MCQs Practice Exam 3 - 2024 PDF

1 The most critical factor in defibrillation is: **a. The time from collapse to defibrillation.** b\. The skill of the AED responder. c\. The patient's previous cardiac history. d\. The type of defibrillator used. 2\. The AED will shock a patient: a\. With a sinus rhythm. b\. In asystole. **...

1 The most critical factor in defibrillation is: **a. The time from collapse to defibrillation.** b\. The skill of the AED responder. c\. The patient's previous cardiac history. d\. The type of defibrillator used. 2\. The AED will shock a patient: a\. With a sinus rhythm. b\. In asystole. **c. In ventricular fibrillation.** d\. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA). 3\. In the hypothermic patient you should limit the number of shocks to a maximum of: **a. 1.** b\. 2. c\. 3. d\. 4. 4\. When transporting a patient, a shock should be administered: a\. Only in a vehicle that is properly grounded. b\. Whenever the machine indicates shock necessary. **c. When the vehicle is stopped**. d\. When the vehicle is travelling at less than 20 km per hour. 5\. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing a pacemaker, place the electrode pads: a\. Directly on pacemaker. b\. Two inches away from pacemaker. c\. Within one inch of the pacemaker. **d. At least one inch away from pacemaker.** 6\. You have shocked a casualty and there are signs of circulation. You should: a\. Remove the AED from the scene. **b. Leave the AED attached to the casualty**. c\. Disconnect the cables from the AED. d\. Remove the pads from the chest. 7\. Burns that involve all layers of the skin are: a\. Superficial. b\. Partial thickness. **c. Full thickness**. d\. First degree. 8\. In determining the amount of body surface burned, the area of the palm of the hand represents \_\_\_\_ % of the body surface. **a. One** b\. Two c\. Five d\. Nine 9\. The most immediate serious complication associated with burns is: **a. Shock** b\. Infection c\. Scarring d\. Hypothermia 10\. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator when it bursts into flames. The caualty has a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the mouth and nose and both arms are reddened. You should classify this burn as: **a. Critical** b\. Superficial c\. Moderate d\. Minor 11\. An abrasion is: a\. A deep break in the skin involving significant bleeding. b\. Partial or complete loss of a body part. c\. The result of a sharp object driven through soft tissue. **d. A scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis.** 12\. A soft tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object is called: a\. A laceration. b\. An avulsion. **c. A contusion.** d\. A concussion. 13\. The acronym SHARP refers to: a\. The assessment of the severity of a wound injury. b\. Signs and symptoms used to determine the need to transport. c\. The depth of a penetrating wound and potential damage. **d. Signs of infection as assessed in wound injuries.** 14\. Responders involved in wound management should consider: a\. Wounds should be thoroughly flushed to prevent infection. **b. All open wounds are contaminated to some degree.** c\. The risk of infection continues until the wound is dressed and bandaged. d\. Gloves should be worn if you suspect the patient may be ill. 15\. Tetanus is a condition: a\. That involves specific infection in the lower jaw. b\. That only occurs in the third world. c\. That is caused by a virus **d. That can be prevented by immunization.** 16\. Which one of the following factors increases the risk of life --threatening injury: **a. High velocity.** b\. Low velocity. c\. High density. d\. Low energy. 17\. Which action is part of first aid for a nosebleed? a\. Place an ice-pack on the back of the neck. b\. Plug the nose with gauze. **c. Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft parts of the nose.** d\. Lean the casualty backwards in a sitting postion. 18\. To prevent further contamination and infection of a wound, you should cleanse the surrounding skin by: a\. Swabbing in circular motions around the wound. b\. Wiping lightly over the edges of the wound. c\. Swabbing from one side of the wound to the other. **d. Wiping away from the edges of the wound.** 19\. The body loses heat in a variety of ways including: **a. radiation, conduction, evaporation and respiration.** b\. radiation, refrigeration, evaporation and conduction. c\. conduction, convection, evaporation and refrigeration. d\. submersion, convection, radiation and respiration. 20\. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand with deep frostbite you should ensure that: a\. The patient sees a doctor no later than 48 hrs after thawing **b. There is no danger of refreezing** c\. Adequate pain relief medication is available d\. Capillary refill takes no longer than 15 seconds 21\. You have been called for an 81 year old unconscious male patient. He is in his living room. Despite the hot day, he is overly dressed. He is flushed and dry, extremely hot to touch. You suspect: a\. Heat exhaustion. b\. Stroke. c\. Hyperglycemia. **d. Heatstroke.** 22\. Body mechanics refers to: **a. Positioning and movement of the body** b\. Number of rescuers needed to move a patient c\. A type of rescue carry d\. A special device to lift heavy loads 23\. You are alone and must remove a casualty with a suspected spinal injury from a very hazardous situation. You should a\. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise. b\. Keep his body rigid, support his head and neck and roll him away from the scene. c\. Tie his legs together and drag him feet first. **d. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders, support his head and neck, and drag him** **lengthwise.** **24.** To safely perform a chair carry you need a\. 2 rescuers **b. 3 rescuers** c\. 4 rescuers d\. 5 rescuers 25\. Crepitus is: a.. Poor distal circulation **b. A grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together** c\. A type of splint d\. A type of fracture 26\. After discovering a possible fracture you should assess which of the following before and after splinting: a\. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion. b\. Capillary refill, pulse, sensation. **c. Pulse, motor function, sensation.** d\. Crepitus, resistance, pain. **27.** A worker has had his hand caught in a car door. You suspect several fractured bones in the hand. The hand should be splinted: a\. Flat against the splint. b\. In a tight fist position. c\. With the fingers taped together. **d. In the position of function.** **28.** In the case of suspected fracture of the clavicle, emergency responders should use: a\. An arm sling supported with broad bandages. b\. A St. John tubular sling tied on the injured side. **c. A St. John tubular sling tied on the uninjured side.** d\. Rigid splints to support the arm and support the shoulder. **29.** Force on a joint may cause bone ends tocome out of their proper position. This type of injury is called a: a\. Sprain b\. Fracture **c. Dislocation** d\. Strain **30.** After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation: a\. In the injured limb only. **b. Distal to the injury.** c\. Proximal to the injury. d\. At the site of the fracture. **31.** The longest, strongest bone in the body is the: a\. Humerus. b\. Fibula. c\. Tibia. **d. Femur.** **32.** Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the: **a. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.** b\. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle. c\. Femur and ankle. d\. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle. **33.** You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by: a\. Tight bandages and a heating pad. **b. Rest, immbolization, application of cold, and elevation.** c\. Rigid splints and bandages d\. Compression, elevation and application of heat. **34.** If the patient has an open fracture responders should : a\. Attempt to push bones back into the wound. **b. Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends.** c\. Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding. d\. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site. **35.** A traction splint could be used for which of the following injuries: a\. A fractured pelvis. b\. An injured knee joint. c\. A dislocated hip. **d. A mid-shaft femur fracture.** **36.** A concussion is best described as: a\. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord. b\. Tearing of brain tissue. c\. Pooling of blood in the brain. **d. Temporary loss of brain function** **37.** You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of: **a. Soft spots in the infant's skull.** b\. Infant's pupils react differently than adults. c\. Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully. d\. The startle reflex. **38.** When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped? **a. Chest** b\. Pelvis c\. Legs d\. Head **39.** Contusions are: a\. Usually controlled with direct pressure **b. Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain.** c\. Usually associated with scalp lacerations d\. Almost always seen in children. **40.** The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are: **a. Eye, verbal and motor responses.** b\. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement. c\. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye response. d\. Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement. **41.** Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury: a\. Increase in pulse rate. b\. Constant respiratory rate. **c. increase in blood pressure.** d\. Decrease in blood pressure. **42.** "Raccoon eyes" indicates: a\. Possible eye injury b\. Possible fracture of the jaw c\. Possible scalp laceration **d. Possible head injury** **43.** You are called to the scene of a motorcycle crash. The rider is dazed and walking around. You should: **a. Suspect spinal injury and manageaccordingly.** b\. Not worry about spinal injury because the person is mobile. c\. Advise the person to lie down in case of fainting. d\. Determine the chief complaint and provide first aid for it. **44.** When managing a possible spinal injury: a\. The cervical immobilization device is applied by the police. b\. Transport the patient in the position of greatest comfort. c\. Apply a cervical immobilization device before assessing the patient. **d. Responders must provide initial stabilization by supporting the head and** **ensuring neutral alignment** **45.** A helmet must be removed from a patient: a\. If there are no airway or breathing problems. b\. If the patient will be immobilized to a long spinal immobilizaton device. **c. When the helmet has a face mask that interferes with the responder's ability** to assist with ventilations d\. It is a full- face helmet. **46.** When dealing with pelvic injuries you must always consider the possibility of: a\. Ruptured bladder. b\. Ruptured spleen. **c. Spinal injuries.** d\. Rib fractures. **47.** To properly measure a cervical collar, you: a\. Measure the distance from the ear lobe to the shoulder. b\. Measure the distance from the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe. c\. Measure the distance from the cheekbone to the shoulder blade. **d. Measure the distance from the trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw** **48.** Contact dermatitis occurs when: **a. The skin comes in contact with apoisonous substance.** b\. A poison enters the eye of a contact lens wearer. c\. Hot gases are inhaled. d\. A poison is injected under the skin. **49.** Carbon monoxide: **a. May result from fires or automobile exhaust.** b\. Has a very distinct odour c\. Is not life-threatening. d\. Requires the administration of low concentration O2. **50.** A child has swallowed an unknown poisonous substance. You should: a\. Dilute the poison with several glasses of cool water. **b. Call your local Poison Control Centre and follow directions.** c\. Give a solution of mild liquid dish detergent and water. d\. Use activated charcoal. **51.** The acronym SAMPLE stand for signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, past history, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and events. a\. Location of pain. b\. Last bowel movement. **c. Last meal.** d\. Latest related injury. **52.** Which one of the following is not a system of the body: a\. Respiratory. b\. Musculoskeletal. c\. Endocrine. **d. Follicular**. **53.** Increased respiratory difficulty accompanied by a weak ineffective cough, wheezing, high-pitched crowing noises and cyanosis aresigns of: a\. Mild airway obstruction b\. C.O.P.D. **c. Severe airway obstruction.** d\. Complete airway obstruction. **54.** The most important step in managing shock is to: a\. Keep the patient warm. b\. Give CPR as soon as possible. **c. Give first aid for the illness or injury.** d\. Elevate the lower extremities. **55.** A small percentage of casualties with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have hypoxic drive. These patients breathe because of a: a\. High oxygen level. **b. Low oxygen level.** c\. High carbon dioxide level. d\. Low carbon dioxide level. **56.** The emergency responder is one link in the chain of services known as the: a\. Emergency Patient Care (EPC) system. **b. Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system.** c\. Professional Emergency Care (PEC) system. d\. Community Medical Care (CMC) system. **57.** The acronym used to assist the emergency responder assessing the patient\'s level of responsiveness is: a\. SAMPLE. b\. EMCA. c\. OPQRST. **d. AVPU.** **58.** An industrial worker sustains a severe laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure to the wound fails to control the bleeding. The correct arterial pressure point to control the bleeding is the: a\. Carotid. b\. Radial. c\. Femoral. **d. Brachial.** **59.** Pressing on a fingernail-bed to observe the return of normal colour is done to check for: **a. Normal blood circulation to that part.** b\. The presence of fractured fingers. c\. Pain in the area. d\. A lack of oxygen in the blood. **60.** Your primary survey of a casualty involved in a serious car collision shows only that he is confused. Later you find his pulse rate at 140 and weak, his skin cold and clammy and his breathing irregular and gasping. These signs, along with the mechanism of injury, indicate: a\. An oncoming faint. b\. Emotional stress. **c. Internal bleeding.** d\. Onset of diabetic coma. **61.** For which one of the following infectious diseases is a vaccine presently available: a\. Herpes. b\. AIDS. c\. Mononucleosis. **d. Hepatitis B.** **62.** Based on current research, which of the following statements about the AIDS virus is correct? **a. It can be found in blood and semen.** b\. It can be transmitted by sharing eating utensils. c\. It can be transmitted by shaking hands. d\. It can be found in perspiration. **63.** In a hazmat situation airway management and immobilzation are carried out in the: a\. hot zone **b. warm zone** c\. cold zone d\. neutral zone **64.** During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, you detect a breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute. You would categorize this as: **a. Above normal.** b\. Below normal. c\. Normal. d\. Indeterminate. **65.** A blood-soaked dressing on the arm indicates that bleeding has not yet been controlled. You should now: a\. Remove the dressing and check the wound. b\. Apply pressure to the femoral artery. **c. Place a clean dressing on top and apply more pressure.** d\. Apply a tourniquet. **66.** The type of shock that is caused by a severe infection is called: **a. Septic.** b\. Psychogenic. c\. Cardiogenic. d\. Hemorrhagic. **67.** Which one of the following is considered a breach of duty: **a. failure to obtain consent.** b\. failure to wear your name tag. c\. inappropriate use of lights and siren. d\. insubordination. **68.** Immediately before a seizure, the patient experiences an unpleasant odour. This phase is referred to as: a\. Clonic. **b. Aura.** c\. Tonic. d\. Postical. **69.** The emergency responder should assume a head/spinal injury in any unwitnessed situation where the patient is: a\. Alert. b\. Responsive to pain. c\. Not breathing. **d. Unresponsive.** **70.** The secondary assessment of the patient consists of a head to toe examination and a check of the: a\. Pressure points. b\. Procedures for administering CPR. c\. Manual stabilization of the head. **d. Vital signs.** **71.** You are taking blood pressure by palpation.A radial pulse indicates a blood pressure of at least: a\. 110 mmHg b\. 100 mmHg c\. 90 mmHg **d. 80 mmHg** **72.** You are called for an asthma attack, treatments may include all except: a\. Metered dose inhaler b\. Bronchodilators **c. Nitroglycerin** d\. Inhaled steroids **73.** In topographic anatomy, the term \"lateral\" means: **a. Nearer the midline of the body.** b\. Away from the midline of the body. c\. Nearer the head. d\. Away from the head. **74.** Which one of the following conditions may mimic the signs of acute alcohol intoxication? **a. Hypoglycemia** b\. Congestive heart failure. c\. Absence seizures. d\. Anaphylactic shock. **75.** Which one of the following breathing diseases is included in C.O.P.D.: a\. Croup. b\. Hyperventilation **c. Emphysema.** d\. Dyspnea **76.** A condition where air builds up in the pleural space, collapses the lung and puts pressure on the heart is called: a\. Closed pneumothorax **b. Tension pneumothorax** c\. Hemothorax d\. Open pneumothorax **77.** Oxygen humidification is recommended if you are administering oxygen for longer than: a\. 15 minutes. **b. 30 minutes.** c\. 60 minutes. d\. 90 minutes. **78.** You find a male patient with obvious difficulty breathing. He is using his neck muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red blotches on his chest, and his neck is swelling. You suspect : **a. Anaphylaxis.** b\. Bronchitis. c\. Emphysema. d\. Asthma. **79.** When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR, you should: **a. Hold the casualty\'s mouth closed.** b\. Pinch the nostrils closed before blowing air into the casualty. c\. Tilt the head back less than for the mouth-to-mouth method of AR. d\. Keep the mouth and nose closed between breaths. **80.** During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the ratio of compressions to ventilations should be: a\. 5:1 b\. 15:2 **c. 30:2** d\. 35:2 **81.** A guideline for normal systolic blood pressure in an adult male would be: a\. 50 plus the man\'s age up to 150 mm.Hg. b\. 65 plus the man\'s age up to 120 mm.Hg. c\. 80 plus the man\'s age up to 130 mm.Hg. d**. 100 plus the man\'s age up to 150 mm.Hg** **82.** A rapid body survey should take no longer than: **a. 30 seconds** b\. 45 seconds c\. 60 seconds d\. 90 seconds **83.** To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway place the flange at the corner of the mouth with the tip reaching: a\. The angle of the patient\'s jaw b\. The top of the patient\'s ear **c. The patient\'s earlobe** **84.** ASA should be offered to the patient with chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin: a\. Before the first dose of nitro **b. After the first dose of nitro** c\. After the second dose of nitro d\. After the third dose of nitro **85.** When suctioning a non-breathing adult casualty, a first aider should: a\. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip touches the mouth. b\. Insert the suction tip deep into the larynx. **c. Suction for no more than 15 seconds.** d\. Insert the tip with the curved side towards the tongue. **86.** Which of the following devices provides the highest percentage of O2 delivery? a\. Nasal cannula. b\. Plastic face mask. c\. Partial rebreathing mask. **d. Non-rebreathing mask**. **87.** You suspect a patient\'s pain is due to a myocardial infarction rather than angina because the pain: a\. Is under the sternum. b\. Radiates to the neck, jaw and arms. **c. Is not relieved by rest or medication.** d\. Lasts for about 3 minutes **88.** A flail chest results when : a\. Three ribs are broken on each side of the chest. b\. Part of the spine becomes separated from the ribs. c\. The breastbone is broken in three places. **d. Several ribs are broken in more than one place.** **89.** Status epilepticus refers to: a\. Normal seizure pattern in epilepsy. b\. Seizures caused by a high fever. **c. Continuous seizure activity.** d\. Seizures lasting longer than 2 minutes. **90.** OPQRST is used to assess: **a. Pain** b\. Level of consciousness c\. Vision d\. Hearing **91.** The recommended oxygen flow rate for nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is: **a. 1-6 litres/min.** b\. 6-8 litres/min. c\. 8-12 litres/min. d\. 10-15 litres/min. **92.** When aligning the head in the eyes-front neutral position, watch for: a\. Pulse, movement, sensation. **b. Crepitus, pain, resistance.** c\. Pain, circulation, retention. d\. Tingling, numbness, paralysis. **93.** Manual support of the head and neck of the patient with suspected spinal injury can be released: a\. Once the breathing has been checked. b\. When a hard collar has been applied. c\. If the patient is unconscious. **d. When the patient is fully immobilized to a backboard.** **94.** To prepare a completely amputated part of the body for transportation to hospital with the casualty, you should: a\. Place it in a clean plastic bag filled with cold water. **b. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and keep it cool.** c\. Wash it off and place it into a bag of crushed ice. d\. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and keep it at body temperature. **95.** Hypovolemic shock results from: a\. The body\'s reaction to a foreign protein. b\. An overdose of insulin. c\. Toxins produced by a severe infection. **d. Decreased volume of the blood.** **96.** A conscious casualty who has suffered a stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his airway open and help him breathe, you should: **a. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down.** b\. Place him in a semisitting position. c\. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side up. d\. Place him on his back. **97.** A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder onto a concrete floor. You first action should be. a\. Take a SAMPLE history. b\. Perform a secondary survey. **c. Take charge and perform a scene survey.** d\. Asess the rate and quality of breathing. **98.** To determine whether a c-spine injury has occurred, you should think about the Mechanism of Injury. This can best be described as: **a. The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body.** b\. The circumstances after the injury. c\. The weather conditions at the time of the incident. d\. The area of the body that is injured **99.** The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations for two -rescuer CPR on a child is: a\. 5:1 **b. 15:2** c\. 5:2 d\. 15:1 **100.** Shock is best defined as: **a. Inadequate circulation to the body's tissues** b\. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the lungs c\. Inadequate elimination of waste products from the body. d\. Inadequate amount of insulin. 101\) How should you open the airway of an unconscious casualty? [A. Head tilt and chin lift.] B. Jaw thrust. C. Head tilt and jaw thrust. D. Lift the chin. 102\) How long would you check to see if an unconscious casualty is breathing normally? [A. No more than 10 seconds.] B. Approximately 10 seconds. C. Exactly 10 seconds. D. At least 10 seconds. 10You are a lone first aider and have an unconscious non-breathing adult, what should you do first? B. Give five initial rescue breaths. [C. Call to local emergency station requesting AED (defibrillator) and ambulance.] D. Give two initial rescue breaths. 104\) Which is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for use in CPR of an adult casualty? A. 2 compressions : 30 rescue breaths. B. 5 compressions : 1 rescue breath. C. 15 compressions : 2 rescue breaths. [D. 30 compressions : 2 rescue breaths.] 105\) What is the cause of angina? A. Insufficient blood reaching the lungs. B. Insufficient blood reaching the brain. [C. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle.] D. Insufficient blood reaching the leg muscles. 106\) What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times? A. Insulin. B. Acetaminophen/Paracetamol. [C. Adrenaline (Epipen).] D. Aspirin. 107\) Which test should you use if you suspect that a casualty has had a stroke? [A. Face, Arms, Speech, Test.] B. Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive. C. Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation. D. Pulse, Respiratory Rate, Temperature 108\) Which of the following can cause a stroke? [A. A blood clot in an artery in the brain.] B. A blood clot in an artery in the heart. C. A blood clot in an artery in the leg. D. A blood clot in an artery in the lungs. 109\) What should your first action be when treating an electrical burn? A. Ensure that the casualty is still breathing. B. Wash the burn with cold water. [C. Check for danger and ensure that contact with the electrical source is broken.] D. Check for level of response. 110\) What is an open fracture? A. A fracture in which the bone ends can move around. [B. A fracture in which the bone is exposed as the skin is broken.] C. A fracture which causes complications such as a punctured lung. D. A fracture in which the bone has bent and split. 111\) Which medical condition will develop from severe blood loss? [A. Shock]. B. Hypoglycaemia. C. Anaphylaxis. D. Hypothermia. 112\) What names are given to the three different depths of burns? A. Small, medium and large. B. First, second and third degree. C. Minor, medium and severe. [thickness.] 113\) What is a faint? A. A response to fear. B. An unexpected collapse. [C. A brief loss of consciousness.] D. A sign of flu. 114\) What steps would you take to control bleeding from a nosebleed? [A. Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose.] B. Sit casualty down, lean backward and pinch soft part of nose. C. Lie casualty down and pinch soft part of nose. D. Lie casualty down and pinch top of nose. 115.When making a 911 call, what are the three W's [A Who, What, Where] B Where, What and Why C Why, When and Where D Who, What and When 116.What is first aid? A Completing a primary survey [B The first help given to the victim of an accident] C Assessing a victim's vital signs D Treating a victim for shock 117.What treatment does a victim who's life threatening condition is "not breathing"need? A The Heimlich Maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR B Start CPR immediately C Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR [D You should follow the steps for rescue breathing] 118.The accepted treatment for a femor or thigh fracture is: A Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg [B This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training] C Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint D Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above and one below the break 119\. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. This condition is called: A Septic shock B Cardiac arrest C Toxic shock syndrome [D Anaphylactic shock] 120.A small animal that is almost invisible, burrows into the skin and causes itching: A Common wood tick B Limon-Lyme tick C Rocky mountain spotted tick [D Chigger] 121\. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is: A Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method [B Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels] C Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible D Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness 122.The accepted treatment for a nose bleed is: A Use direct pressure, elevation and pressure points to control the bleeding B Tilt the head back and tightly squeeze the nostrils [C Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels.] D Lay the victim on his back and treat for shock. Apply heat if available 123\. What is the best definition of the "Hurry Cases"? A Breathing, bleeding and broken bones [B Any condition that threatens a victim's life] C Any illness where the victim vomits D Any accident requiring rescue breathing 124.After you have surveyed an accident scene and provided for your own safety you should: [A Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your training] B Provide primary treatment for shock C Call 911 or your local emergency number D Provide immediate treatment for the "hurry cases" 125.To treat a first degree burn you should: A Apply a good quality burn cream or ointment B Clean the area thoroughly with hot soapy water C Apply a constricting band between the burn and the heart [D Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain] 126\. A victim that has come in contact with poison ivy should: A Wait at least 20 minutes before washing the effected area with hot water and soap [B Rinse the effected area immediately with soap and water] C Continue to ware clothes that have come in contact with the plant D Immediately scratch and rub the effected area to provide long-term relief from the itching 127.Which of the following techniques is not suitable for moving an unconscious victim? A Improvised stretcher [B Four-handed seat carry] C Two person carry D Blanket drag1 128.Assuming you are properly trained, the best procedure to follow for a water rescue is: A Throw, row then go [B Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support] C Swim with support, throw a rope or flotation device, reach with a pole from shore D Reach, paddle, swim 129.What is the appropriate treatment for a suspected broken collarbone or shoulder? [A Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat] B Use the cross your heart padded chest support method C Use the flail chest protection system D Apply a modified "Johnson Traction Splint" 130.Which statement about a simple sling is true? A The part of the sling against the chest goes over the shoulder on the injured arm B The "pigtail" protects the neck from injury from the sling C The injured hand should be four to six inches higher than the elbow [D The part of the sling furthest away from the chest passes over the shoulder on the injured arm] 131.White or grayish-yellow patches on someone's ears, noses or cheeks are signs of [A Frostbite] B Cold related stress disorder C Anaphylactic shock D Hypothermia 133.Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult: A Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by 1 breath each minute B One cycle of one breath and 10 compressions each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute C Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compressions per minute [D Four cycles of two breaths and 15 compressions per minute] 134.What is the best procedure for treating a known poisonous snake bite? A Capture the snake. Place it in an ice chest and take the snake and victim to a hospital. B Place a constricting bandage 4 inches above the head of the snake to slow the spread of venom [C Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately] D Treat the victim for shock and continue the planned activityTie 135\. Severe bleeding is a "hurry case." Which one of the following statements is TRUE: A Bleeding can seldom be stopped with direct pressure B A tourniquet is almost always required to control serious bleeding C Should the first sterile pad used become blood soaked, immediately remove it and apply another [D Try to avoid direct contact with the victim's blood by using latex gloves or another barrier] [ ] 36. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand with deep frostbite you should ensure that: a\. The patient sees a doctor no later than 48 hrs after thawing **b. There is no danger of refreezing** c\. Adequate pain relief medication is available d\. Capillary refill takes no longer than 15 seconds 137\. You have been called for an 81 year old unconscious male patient. He is in his living room. Despite the hot day, he is overly dressed. He is flushed and dry, extremely hot to touch. You suspect: a\. Heat exhaustion. b\. Stroke. c\. Hyperglycemia. **d. Heatstroke.** 138\. Body mechanics refers to: **a. Positioning and movement of the body** b\. Number of rescuers needed to move a patient c\. A type of rescue carry d\. A special device to lift heavy loads 139\. You are alone and must remove a casualty with a suspected spinal injury from a very hazardous situation. You should a\. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise. b\. Keep his body rigid, support his head and neck and roll him away from the scene. c\. Tie his legs together and drag him feet first. **d. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders, support his head and neck, and drag him** **lengthwise.** **140.** To safely perform a chair carry you need a\. 2 rescuers **b. 3 rescuers** c\. 4 rescuers d\. 5 rescuers 141\. Crepitus is: a.. Poor distal circulation **b. A grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together** c\. A type of splint d\. A type of fracture 142\. After discovering a possible fracture you should assess which of the following before and after splinting: a\. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion. b\. Capillary refill, pulse, sensation. **c. Pulse, motor function, sensation.** d\. Crepitus, resistance, pain. **143.** A worker has had his hand caught in a car door. You suspect several fractured bones in the hand. The hand should be splinted: a\. Flat against the splint. b\. In a tight fist position. c\. With the fingers taped together. **d. In the position of function.** **144.** In the case of suspected fracture of the clavicle, emergency responders should use: a\. An arm sling supported with broad bandages. b\. A St. John tubular sling tied on the injured side. **c. A St. John tubular sling tied on the uninjured side.** d\. Rigid splints to support the arm and support the shoulder. **145.** Force on a joint may cause bone ends tocome out of their proper position. This type of injury is called a: a\. Sprain b\. Fracture **c. Dislocation** d\. Strain **146.** After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation: a\. In the injured limb only. **b. Distal to the injury.** c\. Proximal to the injury. d\. At the site of the fracture. **147.** The longest, strongest bone in the body is the: a\. Humerus. b\. Fibula. c\. Tibia. **d. Femur.** **148.** Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the: **a. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.** b\. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle. c\. Femur and ankle. d\. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle. **149.** You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by: a\. Tight bandages and a heating pad. **b. Rest, immbolization, application of cold, and elevation.** c\. Rigid splints and bandages d\. Compression, elevation and application of heat. **150.** If the patient has an open fracture responders should : a\. Attempt to push bones back into the wound. **b. Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends.** c\. Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding. d\. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site. **151.** A traction splint could be used for which of the following injuries: a\. A fractured pelvis. b\. An injured knee joint. c\. A dislocated hip. **d. A mid-shaft femur fracture.** **152.** A concussion is best described as: a\. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord. b\. Tearing of brain tissue. c\. Pooling of blood in the brain. **d. Temporary loss of brain function** **153.** You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of: **a. Soft spots in the infant's skull.** b\. Infant's pupils react differently than adults. c\. Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully. d\. The startle reflex. **154.** When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped? **a. Chest** b\. Pelvis c\. Legs d\. Head **155.** Contusions are: a\. Usually controlled with direct pressure **b. Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain.** c\. Usually associated with scalp lacerations d\. Almost always seen in children. **156.** The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are: **a. Eye, verbal and motor responses.** b\. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement. c\. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye response. d\. Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement. **157.** Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury: a\. Increase in pulse rate. b\. Constant respiratory rate. **c. increase in blood pressure.** d\. Decrease in blood pressure. **158.** "Raccoon eyes" indicates: a\. Possible eye injury b\. Possible fracture of the jaw c\. Possible scalp laceration **d. Possible head injury** **159.** You are called to the scene of a motorcycle crash. The rider is dazed and walking around. You should: **a. Suspect spinal injury and manageaccordingly.** b\. Not worry about spinal injury because the person is mobile. c\. Advise the person to lie down in case of fainting. d\. Determine the chief complaint and provide first aid for it. **160.** When managing a possible spinal injury: a\. The cervical immobilization device is applied by the police. b\. Transport the patient in the position of greatest comfort. c\. Apply a cervical immobilization device before assessing the patient. **d. Responders must provide initial stabilization by supporting the head and** **ensuring neutral alignment** **161.** A helmet must be removed from a patient: a\. If there are no airway or breathing problems. b\. If the patient will be immobilized to a long spinal immobilizaton device. **c. When the helmet has a face mask that interferes with the responder's ability** to assist with ventilations d\. It is a full- face helmet. **162.** When dealing with pelvic injuries you must always consider the possibility of: a\. Ruptured bladder. b\. Ruptured spleen. **c. Spinal injuries.** d\. Rib fractures. **163.** To properly measure a cervical collar, you: a\. Measure the distance from the ear lobe to the shoulder. b\. Measure the distance from the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe. c\. Measure the distance from the cheekbone to the shoulder blade. **d. Measure the distance from the trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw** **164.** Contact dermatitis occurs when: **a. The skin comes in contact with apoisonous substance.** b\. A poison enters the eye of a contact lens wearer. c\. Hot gases are inhaled. d\. A poison is injected under the skin. **165.** Carbon monoxide: **a. May result from fires or automobile exhaust.** b\. Has a very distinct odour c\. Is not life-threatening. d\. Requires the administration of low concentration O2. **166.** A child has swallowed an unknown poisonous substance. You should: a\. Dilute the poison with several glasses of cool water. **b. Call your local Poison Control Centre and follow directions.** c\. Give a solution of mild liquid dish detergent and water. d\. Use activated charcoal. **167.** The acronym SAMPLE stand for signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, past history, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and events. a\. Location of pain. b\. Last bowel movement. **c. Last meal.** d\. Latest related injury. **168.** Which one of the following is not a system of the body: a\. Respiratory. b\. Musculoskeletal. c\. Endocrine. **d. Follicular**. **169.** Increased respiratory difficulty accompanied by a weak ineffective cough, wheezing, high-pitched crowing noises and cyanosis aresigns of: a\. Mild airway obstruction b\. C.O.P.D. **c. Severe airway obstruction.** d\. Complete airway obstruction. **170.** The most important step in managing shock is to: a\. Keep the patient warm. b\. Give CPR as soon as possible. **c. Give first aid for the illness or injury.** d\. Elevate the lower extremities. **171.** A small percentage of casualties with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have hypoxic drive. These patients breathe because of a: a\. High oxygen level. **b. Low oxygen level.** c\. High carbon dioxide level. d\. Low carbon dioxide level. **172.** The emergency responder is one link in the chain of services known as the: a\. Emergency Patient Care (EPC) system. **b. Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system.** c\. Professional Emergency Care (PEC) system. d\. Community Medical Care (CMC) system. **173.** The acronym used to assist the emergency responder assessing the patient\'s level of responsiveness is: a\. SAMPLE. b\. EMCA. c\. OPQRST. **d. AVPU.** **174.** An industrial worker sustains a severe laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure to the wound fails to control the bleeding. The correct arterial pressure point to control the bleeding is the: a\. Carotid. b\. Radial. c\. Femoral. **d. Brachial.** **175.** Pressing on a fingernail-bed to observe the return of normal colour is done to check for: **a. Normal blood circulation to that part.** b\. The presence of fractured fingers. c\. Pain in the area. d\. A lack of oxygen in the blood. **176.** Your primary survey of a casualty involved in a serious car collision shows only that he is confused. Later you find his pulse rate at 140 and weak, his skin cold and clammy and his breathing irregular and gasping. These signs, along with the mechanism of injury, indicate: a\. An oncoming faint. b\. Emotional stress. **c. Internal bleeding.** d\. Onset of diabetic coma. **177.** For which one of the following infectious diseases is a vaccine presently available: a\. Herpes. b\. AIDS. c\. Mononucleosis. **d. Hepatitis B.** **178.** Based on current research, which of the following statements about the AIDS virus is correct? **a. It can be found in blood and semen.** b\. It can be transmitted by sharing eating utensils. c\. It can be transmitted by shaking hands. d\. It can be found in perspiration. **179.** In a hazmat situation airway management and immobilzation are carried out in the: a\. hot zone **b. warm zone** c\. cold zone d\. neutral zone **180.** During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, you detect a breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute. You would categorize this as: **a. Above normal.** b\. Below normal. c\. Normal. d\. Indeterminate.