriaceae: A. meat-peptone agar, sugar broth, Levin B. blood agar, yolk-salt agar, serum agar C. alkaline agar, bile broth, selenite broth D. Endo, Mac Conkey, bismuth-sulfite agar E. Roux, Leffler medium and serum agar The main method of reproduction of bacteria: A. sporulation B. mitosis C. meiosis D. binary division E. fragmentation Growth factors for bacteria include: A. isotonic sodium chloride solution B. sulfuric acid C. vitamins D. high oxygen concentration E. antibiotics Which group of bacteria can be classified according to temperature: A. auxotrophy B. autotrophs C. anaerobes D. eukaryotes E. mesophiles Obligate anaerobe: A. botulism causative agent B. diphtheria causative agent C. scarlet fever D. causative agent of brucellosis E. plague causative agent Obligate anaerobes: A. need free oxygen B. have the enzyme superoxide dismutase C. in the presence of oxygen die  D. form catalase E. grows on serum agar Types of bacterial respiration: A. chemical and physical B. aerobic and anaerobic C. chemical and biological D. oxidative and reducing E. physical and biological Facultative anaerobes grow: A. only in oxygen nutrient medium environment B. in oxygen-free nutrient medium environment C. in the presence of inert gases D. in the presence of carbon dioxide E. in oxygen and oxygen-free nutrient medium environment The cultural properties of bacteria are: A. the ability to be stained B. biochemical activity C. the antigenic composition D. growth property on nutrient media E. form of the bacterial cell The bacteriological method of research is: A. preparation of smear B. infection of animals C. preparation of the vaccine D. determination of immune status E. the isolation of the pure culture The colony is: A. accumulation of one microbial cell on a nutrient medium B. factor of pathogenicity of microorganisms C. the increase in the size of bacterial cells D. sporulation E. capsule formation Two-component bacterial enzymes consist of: A. protein and lipopolysaccharide B. protein and DNA C. protein and coenzyme D. protein and carbohydrate E. protein and peptidoglycan One of the functions of bacterial pigments is: A. high temperature protection B. protection from UV rays  C. low temperature protection D. protect bacterial morphology E. protection from antibiotics Bacteria that synthesize growth factors themselves: A. auxotrophs B. prototrophs C. heterotrophs D. microaerophiles E. saprophytes Bacteria that require the presence of a growth factor in the nutrient medium: A. auxotrophs B. prototrophs C. heterotrophs D. parasites E. autotrophs Methods for growing strict anaerobes include: A. histological, chemical, biological B. therapeutic, prophylactic, radiation C. physical, chemical, radiation D. physical, chemical, biological E. innovative, biochemical, natural Nutrient media are divided by origin: A. domestic, foreign B. universal, special C. sterile, non-sterile D. liquid, dense E. natural, artificial Anaerobic jar is commonly used to grow: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Klebsiella spp. C. Clostridium tetani D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Streptococcus pyogenes Obligate aerobes: A. they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen B. they may even die on exposure to oxygen C. grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen D. they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%) E. does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source Obligate anaerobes: A. they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen  B. they may even die on exposure to oxygen C. grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen D. they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%) E. does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source Facultative anaerobes: A. they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen B. they may even die on exposure to oxygen C. grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen D. they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%) E. does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source Microaerophiles are called microorganisms: A. they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen B. they may even die on exposure to oxygen C. grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen D. they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%) E. does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source Selective media: A. contain substances that inhibit all but a few types of bacteria and facilitate the isolation of a particular species B. contains substances which help to distinguish differing characteristics of bacteria C. contain an indicator which changes colour when a bacterium grows in them D. some substances are incorporated in the liquid medium which have a stimulating effect on the bacteria to be grown E. used to isolate auxotrophic species of bacteria Differential nutrient media: A. allow you to select certain types of bacteria while suppressing the growth of others B. allow to distinguish some types of bacteria from others by biochemical activity C. allow you to get the growth of different types of bacteria D. used to isolate auxotrophic species of bacteria E. used to highlight prototrophic bacteria Device for cultivation of obligate anaerobes: A. anaerobic jar B. centrifuge C. oven D. Krotov's apparatus E. water bath Biological method for cultivating obligate anaerobes: A. Fortner method B. Burri-Hins method C. Koch method D. Gram method E. Morozov's method Chemical method for cultivating obligate anaerobes: A. uses pyrogallol to absorb oxygen B. uses reducing enzymes C. uses oxidative enzymes D. uses a bacterial culture of aerobes E. uses temperate bacteriophages Method for isolating a pure culture of aerobic bacteria A. Burri-Hins method B. Castellani method C. Streak culture method D. Gram method E. Morozov's method Method for isolating a pure culture of aerobic bacteria A. Burri-Hins method B. Pour plate culture method C. Castellani method D. Gram method E. Robertson method The methods of cultivating obligate anaerobes include: A. cultivation on Robertson’s cooked meat B. cultivation in blood agar C. cultivation under radiation D. cultivation in a CO2 incubator E. cultivation with O2 under pressure Day 1: Isolation of a pure culture of aerobic bacteria: A. inoculates pathological material on meat-peptone agar B. inoculates pathological material into meat-peptone broth C. studies cultural properties of microbe D. isolation a pure culture of microbe E. specifies antibiotic susceptibility of microbe 95.Day 2: Isolation of a pure culture of aerobic bacteria: A. inoculates pathological material on meat-peptone agar B. inoculates pathological material into meat-peptone broth C. studies cultural properties of microbe D. isolation a pure culture of microbe E. specifies antibiotic susceptibility of microbe Day 3: Isolation of a pure culture of aerobic bacteria: A. inoculate a pure culture on Hiss medium B. inoculates pathological material on meat-peptone agar C. inoculates pathological material into meat-peptone broth D. studies cultural properties of microbe  E. specifies antibiotic susceptibility of microbe Day 1: pure culture isolation of anaerobic bacteria: A. inoculates material into Robertson’s cooked meat medium B. inoculates on blood or sugar agars C. inoculates a pure culture on Hiss medium D. specifies antibiotic susceptibility E. studies cultural properties of anaerobic microbe Day 2: pure culture isolation of anaerobic bacteria: A. inoculates material into Robertson’s cooked meat medium B. inoculates on blood or sugar agars C. inoculates a pure culture on Hiss medium D. specifies antibiotic susceptibility E. studies cultural properties of anaerobic microbe Sterilization is: A. acquisition of diagnostic antigens of the bacterium B. preparation of therapeutic serums C. complete destruction of the microorganism D. vaccine preparation E. method of culturing bacteria The fight against insects that transmit infectious diseases is called: A. disinfection B. deratization C. disinsection D. sterilization E. pasteurization The struggle with rodents, the source of pathogens of infectious diseases, is called: A. disinsection B. deratization C. disinfection D. sterilization E. pasteurization Antiseptics is: A. a set of measures aimed at the destruction of bacteria on damaged or intact areas of the skin and mucous membrane B. a set of measures aimed at preventing the introduction of microorganisms from the environment into the tissues of the human body C. set of measures aimed at disinfecting environmental objects D. a set of measures aimed at providing security E. substances that selectively inhibit the growth and development of infectious foci in the human body Sterilisation is: A. complete destruction of spore and vegetative forms under the influence of biological factors B. complete destruction of spore forms under the influence of chemicals (lysol, chloramine) C. the destruction of only vegetative forms D. complete destruction of spore and vegetative forms under the influence of chemical and physical factors E. complete destruction of vegetative forms under the influence of chemicals (lysol, chloramine) Disinfection by moist heat at temperature below 100ºC (temperature is 63ºC for 30 minutes or 72ºC for 15-20 seconds followed by rapid cooling) is termed called: A. tyndallization B. pasteurization C. autoclaving D. calcination E. dry heat Steam sterilization at 100°C for 20 minutes on three successive days is known as: A. tyndallization B. pasteurization C. inspissation D. antiseptics E. sterilisation Steam Sterilization Under Pressure: A. produced in Pasteur furnaces B. sterilization is carried out fractionally C. is produced in autoclaves D. sterilize culture media E. material is heated at t 50-65°C Which of the following scientists is considered the "Father of Chemotherapy"? A. P.Ehrlich B. A.Fleming C. S.Waxman D. U.Flory E. R.Koch The sensitivity of a microorganism to antibiotics is determined: A. in the agglutination reaction B. in the precipitation reaction C. in the disc-diffusion method D. in Grace titration E. in Appelman titration Find a method to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic: A. hanging method  B. serial dilution method C. disc-diffusion method D. Grace method E. Appelman method Antibiotics produced by fungi: A. tetracycline B. gentamicin C. nystatin D. erythromycin E. penicillin Manufacturer of penicillin: A. bacillus B. micrococci C. protozoa D. mold fungus E. actinomycetes β-lactam antibiotic: A. cephalosporin B. rifampicin C. nystatin D. gentamicin E. tobramycin The significance of the bactericidal effect of an antibiotic: A. microbe growth and reproduction is inhibited B. destroys microorganisms C. activates the mutation D. activates the growth and reproduction of microbes E. strengthens the body's defense mechanisms The significance of the bacteriostatic effect of an antibiotic: A. microbe growth and reproduction is inhibited B. destroys microorganisms C. activates the mutation D. activates the growth and reproduction of microbes E. strengthens the body's defense mechanisms An antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis: A. tetracycline B. levomycetin C. cephalosporin D. rifampicin E. polymyxin Scientist who founded the science of antibiotics:  A. Ehrlich B. Monasein C. Pasteur D. Fleming E. Koch When determining sensitivity to antibiotics, a zone of growth delays is determined around the disc. This means: A. culture sensitivity B. protein denaturation C. no toxicity D. increased membrane permeability E. stimulation of cell metabolism The mechanism of microbial resistance to antibiotics is associated with: A. genetic recombinations in genes B. loss of cell wall permeability for antibiotic C. transformation of the active form of antibiotics into inactive D. change of antibiotics in the conditions of the macroorganism E. the loss of flagella by bacteria on antibiotic media Beta-lactam antibiotics have a mechanism of action: A. inhibit of the integrity of the membrane B. suppression of protein synthesis in cells C. violation of the synthesis of nucleic acids D. disrupt the formation of spores E. inhibit of the synthesis of peptidoglycan cell wall The predominant microorganism in the vagina of a healthy woman: A. clostridia B. gonococci C. trichomonas D. Candida fungi E. lactobacilli The main microbes (95-99%) normally found in the large intestine are: A. bifidumbacteria and bacteroids B. staphylococci and streptococci C. clostridia and enterobacteria D. Escherichia coli and other enterobacteria E. Candida fungi and staphylococci Normally there are no microorganisms in the body: A. larynx, esophagus, stomach, skin, vagina B. blood, brain, lungs, heart, bladder C. vagina, small and large intestines D. skin, mucosa, small intestine E. mucous membrane, esophagus, stomach Choose the correct definition of "dysbiosis": A. the introduction of pathogenic microorganisms B. the presence in the intestines of lactic acid bacteria C. violation of the ecological balance of normal microflora D. detection of E.coli in the intestine E. intestinal detection of bacteroids A change in the microbial landscape with dysbiosis manifests itself in: A. decrease in body resistance B. genetic determination C. changes in the properties of the nucleic acid of a bacterium D. symbionts appeared in organs where they normally do not occur E. the disappearance of some symbiotes from the microbial landscape Intestinal dysbiosis can be shown as: A. increase the number of bifidumbacteria B. a decrease in the amount of residual flora C. the disappearance of yeast fungi Candida D. increase in the number of staphylococci E. the appearance of lactobacilli Intestinal dysbiosis can be characterized by: A. a decrease in the number of coccal flora B. a decrease in the number of bacteria of the genus Proteus C. the disappearance of yeast fungi Candida D. the appearance of lactobacilli E. a decrease in the number of bifidobacterium and lactobacilli To isolate bacteria of the Escherichia coli group, use: A. sowing on bile agar B. sowing on yolk-salt agar C. sowing on blood agar D. sowing on Endo medium E. sowing on Saburo medium What kind of drugs are used to correct dysbiosis: A. antibiotics B. eubiotics C. sulfonamides D. vitamins E. antiviral Which of these drugs refers to eubiotics: A. penicillin B. nistatinum C. bifidumbacteria D. amphotericin  E. m-protein For specific treatment of dysbacteriosis can be used: A. lactobacterin B. akmolin C. rimantadine D. penicillin E. acyclovir The microflora of the upper respiratory tract is represented by all of the following microorganisms, except: A. clostridium B. diphteroid C. streptococci D. staphylococci E. Neisseria Normally does not contain microorganisms: A. throat B. intestine C. bronchus D. urogenital tract E. stomach The normal microflora of the urinary tract is represented by all of the following microorganisms, except: A. mycobacteria B. bacteroids C. chlamydias D. staphylococcus E. fusobacteria The microflora of the large intestine is represented by all of the following microorganisms, except: A. bifidumbacteria B. diphteroid C. bacteroid D. lactobacillus E. fusobacterium A significant part of the normal oral microflora is represented by: A. bifidumbacteria B. streptococci C. enterococcus D. mycobacterium E. chlamydia The functions of E.coli in the intestinal microflora include all, except:  A. production of vitamin E, K B. antagonistic to pathogenic enterobacteria C. enzymatic activity D. immunostimulating E. antiviral activity The normal intestinal microflora includes: A. Brucella B. Salmonella C. Shigella D. Lactobacillus E. Corynebacteria Tissues and organs of a healthy person, free of microorganisms: A. saliva, leather B. small and colon intestine C. stomach, vulva D. nose, oropharynx E. lungs, inner ear The microorganism, which is one of the indicators of intestinal dysbiosis: A. bifidumbacterium B. enterococci C. lactobacillus D. staphylococcus aureus E. lactose-positive Escherichia coli Basic forms of symbiosis: A. polymorphism B. tropism C. mutualism D. metamorphism E. conjugation Symbiosis is: A. mutually beneficial coexistence of microbes B. populations that have neither stimulating nor suppressive effects on each other C. suppression of vital activity of one population of another D. cohabitation of pathogens E. form of relations between normal microflora and macroorganism Mutualism is: A. microorganisms feed at the expense of the host, but do not harm it B. mutually beneficial coexistence of micro organisms and macroorganisms the existence of microbes at the expense of the host causing harm to the latter C. antagonistic relationship between micro organisms and macroorganisms D. neutral relationship to microorganisms and macroorganisms Commensalism is: A. microorganisms feed at the expense of the host but do not harm it B. mutually beneficial coexistence of microorganisms with macroorganisms C. the existence of microbes at the expense of the host causing him harm D. intracellular coexistence of microorganisms E. antagonistic relations between micro organisms and macroorganisms Parasitism, as a form of symbiosis: A. one organism lives at the expense of the other without harming it B. one organism lives at the expense of another, causing harm to it C. two organisms are connected to each other with mutual benefit D. two organisms are not connected to each other, causing harm to each other E. nonobligate intracellular existence The purpose of sanitary-bacteriological research of objects of the external environment is: A. the study of methods of research objects B. study of pathogenicity of microflora C. determination of antibiotic resistance D. detection of lysogenic bacteria E. determenation of epidemic safety of objects of the external environment Soil sanitary indicator microorganisms: A. M. leprae B. V. cholerae C. Cl.perfringens D. St. pyogenes E. Corynebacterium Sanitary indicator microbe that determines the quality of water: A. Vibrio cholera B. Enterococcus C. Clostridium perfringens D. Escherichia coli E. Streptococcus Determines the coli-titer of water: A. in the Kessler medium B. sowing on meat-pepton agar C. in the Wilson-Blair medium D. by sedimentation method E. with the membrane filter method Drinking water is of good quality if: A. total number of microbes in 1 ml of water does not exceed 100 B. total number of microbes in 1 ml of water - from 100 to 500 C. total number of microbes in 1 ml of water - 500 to 1000 D. there are no bacteria in the water E. the total number of microbes in 1 ml of water does not exceed 1000 Microbial number of water: A. the number of pathogenic microbes in the material B. the smallest volume of water in which E.coli bacteria is found C. the amount of E.coli bacteria in 1 liter of water D. the number of bacteria in 1 ml of water E. determination of perfringence titer Method for determining microflora of air: A. method of Drygalsky B. method of Gouldy C. serial solution method D. sedimentation method E. all methods Sanitary indicator microorganism of Air: A. corynebacterium B. staphylococcus C. influenza virus D. Ps.aeruginosa E. Mycobacterium Sanitary-indicative microbe of air for quality assessment: A. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococci haеmolyticus B. Vibrio cholera and B.pertussis C. Staphylococcus aureus and Cl.perfringence D. Staphylococcus aureus and S.tyhpi E. Streptococci haеmolyticus and E.coli Infectious disease is characterized by: A. by cycle period B. no contagiousness C. same incubation period D. no prodromal period E. decreases phagocytosis Forms of infection depending on the spread of microbes through the blood: A. acute B. focal C. septicemia D. chronic E. exogenous Forms of infection: A. mutualism B. commensalism C. synergism D. parasitism  E. carrier Reinfection: A. re-infection with bacteria of another species B. re-infection with the same pathogen until the elimination of the primary disease C. re-infection with the same pathogen after recovery D. possible due to normal microflora E. infection with bacteria that secrete endotoxin Super infection: A. re-infection of the same pathogen after recovery B. infection with the pathogen secreting exotoxin C. occurs in diseases with persistent immunity D. re-infection with the same pathogen until the elimination of the primary disease E. infection by several pathogens Septicaemia is: A. a condition in which bacteria circulate and actively multiply in the bloodstream B. defined as presence of bacteria in blood without any multiplication C. the pathogen with blood flow is introduced into organs and tissues, where it multiplies D. re-infection with the same pathogen after complete recovery E. a condition when bacterial endotoxin circulates in the blood Necessary conditions for the development of an infectious process: A. No pathogenic microbe B. Symbiosis of macroorganism with normal microflora a. Introduction of the pathogen into the macroorganism C. Avirulent phage penetration D. Normal state of the environment Characterization of the incubation period of the disease: A. Symptoms of intoxication are noted, anaphylactic shock develops B. Excessive release of pathogen into the environment C. Specific symptoms of disease begin to appear D. Duration can be from several hours to several weeks, months, years E. Immediately applied vaccines and sera The virulence of the microorganism: A. phenotypic sign B. genotypic sign C. is defined by attenuation D. is measured in micrometers E. antigen-antibody complex Virulence of bacteria due to: A. the presence of spores B. adhesion and colonization C. the presence of the lactase enzyme  D. manifested in the presence of cilia E. the presence of lysosomes Invasion factors are: A. fibrinolysin B. hyaluronidase C. lipase D. catalase E. lipoproteins Pathogenicity enzymes include: A. catalase B. transferase C. reductase D. oxidoreductase E. coagulase Adhesion factors of gram-positive bacteria: A. Lipopolysaccharides B. Hyaluronidase C. Lipoproteins D. Teichoic acid E. Catalase Protein toxins: A. Endotoxins B. Lipopolysaccharides C. Cytotoxins D. Peptidoglycan E. Thymine Chemical nature of endotoxin is: A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Protein C. Carbohydrate D. Oxigen E. Vitamin Chemical nature of exotoxin is: A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Carbohydrate C. Protein D. Oxigen E. Vitamin The main features of natural (natural) immunity: A. after vaccination B. appears in life  C. relative D. is not specific E. heredity Artificial passive immunity: A. Appears after vaccination B. Appears after serum injection C. Inherited as IgM D. Serves as a mechanical barrier E. Transmitted through mother's milk Barrier function of the skin: A. Antibody production B. Species properties C. More active in childhood D. Possesses bactericidal properties E. Antagonistic effect Barrier function of the mucous membrane: A. Mechanical barrier B. Antagonistic effect C. Action of Complement D. Observed during vaccination E. Has a species properties Protective role of normal microflora: A. mechanical barrier B. antagonistic effect C. barrier-fixing D. bactericidal action of lysozyme E. absent in humans Cellular protective factors of natural immunity: A. Complement B. Properdin C. Phagocytosis D. Antibodies E. Leucines Lysozyme: A. Lipoprotein B. Carbon C. Enzyme murominidase D. Activates phagocytosis E. Inhibits the activity of normal microflora Who proposed the cellular theory of immunity: A. Koch  B. Pasteur C. Ivanovsky D. Mechnikov E. D'Errel Microphages: A. Erythrocytes B. Monocytes C. Kupffer cells D. Neutrophils E. Reticular cells Motile macrophages: A. reticular cells B. endothelial cells C. red bone marrow stroma D. neutrophils E. monocytes Fixed macrophages: A. Kupffer cells B. Blood monocytes C. Neutrophils D. Cells of the lymph E. Basophils One of the stage of phagocytosis: A. paralisis B. chemotaxis C. diapedesis of leukocytes D. hemolysis of red blood cells E. integration on chromosome Incomplete phagocytosis occurs during what infection: A. in typhoid fever B. in gonorrhea C. in diphtheria D. in pyelonephritis E. in cholera Lysozyme is produced: A. microorganisms B. higher plants C. in the cells of protozoa D. tissues of higher animals E. chemically synthesized The main function of the immune system:  A. performs barrier-fixing function B. antagonistic action C. changes the permeability of cell walls D. increases local sensitivity E. protect body from antigens and antibody production Attachment of the microorganisms or foreign material to the phagocytic cell. Stages of what? A. cytolysis B. hemolysis C. lysogeny D. phagocytosis E. agglutination Phagocytosis Intensity: A. the percentage of phagocytes capable of capturing microorganisms B. higher serum dilution guaranteeing C. intracellular digestion D. average number of bacteria phagocytosed by one leukocyte E. the process of active absorption by specialized cells of the body What is the name of the immunity that results from a specific infection? A. artificial active immunity B. artificial passive immunity C. natural passive immunity D. natural active immunity E. innate immunity Acquired artificial passive immunity is formed by: A. after the administration of gamma globulin B. after measles infection C. given to baby with mother's milk D. after vaccination E. after toxoid injection Acquired Natural Passive Immunity: A. given to baby with mother's milk B. after the administration of gamma globulin C. after measles infection D. after vaccination E. after toxoid injection Neurotoxins are formed by: A. Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes E. Clostridium perfringens and Pseudomonas aeruginosa Enterotoxins affect cells in the: A. central nervous system B. genitourinary tract C. gastrointestinal tract D. respiratory tract E. muscles Which of the following virulence factors allows bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by leukocytes? A. cell membrane B. cell wall C. pili D. capsule E. spore Which of the following can cause toxic shock syndrome? A. S.aureus B. Cl.perfringens C. M.tuberculosis D. N. gonorrhoeae E. M. pneumoniae The main forms of the immune response include all of the following, except: A. antibody synthesis B. formation of immunological memory C. development of immunological tolerance D. positive chemotaxis E. hypersensitivity Which immunoglobulin class can pass through placenta? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD Which is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD Characteristics of IgA: A. is found in milk, saliva, and urine B. dimer in blood serum C. responsible for local immunity D. passes through the placenta E. the main class of immunoglobulins Which immunoglobulin class has maximum concentration in the human body? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD Which immunoglobulin class is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD Presence of which immunoglobulin class in serum is a useful indicator for diagnosis of congenital infections? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE E. IgD Function of determinant groups of antigen: A. involves microbial digestion B. activates phagocytosis C. develops the formation of antibodies D. binds to the active centers of antibodies E. changes the dispersion of serum immunoglobulins Molecular structure of antibodies A. one long heavy and two short light chains B. two long heavy and one short light chains C. two long heavy and two short light chains D. one long heavy and one short light chains E. three long heavy chains What does the H antigen of bacteria include? A. macrocapsule B. flagella C. spore D. inclusion E. cell wall To isolate the O antigen, a bacterial culture is processed by: A. with formalin B. with acetone C. with trypsin  D. with ethanol E. with high temperature Autoantigens: A. antigens by which different individuals differ among themselves B. common antigens found in representatives of various types of microbes C. protein species-specific antigens D. own body antigens that cause the formation of antibodies E. protein with unexpressed tissue organ specificity Which of the following is least likely to be involved in cell-mediated immunity (CMI)? A. cytokines B. macrophages C. T cells D. phagocytosis E. antibodies Secrets antibodies: A. basophils B. macrophages C. plasma cells D. T cells E. eosinophils The class of immunoglobulins is distinguished from each other: A. resistance to the infectious agent depending on the complex of factors B. depends on antigen specificity C. with no determinant groups D. depends on the synthesis mechanism E. depending on the sedimentation constant CD4 antigen is present on: A. T-supressor cells, Killer cells B. B cells, T cells, K-cells C. T-supressor cells, T-lymphocytes D. B cells, Natural killer cells E. T-helper cells, Macrophages, Monocytes CD8 antigen is present on: A. T-helper cells B. T-supressor cells C. Natural killer cells D. Macrophages E. Monocytes Antibody formation: A. occurs in lymphoid tissue B. possible with gammaglobulinemia  C. sharply increases with antibiotic therapy D. occurs without the participation of the antigen E. independent of the T lymphocytes To enhance the immunogenicity of the vaccine, it adds to its composition: A. Adjuvant B. Antibiotic C. Bacteriophage D. Serum E. Probiotic Vaccines with high immunogenicity: A. toxoid B. chemical C. attenuated D. inactivated E. all have the same immunogenicity The doctor recommended vaccination against tuberculosis. Find the drug you use for specific prevention: A. BCG B. Antitoxic serum C. DPT D. Tubazid E. Tuberculin Chemical vaccines: A. prepared from microbes treated with heat and formalin. B. freeze dried C. fully mature antigenic complex D. forms antitoxic immunity E. contains a whole microbial cell The advantages of live vaccines over killed vaccines: A. low immunogenicity, forms not very intense immunity B. high immunogenicity, forms a very intense immunity C. participates in serological reactions D. forms a natural immunity to disease E. derived from microbes and their toxins Strains used to produce vaccines must have: A. enzymatic activity B. anaerobic properties C. high immunogenicity D. high virulence E. sensitizing activity Diagnostic serums are used for:  A. identification of microorganisms B. indications of microorganisms C. preventions D. treatments E. detection of microbes in the external environment The basis for obtaining live vaccines is: A. attenuation B. phenol treatment C. drying D. freezing E. isolation of serum Toxoids are used to create immunity to the pathogen: A. tuberculosis B. whooping cough C. polio D. flu E. tetanus Infectious allergy: A. immediate type of hypersensitivity B. delayed type of hypersensitivity C. develops when sera are introduced D. develops when the antigen is introduced for the first time E. basically there is a humoral response Observed at the site of allergen entry: A. burn B. rash C. suppuration D. infiltrate E. necrosis Hemolytic serum: A. Used in treatment B. Lyses erythrocytes without additional components C. Contains normal antibodies D. Causes phagocytosis E. Received during immunization with erythrocytes A gel precipitation reaction is used: A. study of antibiotic resistance B. determination of toxicity C. titration of antitoxic serums D. determination of blood group E. is defining the complement level Negative result of complement binding reaction: A. hemolysis B. bacterial lysis C. stop hemolysis D. erythrocytes fall into the sediment E. bacteria adhere and granules appear What is needed to conduct an agglutination reaction with a known serum: A. complement B. hemolytic serum C. sheep erythrocyte D.lysozyme E. corpuscular antigen The precipitation reaction mechanism is associated with: A. precipitation of the complex soluble antigen antibody B. processes of diffusion and osmosis C. change in surface tension of bacteria D. structural cell wall E. microbial aggregation The neutralization reaction is based on the ability to: A. dissolve corpuscular antigen under the influence of specific antibodies B. cause leukocyte lysis C. changing the permeability of cell membranes D. antitoxic serum neutralize the lethal effect of the toxin E. compounds of the antigen and antibody complex with complement The basis of cytotoxic reactions is: A. accumulation of sensitized T-lymphocytes B. production of cytokines by T lymphocytes C. production of precipitating antibodies D. production of IgE E. release of mediators Immunofluorescence reaction is based on: A. permeability of cell membranes B. diffusion and osmosis processes C. changes in serum immunoglobulin intervals D. connection of antigens with specific antibodies labeled with fluorochrome E. somatic mutations of the macrophage nucleus under the influence of antigen The immunological characterization of the complement fixation reaction is based on: A. change in the dispersion of serum globulins B. change in surface tension of bacteria C. complement fixation by antigen-antibody complex D. antigen aggregation E. diffusion and osmosis processes The result of a positive complement fixation reaction: A. formation of sediment in the form of an "umbrella" B. formation of sediment in the form of an "button" C. bacterial lysis D. binding bacteria E. hemolysis The most sensitive reaction for detecting antibodies is: A. slide agglutination test B. neutralization test C. precipitation test D. enzyme linked immunosorbent assay E. immunoelectrophoresis Serological reactions are used for: A. therapy of infectious diseases B. prevention of infectious diseases C. diagnosis of infectious diseases D. determinations of enzymatic activity E. determinations of biochemical activity