Medical Microbiology Test Bank -1 PDF

Medical Microbiology test bank -1 (Chapter 1-6) 1. These substances include toxins and tissue-damaging enzymes: a. Adhesins. b. Aggressions. c. Impedin. d. Invasions. 2. The most important pathogenicity factors of Enterobacteriaceae a...

Medical Microbiology test bank -1 (Chapter 1-6) 1. These substances include toxins and tissue-damaging enzymes: a. Adhesins. b. Aggressions. c. Impedin. d. Invasions. 2. The most important pathogenicity factors of Enterobacteriaceae are as below except: a. Colonizing factors. b. Endotoxin. c. Invasions. d. Sepsis. 3. These microorganisms are nonpathogenic; their natural habitat is dead organic compounds: a. Commensals. b. Parasites. c. Pathogenicity. d. Saprophytes. 4. Invasion of a host organism by microorganisms, proliferation of the invading organisms, and host reaction a. Colonization. b. Contamination. c. Infection. d. Sepsis. 5. Community of microbes that live in and on an individual; can vary substantially between environmental sites and host niches in health and disease a. Microbiota. b. Microbiome. c. Prebiotic. d. Probiotic. 6. Aggregate collection of microbial genomes in normal microbial flora. a. Microbiota. b. Microbiome. c. Prebiotic. d. Probiotic. 7. Unicellular or metazoan organism living in or on an organism of another species (host) on the expense of the host a. Commensals. b. Parasites. c. Pathogenicity. d. Saprophytes. 8. Normal inhabitants of skin and mucosa; the normal flora is thus the total commensal population. a. Commensals. Page 1 of 12  b. Parasites. c. Pathogenicity. d. Saprophytes. 9. The postulates can be freely formulated as follows except: a. The microorganism must be found under conditions corresponding to the pathological changes. b. It must be possible to cause an identical disease with pure cultures of the pathogen. c. The pathogen must not occur within the framework of other diseases as an “accidental parasite.” d. The pathogen must occur within the framework of other diseases as an “accidental parasite.” 10. Sum of the disease-causing properties of a strain of a pathogenic species. a. Incubation period. b. Infection spectrum. c. Minimum infective dose. d. Virulence. 11. Time between infection and manifestation of disease symptoms; this specific disease characteristic can be measured in hours, days, weeks, or even years. a. Incubation period. b. Infection spectrum. c. Minimum infective dose. d. Mode of infection. 12. Smallest number of pathogens sufficient to cause an infection. a. Incubation period. b. Infection spectrum. c. Minimum infective dose. d. Mode of infection. 13. Pathway used by pathogen to invade host. a. Incubation period. b. Infection spectrum. c. Minimum infective dose. d. Mode of infection. 14. Infection arising from the colonizing flora. a. Endogenous infection. b. Exogenous infection. c. Local infection. d. Nosocomial infection. 15. Infection arising from invasion of host by microorganisms from sources external to it. a. Endogenous infection. b. Exogenous infection. c. Local infection. d. Nosocomial infection. Page 2 of 12 16. Infections acquired during hospitalization such as urinary tract infections, infections of the respiratory organs, wound infection, sepsis. a. Endogenous infection. b. Exogenous infection. c. Local infection. d. Nosocomial infection. 17. Infection that remains restricted to the portal of entry and surrounding area. a. Endogenous infection. b. Exogenous infection. c. Local infection. d. Nosocomial infection. 18. Gram-negative, oxidase-negative, non–lactose-fermenting motile bacteria are isolated from the urine of a woman with dysuria and frequency. Which bacterium is causing this disease? a. Escherichia coli b. Enterobacter aerogenes c. Proteus mirabilis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 19. How is bubonic plague transmitted? a. Faecal-oral route b. On fomites c. Sexual contact d. Zoonotic 20. Which of the following gram-negative, oxidase-negative bacilli isolated from the stool of a person with diarrhoea would yield a colorless colony on MacConkey agar? a. Enterobacter aerogenes b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Salmonella typhimurium 21. The virulence factor associated with enterohemorrhagic E. coli diarrhea resembles a virulence factor from which of the following bacteria? a. Enterobacter aerogenes b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Salmonella typhi d. Shigella dysenteriae 22. MacConkey-Sorbitol agar is useful for detecting which organism? a. Escherichia coli b. Shigella sonnei c. Salmonella enteric d. Vibrio cholerae 23. This group of gram-negative bacteria contains agents of important diseases such as gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, urinary tract infections, and bacterial pneumonia. a. Neisseriaceae b. Micrococcaceae Page 3 of 12  c. Vibrionaceae d. Enterobacteriaceae 24. Which bacterial family is best described as catalase-positive, oxidase-negative, gram- negative bacilli that are facultative anaerobes and reduce nitrates to nitrites? a. Enterobacteriaceae b. Pasteurellaceae c. Pseudomonadaceae d. Vibrionaceae 25. A sexually active 27-year-old man complains of a greenish-yellow discharge from his urethra and difficulty urinating. Gram-negative diplococci were seen on the Gram stain. Confirmation by culture requires plating on which of the following media? a. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar b. Middlebrook agar c. Mannitol salts agar d. Thayer-Martin agar 26. Collection and handling of specimens for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae should optimally include which of the following? a. Charcoal-treated nontoxic swabs b. Immediate inoculation to appropriate medium c. CO2-enriched atmosphere d. All of the above 27. Which genus is best described as oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci that are normal flora of the respiratory and other mucosal surfaces and often form diplococci? a. Haemophilus b. Stomatococcus c. Neisseria d. Staphylococcus 28. Which of the following laboratory characteristics distinguish Enterococcus from Streptococcus? a. Catalase b. Coagulase c. Optochin sensitivity d. Sensitivity to bile 29. Which bacterial species can be described as able to grow in 6.5% NaCl and 40% bile, part of the normal faecal flora of animals and humans, usually nonhemolytic, and a major cause of nosocomial infections? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 30. Which genus is best described as catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci that are facultative anaerobes and form chains? a. Streptococcus Page 4 of 12  b. Staphylococcus c. Micrococcus d. Enterococcus 31. Which resident human flora Staplococcus is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as cancer patients? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Staphylococcus lugdunensis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 32. Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.? a. 5% sheep blood agar b. Brain Heart Infusion agar c. Chocolate agar d. Nutrient agar 33. Which species of Staphylococcus is one of the most important human pathogens? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Staphylococcus lugdunensis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 34. In clinical isolates, the most likely identification of coagulase-positive, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that are penicillin resistant would be which of the following? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Staphylococcus lugdunensis d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 35. How is Bordetella pertussis infection prevented? a. Hand washing b. Heating foods c. Pasteurization d. Vaccination 36. Which genus is best described as catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci that are facultative anaerobes and form chains? a. Streptococcus b. Stomatococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Micrococcus 37. Development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with which of the following? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae Page 5 of 12 38. Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious and causes acute infection of the upper respiratory tract, is caused by which bacterium? a. Brucella b. Bordetella c. Pasteurella d. Francisella 39. Development of acute rheumatic fever and subsequent valvular heart disease are problems that may be encountered by patients infected with which of the following? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Streptococcus pneumoniae 40. Which genus of bacteria contains agents of important diseases such as rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, and exudative pharyngitis? a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. Micrococcus d. Enterococcus 41. Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as which of the following? a. β-Hemolytic b. A major cause of bacterial meningitis c. Often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule d. All of the above 42. Which of the following is NOT vancomycin-resistant? a. Pediococcus b. Streptococcus c. Leuconostoc d. Lactobacillus 43. Which bacterial species can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, β-hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and a producer of CAMP factor? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 44. A vancomycin-resistant S. aureus was isolated following a mixed infection with methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus. Which of the following procedures might explain the transfer of resistance from Enterococcus to S. aureus? a. Coagulation b. Conjugation c. Episomalization d. Lysogeny 45. The most common causes of septicemia and meningitis in newborns. Page 6 of 12  a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 46. The most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis. a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 47. Scalded skin syndrome: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Streptococcus pyogenes 48. Toxic-shock syndrome: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Streptococcus pyogenes 49. CNA agar to grow: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Enterobacter aerogenes c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Escherichia coli 50. Viridians streptococci: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Streptococcus faecalis 51. β-Hemolytic Streptococci a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Streptococcus mutans 52. Viridians streptococci except: a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Streptococcus mutans 53. Binds to receptors on the surface of endothelial cells, leukocytes, and platelets; upon entering the cells, the bacteria are protected from opsonization and phagocytosis: a. Immunoglobulin (Ig)A protease. b. Outer polysaccharide capsule, Page 7 of 12  c. Phosphorylcholine. d. Pneumolysis. 54. Cytotoxin binds to cholesterol in host cell wall and creates pores, destroying epithelial and phagocytic cells a. Immunoglobulin (Ig)A protease. b. Outer polysaccharide capsule, c. Phosphorylcholine. d. Pneumolysis. 55. Sinusitis and otitis media. a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Streptococcus faecalis 56. Non-spores, tolerant of a wide range of environmental conditions: extreme temperature (10–45 °C), pH (4.6–9.9), and high sodium chloride concentrations. a. Enterococcus faecium b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 57. Patients at increased risk include those hospitalized for prolonged periods and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics particularly cephalosporins. a. Enterococcus faecium b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 58. Catalase negative, L-pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR) positive, resistant to bile and optochin. a. Enterococcus faecium b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus agalactiae 59. A multidrug-resistant strains widely disseminated worldwide firstly observed in military hospitals during the Iraq and Afghanistan conflicts. a. Acinetobacter baumannii. b. Bordetella pertussis. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 60. Contagious meningitis that person-to-person spread with development can occur. a. Acinetobacter baumannii. b. Bordetella pertussis. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. Page 8 of 12 61. The best growth in media containing Blood or Serum, commonly Blood Agar medium, Chocolate Agar medium, grows best at 35 –36°C. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 62. New York city medium. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 63. Cell wall lipooligosaccharide (LOS) has endotoxin activity βLactamase mediates resistance to penicillin. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 64. Pilin protein mediates initial attachment to nonpiliated epithelial cells in the vagina, fallopian tube, and buccal cavity; interferes with neutrophil. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 65. Transmission is primarily by sexual contact, and carrier can be asymptomatic, particularly in women, facilitating transmission. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 66. Incidence of disease highest in people aged 15 to 24 years, blacks, residents of southeastern United States, and people who have multiple sexual encounters. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 67. Ophthalmia neonatorum. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. c. Enterococcus faecium d. Haemophilus influenzae. 68. Serogroups Y and W135 typically cause pneumonia. a. Bordetella pertussis. b. Neisseria meningitidis. Page 9 of 12  c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Haemophilus influenzae. 69. Highest incidence of disease is in children younger than 5 years (particularly infants