Limited Lawn and Ornamental 2024 PDF

1. You are applying a pesticide at a rate of 1.5 pounds per 1,000 square feet. If you have a lawn area of 7,500 square feet, how many pounds of pesticide are needed? A) 10.25 B) 11.25 C) 12.25 D) 13.25 Answer: B 2. A pesticide mix calls for 3 ounces per gallon, and you have a 4-gallon sprayer. How...

1. You are applying a pesticide at a rate of 1.5 pounds per 1,000 square feet. If you have a lawn area of 7,500 square feet, how many pounds of pesticide are needed? A) 10.25 B) 11.25 C) 12.25 D) 13.25 Answer: B 2. A pesticide mix calls for 3 ounces per gallon, and you have a 4-gallon sprayer. How many ounces of pesticide are required for one full tank? A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13 Answer: C 3. If a herbicide requires a dilution rate of 0.75% in a 30-gallon tank, how many gallons of herbicide should you add? A) 0.125 B) 0.15 C) 0.225 D) 0.3 Answer: D 4. You have a sprayer with an output of 0.4 gallons per minute. How many gallons are used if you spray continuously for 45 minutes? A) 16 B) 17.5 C) 18 D) 20 Answer: C 5. For a particular fungicide application, the required rate is 2 pounds per acre. If you are covering 3 acres, how many pounds of fungicide do you need? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 Answer: C 6. A pesticide label instructs you to mix 4 fluid ounces per gallon of water. How many fluid ounces do you need for a 15-gallon tank? A) 50 B) 55 C) 60 D) 65 Answer: C 7. You need to apply an insecticide over 2,500 square feet using a sprayer calibrated at 1.5 gallons per 1,000 square feet. How many gallons of water do you need? A) 3 B) 3.75 C) 4 D) 4.25 Answer: B 8. A product is applied at a rate of 6 ounces per acre, and you have 5 acres to cover. How many ounces are needed? A) 25 B) 28 C) 30 D) 32 Answer: C 9. You have a solution that requires 1.25 pints of active ingredient per gallon. How many pints are needed for a 12-gallon mixture? A) 12 B) 14 C) 15 D) 15.5 Answer: D 10. How many square feet are in a lawn that is 0.75 acres? A) 30,000 B) 32,670 C) 35,400 D) 36,000 Answer: B (Calculation & IPM Questions) 11. If a weed control product has a recommended rate of 0.8 pounds per 1,000 square feet, how much product is needed to treat a 12,000-square-foot area? A) 9 B) 9.5 C) 10 D) 10.5 Answer: C 12. A pesticide label requires 6 ounces of product per 1,000 square feet. If you have a lawn area of 5,000 square feet, how many ounces of product will you need? A) 28 B) 30 C) 32 D) 34 Answer: B 13. If you need 2 gallons of a 3% solution, how many fluid ounces of active ingredient are needed? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7.7 D) 8 Answer: C (Calculation & Application Rate Questions) 14. A certain fertilizer has an analysis of 10-5-10. If you need 3 pounds of nitrogen, how much total fertilizer is required? A) 10 pounds B) 20 pounds C) 30 pounds D) 40 pounds Answer: C 15. You have an area of 20,000 square feet that needs treatment, and the application rate is 1.2 pounds per 1,000 square feet. How many pounds of material are required? A) 20 pounds B) 22 pounds C) 24 pounds D) 26 pounds Answer: C 16. If your sprayer is calibrated to apply 0.7 gallons per 1,000 square feet, how many gallons will be used over a 6,000-square-foot area? A) 4.0 gallons B) 4.2 gallons C) 4.5 gallons D) 5.0 gallons Answer: B 17. If a lawn care product is mixed at a rate of 3 ounces per gallon, how many ounces are needed for a 25-gallon tank? A) 70 ounces B) 72 ounces C) 75 ounces D) 78 ounces Answer: C 18. A product label indicates a rate of 4 pints per acre. How many pints are required to cover 1.5 acres? A) 4.5 pints B) 5 pints C) 6 pints D) 7 pints Answer: C (IPM Principles & Pesticide Use Questions) 19. What is the primary function of surfactants in pesticide applications? A) To reduce pesticide odor B) To aid in the even spread of pesticide on plant surfaces C) To increase evaporation rates D) To dilute the pesticide for broader coverage Answer: B 20. The "restricted entry interval" (REI) on a pesticide label refers to: A) The time when it is safest to enter an area without PPE B) The time required for a pesticide to reach maximum effectiveness C) The interval between pesticide applications D) The time frame when rain has the least impact on effectiveness Answer: A 21. According to IPM principles, what is the best way to prevent pesticide resistance? A) Using higher concentrations of a single pesticide B) Alternating pesticide groups with different modes of action C) Limiting applications to once per year D) Applying pesticides only when pest populations reach zero Answer: B (Insect and Weed Identification & Management Questions) 22. Which insect pest is most effectively controlled using microbial insecticides containing Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)? A) Aphids B) Whiteflies C) Caterpillars D) Ants Answer: C 23. Which weed is known for its heart-shaped, hairless leaves and a bitter taste, often found in Florida lawns during cool weather? A) Dandelion (Taraxacum officinale) B) Dollarweed (Hydrocotyle spp.) C) Purple cudweed (Gamochaeta purpurea) D) Florida betony (Stachys floridana) Answer: D 24. The southern chinch bug primarily damages which type of grass species in Florida by sucking plant sap? A) Bermudagrass B) Zoysiagrass C) St. Augustinegrass D) Bahiagrass Answer: C (Pesticide Label and Safety Questions) 25. Which of the following terms on a pesticide label indicates the highest toxicity level? A) Warning B) Caution C) Hazardous D) Danger Answer: D 26. What is the primary purpose of a buffer zone during pesticide applications near sensitive areas? A) To increase pesticide effectiveness on the target area B) To comply with regulatory standards C) To minimize drift and protect non-target organisms D) To ensure uniform pesticide distribution Answer: C 27. When handling restricted-use pesticides, which level of personal protective equipment is generally recommended? A) Basic gloves and long-sleeve shirt B) Chemical-resistant gloves, goggles, and a respirator C) Full-face mask and single-layer gloves D) No special PPE if used outdoors Answer: B (Environmental Factors & Drift Management Questions) 28. Which environmental factor most affects pesticide drift when applying to lawn or ornamental areas? A) Wind speed over 10 mph B) Droplet size and air movement C) Temperature and humidity level D) Type of pesticide used Answer: B 29. How does droplet size influence the potential for drift in turf or ornamental pest control applications? A) Larger droplets are more likely to drift because they fall faster B) Droplet size does not impact drift if wind speed is below 5 mph C) Smaller droplets are less likely to drift in high humidity D) Smaller droplets have a higher drift potential, especially under low humidity Answer: D 30. Which of the following statements is true about minimizing drift when spraying in high temperatures? A) Using a fine spray will reduce drift due to smaller droplet size B) Applying during early morning or late afternoon avoids thermal inversions C) Increasing spray pressure reduces drift likelihood D) Drift is less likely in high temperatures, regardless of other factors Answer: B (Weed & Turfgrass Identification Questions) 31. Which of these grasses is most likely to invade a St. Augustine grass lawn and is often mistaken for the lawn grass due to its appearance? A) Goosegrass (Eleusine indica) B) Crabgrass (Digitaria spp.) C) Dallisgrass (Paspalum dilatatum) D) Bermudagrass (Cynodon dactylon) Answer: D 32. Which type of monitoring is most suitable for identifying the source of recurring pest infestations in landscape plants? A) Visual inspection at the start of each season B) Sticky traps to monitor adult pest populations throughout the season C) Soil sampling near affected plants after pest damage D) Regular inspection of host plants and nearby areas for pest stages Answer: D (Insect and Pest Identification & Control Questions) 33. Which of the following insects is best managed through cultural control practices in an ornamental setting? A) Japanese beetles B) Aphids C) Scale insects D) Whiteflies Answer: A 34. What is the primary benefit of using granular pesticides over liquid formulations in lawn applications? A) Granular pesticides have faster absorption rates B) They minimize drift and runoff risks C) They require less equipment for application D) Granular pesticides do not affect beneficial insects Answer: B 35. Which pest is most likely to attack warm-season grasses in Florida? A) Chinch bugs B) White grubs C) Spider mites D) Ants Answer: A 36. The southern chinch bug primarily damages which type of grass species by sucking plant sap? A) Bermudagrass B) Zoysiagrass C) St. Augustinegrass D) Bahiagrass Answer: C 37. Which insect is known to secrete a honeydew substance that leads to sooty mold growth on ornamental plants? A) Spider mite B) Grasshopper C) Scale insect D) Mole cricket Answer: C (Safety Protocols & Regulations) 38. When mixing pesticides, what is the first step that should be taken to ensure safety and accuracy? A) Pour the pesticide directly into the tank B) Check the label for proper mixing instructions C) Measure and pour water into the tank first D) Ensure all safety equipment is on before measuring pesticides Answer: B 39. What is the role of a pesticide adjuvant in spray mixtures? A) To increase the volume of the spray mixture B) To enhance the pesticide’s performance or application properties C) To extend the pesticide’s residual effect D) To lower the toxicity of the pesticide Answer: B 40. Which of the following statements best defines "integrated pest management" (IPM)? A) A strategy that uses chemical control only when pests reach economic injury levels B) A systematic approach to pest control focusing on biological, cultural, physical, and chemical methods C) A program based solely on monitoring pest populations D) A control method that exclusively uses mechanical means Answer: B 41. Which factor is least likely to influence the choice of pesticide for an ornamental pest treatment? A) Plant health and species B) Pest identification and lifecycle C) Soil pH level D) Proximity to waterways Answer: C (Calculations for Pesticide Application and Coverage Area) 42. If a solution requires a 0.75% concentration, how many fluid ounces of active ingredient are needed in 5 gallons? A) 4.8 fluid ounces B) 5.6 fluid ounces C) 6 fluid ounces D) 6.4 fluid ounces Answer: D 43. You have a circular lawn area with a radius of 15 feet. What is the approximate diameter of the lawn area? A) 7.5 feet B) 30 feet C) 15 feet D) 60 feet Answer: B 44. A tree’s canopy has a diameter of 20 feet. What is the radius of the canopy? A) 5 feet B) 10 feet C) 15 feet D) 20 feet Answer: B 45. If you are required to apply pesticide in a circular flower bed with a radius of 12 feet, what would be the diameter? A) 24 feet B) 12 feet C) 36 feet D) 48 feet Answer: A 46. If the application radius around a plant should be 8 feet, how large is the diameter of the application area? A) 4 feet B) 8 feet C) 12 feet D) 16 feet Answer: D 47. When marking off a pesticide-free zone around an ornamental tree with a 25-foot diameter canopy, what radius should you measure from the trunk? A) 10 feet B) 12.5 feet C) 25 feet D) 50 feet Answer: B (Weed Identification & Herbicide Use) 48. Which weed is characterized by a creeping growth habit, small rounded leaves with scalloped edges, and often has purple-tinged leaves when under stress? A) Creeping Charlie (Glechoma hederacea) B) White Clover (Trifolium repens) C) Florida Pusley (Richardia scabra) D) Yellow Wood Sorrel (Oxalis stricta) Answer: A 49. This grass weed has a distinctive “Y” shape at the leaf base and can grow upright in lawn turf. Which one is it? A) Crabgrass (Digitaria spp.) B) Sedge (Cyperus spp.) C) Goosegrass (Eleusine indica) D) Carpetgrass (Axonopus spp.) Answer: C 50. Which weed is most likely to thrive in poorly drained, compacted soils, often mistaken for turfgrass due to its thick growth? A) Annual ryegrass (Lolium multiflorum) B) Bahia grass (Paspalum notatum) C) Knotweed (Polygonum aviculare) D) Bittercress (Cardamine spp.) Answer: B (Integrated Pest Management) 51. Which of the following best describes the principle of "action threshold" in IPM? A) The level at which pest control actions should be initiated to prevent unacceptable damage B) The number of pests that can exist without any visible damage occurring C) The point at which a pest population causes visual damage but is not economically significant D) The maximum number of pests an environment can support without disrupting ecological balance Answer: A 52. What is the purpose of using an action threshold in an IPM strategy? A) To apply pesticides when any pests are detected B) To identify the maximum pest population an environment can support C) To minimize pesticide use by setting pest levels that trigger control only when necessary D) To prevent all pest-related damage to ornamental plants Answer: C (Pesticide Application Regulations) 53. According to Florida regulations, when is a pest control licensee required to notify FDAC? A) Within 24 hours of applying a restricted-use pesticide B) Within 5 business days of any change in business location C) Prior to every pesticide purchase D) Annually, during license renewal Answer: B 54. What is the recommended response if a pesticide application must occur, and it is forecasted to rain shortly after? A) Apply at half the label rate to prevent runoff B) Proceed with application since soil will absorb it C) Delay the application until conditions are favorable D) Apply at the edge of the application site to mitigate runoff Answer: C (Environmental Conditions & Pesticide Safety) 55. When using glyphosate-based herbicides, what is the recommended minimum waiting period before planting crops in treated areas? A) 5 days B) 7 days C) 3 days D) 10 days Answer: B 56. Which of the following practices is NOT recommended on glyphosate labels to avoid spray drift onto non-target plants? A) Lowering spray pressure B) Using larger nozzle droplet sizes C) Applying only during midday hours D) Adding a drift-control agent Answer: C (Final Calculation and IPM Questions) 57. What is the primary objective of calibrating pesticide application equipment? A) To increase pesticide potency B) To maximize chemical efficiency C) To ensure accurate application rates and reduce environmental impact D) To decrease application costs Answer: C (Integrated Pest Management & Cultural Control) 58. When implementing cultural control methods, which practice is most effective for managing a fungus-prone turf area? A) Applying heavy irrigation during the evening B) Watering in the morning to reduce leaf moisture C) Using nitrogen-rich fertilizer throughout the growing season D) Mowing the turf to a short height Answer: B 59. Which of these practices helps maintain beneficial insect populations while managing pest levels in an IPM system? A) Spraying broad-spectrum pesticides during peak pest activity B) Planting diverse species to attract natural predators C) Applying insecticides at full label rate without considering timing D) Mowing regularly to disrupt pest habitats Answer: B 60. Which pest control strategy has the lowest environmental impact while providing effective control in a residential lawn? A) Applying synthetic pesticides immediately upon seeing pest damage B) Using a selective insecticide only after identifying a specific pest C) Spraying fungicides every two weeks regardless of disease presence D) Applying systemic insecticides early as a preventive measure Answer: B (Weed Management & Identification) 61. Which of these weeds has a rosette growth pattern, leaves with a white midrib, and is commonly found in sandy soils? A) Chamberbitter (Phyllanthus urinaria) B) Common purslane (Portulaca oleracea) C) Plantain (Plantago spp.) D) Shepherd’s purse (Capsella bursa-pastoris) Answer: C 62. A perennial weed with bright yellow flowers and milky sap, often mistaken for dandelion, is identified as: A) Yellow rocket (Barbarea vulgaris) B) Curly dock (Rumex crispus) C) Sowthistle (Sonchus spp.) D) Horsenettle (Solanum carolinense) Answer: C 63. Known for producing sharp burrs that harm people and animals, which invasive weed is commonly found in disturbed areas? A) Burdock (Arctium spp.) B) Sandbur (Cenchrus spp.) C) Horseweed (Conyza canadensis) D) Common mallow (Malva neglecta) Answer: B (Insect Identification & Control) 64. Which insect primarily causes damage by piercing and sucking sap from ornamental plants, often leading to stunted growth? A) Whitefly B) Leaf miner C) Japanese beetle D) Cutworm Answer: A 65. Scale insects damage plants by removing sap. Which feature makes them particularly hard to control? A) Their ability to fly between plants B) Their waxy coating, protecting them from insecticides C) Their resistance to contact insecticides D) Their mobility across plant surfaces Answer: B 66. Which insect is known to secrete honeydew, leading to sooty mold growth on ornamental plants? A) Spider mite B) Grasshopper C) Scale insect D) Mole cricket Answer: C (Pesticide Regulations & Label Understanding) 67. Which of the following pesticide label terms indicates the highest toxicity? A) Warning B) Caution C) Hazardous D) Danger Answer: D 68. What is the primary purpose of a buffer zone in pesticide applications near sensitive areas? A) To increase pesticide effectiveness B) To meet regulatory standards C) To protect non-target organisms by minimizing drift D) To ensure uniform pesticide distribution Answer: C 69. According to Florida regulations, when must a pest control licensee notify FDAC? A) Within 24 hours of applying a restricted-use pesticide B) Within 5 business days of any business location change C) Prior to every pesticide purchase D) Annually, during license renewal Answer: B (Environmental Considerations in Pesticide Application) 70. Which factor most affects pesticide drift when applying to lawns or ornamental areas? A) Wind speed over 10 mph B) Droplet size and air movement C) Temperature and humidity levels D) Type of pesticide used Answer: B 71. How can droplet size affect drift potential in turf or ornamental pest control applications? A) Larger droplets are more likely to drift B) Droplet size doesn’t impact drift if wind speed is below 5 mph C) Smaller droplets are less likely to drift in high humidity D) Smaller droplets have a higher drift potential, especially in low humidity Answer: D 72. Which of these statements is true about minimizing drift when spraying in high temperatures? A) Using a fine spray reduces drift due to smaller droplets B) Applying in early morning or late afternoon avoids thermal inversions C) Increasing spray pressure reduces drift likelihood D) Drift is less likely in high temperatures regardless of other factors Answer: B (Radius & Diameter Calculations for Application Zones) 73. If a lawn area has a radius of 15 feet, what is its diameter? A) 7.5 feet B) 30 feet C) 15 feet D) 60 feet Answer: B 74. A tree canopy with a diameter of 20 feet has what radius? A) 5 feet B) 10 feet C) 15 feet D) 20 feet Answer: B 75. When setting up a pesticide-free zone around a tree with a 25-foot diameter canopy, what radius should you measure? A) 10 feet B) 12.5 feet C) 25 feet D) 50 feet Answer: B (Advanced Pest Control Principles & IPM) 76. Which is the most effective way to prevent pesticide resistance in a lawn and ornamental program? A) Rotate pesticides with different modes of action each season B) Apply a high dose consistently to ensure eradication C) Use pesticides only when populations exceed thresholds D) Combine synthetic and organic pesticides in a single treatment Answer: A 77. Which type of monitoring is most suitable for identifying the source of recurring pest infestations in plants? A) Visual inspection at the start of each season B) Sticky traps to monitor adult populations throughout the season C) Soil sampling near affected plants after damage occurs D) Regular inspection of host plants and nearby areas for pest stages Answer: D 78. What is the primary objective of calibrating pesticide application equipment? A) To increase pesticide potency B) To maximize chemical efficiency C) To ensure accurate application rates and reduce environmental impact D) To decrease application costs Answer: C (Miscellaneous Calculations & Scenarios) 79. A sprayer calibrated at 0.45 gallons per minute sprays for 50 minutes. How many gallons will be used? A) 21.25 gallons B) 22.5 gallons C) 22.75 gallons D) 23.5 gallons Answer: B 80. If a pesticide solution requires 2 fluid ounces of concentrate per gallon, how much concentrate is needed for 30 gallons of solution? A) 50 fluid ounces B) 55 fluid ounces C) 60 fluid ounces D) 65 fluid ounces Answer: C 81. A herbicide mix has a requirement of 4 pounds per acre. How many pounds are needed to treat 10 acres? A) 35 pounds B) 38 pounds C) 40 pounds D) 42 pounds Answer: C (Final Advanced IPM & Application Concepts) 82. Which cultural control practice is most effective in reducing weed invasion in turf? A) Mowing at the highest height for the species B) Fertilizing frequently during the growing season C) Applying herbicides monthly as a preventive measure D) Watering in the late evening for best soil penetration Answer: A 83. Which soil characteristic is most likely to increase herbicide leaching? A) High clay content B) Low permeability C) High sand content D) High organic matter Answer: C 84. Which statement about beneficial insects in IPM is correct? A) They are less effective in controlling pests than chemical methods B) They often have specific pest targets C) They are generally harmful to all landscape plants D) They only work in residential settings Answer: B (Advanced IPM & Pesticide Safety Protocols) 85. Which insect is typically nocturnal and uses chewing mouthparts to damage leaves of ornamental plants, leaving irregular holes? A) Cutworm B) Whitefly C) Thrips D) Aphid Answer: A 86. Insects like thrips can damage leaves, petals, and stems. What specific characteristic makes thrips a serious pest for ornamentals? A) Their ability to burrow into plant roots B) Their ability to spread viral diseases between plants C) Their preference for young plants D) Their resistance to systemic insecticides Answer: B 87. What is the primary factor influencing drift when applying pesticides to lawn or ornamental areas? A) Wind speed over 10 mph B) Droplet size and air movement C) Temperature and humidity level D) Type of pesticide used Answer: B 88. Which of the following statements is true about minimizing drift when spraying in high temperatures? A) Using a fine spray will reduce drift due to smaller droplet size B) Applying during early morning or late afternoon will avoid drift caused by thermal inversions C) Increasing the spray pressure reduces drift likelihood D) Drift is less likely to occur in high temperatures Answer: B 89. Which factor is critical in determining pesticide effectiveness on a target pest? A) Application timing and environmental conditions B) Amount of rainfall before application C) Frequency of pesticide application D) Time of day Answer: A (Special Scenarios & Emergency Protocols) 90. If a pesticide application is accidentally spilled on soil, what is the recommended cleanup protocol? A) Dilute it with water to prevent runoff B) Remove and dispose of contaminated soil properly C) Cover it with sand to absorb chemicals D) Apply another chemical to neutralize it Answer: B 91. Which practice can significantly reduce the potential for pesticide runoff? A) Applying pesticides during midday B) Using a low-pressure nozzle C) Avoiding application on compacted or saturated soils D) Increasing application frequency Answer: C 92. What is the most appropriate action if pesticide drift is suspected to have affected a neighboring property? A) Ignore it unless contacted B) Report it immediately and assess damage C) Reapply to ensure effectiveness D) Increase application rates next time Answer: B 93. Which PPE is generally required for handling restricted-use pesticides? A) Long-sleeve shirt and basic gloves B) Chemical-resistant gloves, goggles, and a respirator C) Standard gardening gloves and eyewear D) Single-layer gloves only Answer: B (Radius & Diameter Calculations for Coverage and Application) 94. If the radius of a circular application area is 8 feet, what is the total diameter? A) 4 feet B) 8 feet C) 12 feet D) 16 feet Answer: D 95. You need to cover a lawn area with a radius of 6 feet. What is the approximate diameter? A) 3 feet B) 6 feet C) 9 feet D) 12 feet Answer: D 96. A pesticide application zone has a radius of 10 feet. What is the diameter of this zone? A) 5 feet B) 10 feet C) 15 feet D) 20 feet Answer: D 97. When using glyphosate-based herbicides, what is the recommended minimum waiting period before planting crops in treated areas? A) 5 days B) 7 days C) 3 days D) 10 days Answer: B (Miscellaneous Situational Questions) 98. Which of these practices reduces pesticide resistance most effectively in an IPM program? A) Regular use of one pesticide type B) Alternating pesticides with different modes of action C) Avoiding pesticide use altogether D) Combining organic and synthetic pesticides Answer: B 99. When calibrating application equipment, why is it important to maintain consistent speed and pressure? A) To ensure maximum chemical concentration B) To prevent under- or over-application C) To guarantee that the pesticide reaches deeper soil layers D) To ensure faster pest eradication Answer: B 100. Which insect primarily damages warm-season grasses by sucking plant sap, leading to a yellowing or browning effect? A) Chinch bugs B) Spider mites C) Aphids D) Leaf miners Answer: A