Laundry List Exam 4 PDF

Laundry list exam 4 Cardiac 1. Basic structure and function of the cardiovascular system a. Heart is a pump with 5 vessels, 4 chambers, and 4 valves i. Vessels: aorta, pulmonary arteries, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary arteries...

Laundry list exam 4 Cardiac 1. Basic structure and function of the cardiovascular system a. Heart is a pump with 5 vessels, 4 chambers, and 4 valves i. Vessels: aorta, pulmonary arteries, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary arteries ii. Chambers: Right and left atrium and right and left ventricles iii. Valves: Tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral (bicuspid), and aortic valve b. Functions of the cardiovascular system are to transport, communicate, immunity, coagulation, and temperature 2. Mean arterial pressure and cardiac output and stroke volume a. MAP= Cardiac output x Total peripheral resistance b. CO= Heart rate x stroke volume c. SV= end diastolic volume – end systolic volume 3. Medications and how they are used: a. Calcium channel blockers reduce afterload b. nitroglycerin helps promote vasodilation c. supplemental oxygen helps with gas exchange, -lol drugs 4. Hypertension: differences between hyper and hypotension and know about hypertensive crisis a. Hypertension: high blood pressure i. Primary hypertension: high blood pressure with no identifiable cause developing gradually ii. Secondary hypertension: high blood pressure caused by an underlying condition, developing suddenly b. Hypotension: low blood pressure c. Hypertensive crisis: severe and sudden increase in blood pressure that can lead to serious complications and be fatal 5. Tachycardia and bradycardia, Afib has an increased risk of stroke a. Tachycardia: Condition where the heart beats fast, above 100 BPM b. Bradycardia: Condition where the heart beats slow, below 60 BPM 6. Hypertension often has an issue with atherosclerosis and increases resistance which causes an increase in blood pressure 7. Medications may affect the renal system 8. Hyperlipidemia, what is good cholesterol vs bad cholesterol a. Hyperlipidemia is elevated cholesterol and triglycerides i. Primary hyperlipidemia: familial, genetic condition  ii. Secondary hyperlipidemia: acquired condition due to underlying factors/diseases b. LDL: “bad cholesterol” lower proteins and higher cholesterol c. HDL: “good cholesterol” higher proteins and lower cholesterol 9. Know the difference between true and false aneurysm and saccular and fusiform a. Aneurysm: localized dilation of an artery caused by weakening of the artery wall i. True aneurysm: all three layers of an artery ii. False aneurysm: collection of blood confined by the surrounding tissue iii. Saccular: spherical iv. Fusiform: spindle-shaped 10. Know the 3 basic categories for the Virchow’s triad a. Venous stasis b. Hypercoagulability c. Venous damage 11. Discern top four disturbances with vascular disease a. Vasculitides: a heterogeneous group of diseases characterized by inflammation of blood vessels b. Peripheral vascular disease: abnormal narrowing of arteries other than those that supply the heart or brain c. Thromboangiitis obliterans: recurrent, progressive inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium vessels of hands and feet d. Raynaud phenomenon: spasms of arteries cause episodes of reduced blood flow that can be triggered by cold or emotional stress 12. Know venous pathology a. Varicose veins: superficial veins that are enlarged and twisted b. Chronic venous insufficiency: pooling of blood in the veins c. Venous stasis ulcers: skin wound resulting from chronic venous insufficiency d. Venous thrombosis: blood clot in a vein 13. PVD and underlying risk factors a. PVD is an abnormal narrowing of arteries other than those that supply the heart or brain; atherosclerosis contributes to this b. Risk factors include smoking, diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia i. Smoking results in vascular changes and damage ii. Hypertension can lead to increased force that can damage vessels  iii. Diabetes can lead to endothelial dysfunction 14. Complications of PVD include: a. Ischemia, gangrene, numbness, ulcers, tissue loss 15. Know what coronary artery disease is a. Coronary artery disease: narrowing of coronary arteries (equivalent to ischemic heart disease) 16. Pericarditis: the difference between acute, constrictive, and complications a. Pericarditis: inflammation of the pericardium i. Acute: caused by viral infection ii. Constrictive: abnormal scarring that impairs ventricular filling and decreases cardiac output b. Complications of pericarditis include: i. Pericardial effusion: increased pericardial fluid ii. Cardiac tamponade: fluid accumulation in pericardial space under positive pressure that leads to cardiac compression and hemodynamic compromise 17. Know STEMI and NSTEMI with myocardial infarction a. STEMI: severe, complete blockage of coronary artery b. NSTEMI: not severe, partial blockage 18. Know Acute coronary syndrome and angina pectoris a. Acute coronary syndrome is a group of diseases that include: i. Unstable angina (irregular) ii. Myocardial infarction iii. Heart failure (cor pulmonale (Right side)) and congestive heart failure (left side) 19. Cardiomyopathies: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive a. Cardiomyopathies: disease of heart muscle i. Dilated: dilation; damage, autosomal dominant or X-linked form ii. Hypertrophic: hypertrophy usually caused by genetic mutations; common cause of sudden cardiac death in young iii. Restrictive: rare, rigid ventricular walls, can be caused by endocarditis 20. Know the valves of the heart and the location a. Tricuspid Valve: Located between the right atrium and right ventricle, this valve ensures that blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle without backflow.  b. Pulmonary Valve: Positioned between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, it controls blood flow from the right ventricle to the lungs, where blood is oxygenated. c. Mitral Valve: Also known as the bicuspid valve, it is found between the left atrium and left ventricle. It ensures that blood flows from the left atrium to the left ventricle without any backflow. d. Aortic Valve: Located between the left ventricle and the aorta, this valve controls blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta, which then distributes oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. 21. Mitral valve stenosis, rheumatic valvular heart disease, and previous bacterial infection, signs and symptoms a. Mitral valve stenosis: a condition where the mitral valve becomes narrowed. b. Rheumatic valvular heart disease: is a condition where the heart valves are damaged due to rheumatic fever, an inflammatory disease caused by untreated or inadequately treated strep throat or scarlet fever 22. Know right-sided failure and left-sided failure a. Right-sided: leads to fluid back up in preceding circuit: vena cava, portal circulation, increased hydrostatic pressure leads to ascites, edema, and hepatomegaly b. Left-sided: shortness of breath, cough, and hemoptysis can lead to increased fluid in the lungs 23. Know systolic vs. diastolic dysfunction and shock a. Systolic: The left ventricle can’t pump enough blood during systole and ejection fraction fails b. Diastolic: left ventricle can’t relax and fill during diastole, and stroke volume fails c. Shock: failure to perfuse vital organs and tissue i. Distributive vasodilation ii. Cardiogenic: heart failure iii. Hypovolemic: inadequate blood volume iv. Obstructive: blood flow impeded by physical or mechanical obstruction 24. Hypovolemic shock: treatment is blood transfusion GI 1. Esophagus: know GERD, esophagitis, gastritis, hiatal hernia, dysphagia, Barrett’s esophagus a. Esophagitis: inflammation of the esophagus  b. Barrett’s esophagus: metaplasia of the esophagus that increases the risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma c. Dysphagia: difficulty swallowing, narrowing (obstruction, strictures, tumors), lack of salivary secretion, neuromuscular d. Hiatal hernia: stomach protrusion above the diaphragm; asymptomatic/chest pain, palpitation, and difficulty swallowing e. GERD: return of gastric contents into the esophagus, increased abdominal pressure f. Gastritis: inflammation of the stomach lining 2. Peptic ulcer disease: antibody test (ELISA), guaiac test for a bleeding ulcer, treatments a. Peptic ulcer disease: compromise or break of the stomach lining commonly caused by H. pylori infection 3. Gastroenteritis: inflammation of the GI tract a. Can be caused by infection, viral bacteria like E. coli 4. IBS and chronic inflammatory bowel diseases a. IBS: noninflammatory, variable combination of constipation/diarrhea b. Inflammatory bowel disease: chronic inflammation of the GI tract c. Crohn’s disease: skip lesions and all three layers; any regions of the GI tract d. Ulcerative colitis: confluence and mucosal layer only, confined to the colon 5. Chronic diarrhea: osmotic, secretory, motility a. Osmotic: osmotic shift (lactose intolerance) b. Secretory: extra fluid (Zollinger-Ellison) c. Motility: innervation 6. GI bleeds a. Upper: hematemesis, melena b. Lower: hematochezia, occult 7. Celiac disease: iron malabsorption and calcium malabsorption a. Celiac disease: response to gluten, autoimmune response, malabsorption i. Calcium malabsorption can lead to osteopenia ii. Iron malabsorption can lead to anemia 8. Jaundice: prehepatic, hepatic, post hepatic a. Jaundice: icterus of skin, sclerae, mucous membrane from hyperbilirubinemia b. Prehepatic: overproduction, impaired uptake by the liver c. Hepatic: decrease conjugation d. Post hepatic: decreased excretion  9. Different causes of disorders of the liver a. Drug-induced (acetaminophen) b. Alcohol c. Non-alcohol (fatty liver disease) d. Hepatitis (infection) 10. Liver cirrhosis and biotransformation a. Liver cirrhosis: irreversible liver damage b. Biotransformation: drug metabolism, a process by which the body converts drugs and substances into more water-soluble compounds that can easily be eliminated 11. Gallbladder and gallstones: cholelithiasis and cholecystitis a. Cholelithiasis: formation of gallstones, precipitation of cholesterol and bilirubin i. Risk factors: obesity, pregnancy, and being female b. Cholecystitis inflammation of the gallbladder typically in response to bile duct obstruction 12. Pancreatitis: acute vs. chronic a. Acute: reversible inflammation: mild or severe i. Risk factors: alcohol, gallstones, ARDS, fat necrosis, shock, MODS b. Chronic: irreversible inflammation, progressive i. Risk factors: Type 1 diabetes, chronic alcoholics, persistent cholelithiasis 13. Cancer: The liver is a state of secondary tumors, gallbladder and pancreatic have poor outcomes for cancer Muscle, bone, and skin 1. Excitation contraction coupling: know anaerobic and aerobic processes and know tests of the muscle a. Process by which an electrical stimulus leads to muscle contraction i. Aerobic: occurs in the presence of oxygen, and produces ATP through the breakdown of glucose, fatty acids, or amino acids ii. Anaerobic: occurs in the absence of oxygen, produces ATP through glycolysis, quick energy production but less efficient, byproduct is lactic acid b. Tests of the muscle include electromyography, muscle biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, blood tests 2. Skeletal muscle disorders a. Energy/fuel issues = glycogen storage disorders (metabolic disorders caused by enzyme deficiencies altering glycogen storage or breakdown)  b. Structure issue: Muscular dystrophy (group of genetic disorders that cause muscle weakness and loss of muscle mass) c. Nerve issues: denervation atrophy, myasthenia gravis (autoimmune; compromise to nicotinic receptors), periodic paralysis d. Trauma issues: rhabdomyolysis (breakdown of muscle fibers) 3. Myasthenia gravis and EMG testing and know that this is an autoimmune disease. Treatments. a. Autoantibodies bind key molecules at the neuromuscular junction preventing excitation-contraction coupling and, thus, muscle weakness b. Treatments include: corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, thymectomy, ACH inhibitors 4. Know the four phases of bone fracture repair a. Hematoma b. Fibrocartilage callus c. Bony callus d. Remodeling 5. Osteoblasts/osteoclasts a. Osteoblasts: bone formation (building) b. Osteoclasts: break down bone (chew) 6. Complications under infection a. Infection (osteomyelitis) b. Altered bone union (delayed, non, mal) c. Fat embolism d. Nerve damage e. Compartment syndrome 7. Metabolic bone diseases a. Osteoporosis: metabolic bone disease leading to loss of bone density b. Paget’s disease: a metabolic bone disease that interferes with recycling process c. Osteomalacia: metabolic bone softening most often caused by severe vitamin D deficiency d. Rickets: metabolic bone softening in children due to lack of vitamin D or calcium 8. Osteoporosis: major risk factor and know non-modifiable/modifiable a. Modifiable risk factors: diet, smoking, sedentary lifestyle b. Non-modifiable risk factors: age, female, postmenopausal 9. Joint disorders: osteoarthritis and rheumatoid differences and treatments  a. Osteoarthritis: a degenerative joint disease characterized by joint cartilage and underlying bone degeneration that happens over time and most commonly affects knee, hip, spine, finger, and toe joints. Wear and tear of joints; mechanical breakdown and degeneration can be asymmetrical in destruction b. Rheumatoid arthritis: autoimmune, symmetrical; joints hot/red 10. Skin functions and layers and types of lesions a. Skin functions: protection from mechanical, chemical, microbial, UV, thermal, desiccation damage, temperature regulation, excretion (urea, uric acid), vitamin D synthesis b. Layers: epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous (hypodermis) c. Lesions i. Macules: Flat, discolored spots such as freckles or moles. ii. Papules: Small, raised bumps like those seen in acne or warts. iii. Vesicles: Fluid-filled blisters, as seen in chickenpox or herpes. iv. Nodules: Larger, solid lumps under the skin, often caused by cysts or lipomas. v. Pustules: Similar to vesicles but containing pus, common in bacterial infections like acne 11. Know pigments a. Oxygenated/deoxygenated b. Carotene c. Melanin 12. Skin burns and degrees a. First degree: superficial (epidermis) b. Second degree: partial thickness (superficial partial and deep partial) (epidermis and part of dermis) c. Third degree: full thickness (epidermis and full dermis) d. Fourth degree: all skin and some of hypodermis 13. Benign and malignant tumors and ABCDE a. Benign: non-cancerous b. Malignant: cancerous c. ABCDE: i. Asymmetry: one half of the mole or spot does not match the other half ii. Border: the edges are irregular, ragged, notched or blurred  iii. Color: the color is not uniform and may include shades of brown, black, pink, red, white, or blue iv. Diameter: the spot is larger than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser) v. Evolving: the mole is changing in size, shape or color Comprehensive Multiple-Choice Exam Cardiovascular System 1. Which of the following are the five main vessels of the heart? a. Aorta, pulmonary veins, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary artery b. Aorta, pulmonary arteries, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary veins c. Aorta, pulmonary veins, left coronary artery, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava d. Aorta, pulmonary arteries, left coronary artery, right coronary artery, pulmonary veins 2. What is the formula for calculating cardiac output? a. Stroke volume × End diastolic volume b. Heart rate × Stroke volume c. Stroke volume ÷ Total peripheral resistance d. Heart rate × Mean arterial pressure 3. Which medication is primarily used to promote vasodilation in cardiac patients? a. Nitroglycerin  b. Metoprolol c. Furosemide d. Lisinopril 4. What differentiates primary hypertension from secondary hypertension? a. Primary hypertension occurs due to lifestyle choices; secondary hypertension has no cause. b. Primary hypertension has no identifiable cause; secondary hypertension is caused by an underlying condition. c. Primary hypertension develops suddenly; secondary hypertension develops gradually. d. Primary hypertension only affects older adults; secondary hypertension only affects children. 5. A patient with tachycardia is likely to have a heart rate of: a. Below 60 BPM b. 60-100 BPM c. Above 100 BPM d. Fluctuating between 60 and 100 BPM 6. Which type of cholesterol is considered "bad cholesterol"? a. HDL b. LDL c. Triglycerides d. VLDL 7. Which of the following describes a false aneurysm? a. Localized dilation of an artery involving all three layers of the arterial wall b. Localized dilation confined by surrounding tissue rather than the arterial wall c. Spherical-shaped dilation of the arterial wall d. Spindle-shaped dilation of the arterial wall  8. Virchow’s triad includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. Venous stasis b. Hypercoagulability c. Endothelial injury d. Thrombocytopenia Gastrointestinal System 9. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Barrett’s esophagus? a. Chronic use of NSAIDs b. Untreated GERD c. Frequent alcohol use d. Diet high in fiber 10. What is a characteristic finding of Crohn’s disease? a. Inflammation confined to the mucosal layer b. Inflammation in continuous sections of the GI tract c. Involvement of all layers of the GI tract with skip lesions d. Limited to the rectum and sigmoid colon 11. A patient presenting with hematemesis is most likely experiencing which type of GI bleed? a. Upper GI bleed b. Lower GI bleed c. Occult GI bleed d. Rectal bleed 12. Which type of chronic diarrhea is caused by a malabsorption issue, such as lactose intolerance? a. Secretory b. Osmotic  c. Motility d. Inflammatory Muscle, Bone, and Skin 13. Which metabolic bone disorder is caused by severe vitamin D deficiency? a. Osteoporosis b. Paget’s disease c. Osteomalacia d. Rickets 14. What is the correct sequence for bone fracture repair? a. Bony callus → Hematoma → Remodeling → Fibrocartilage callus b. Hematoma → Fibrocartilage callus → Bony callus → Remodeling c. Fibrocartilage callus → Hematoma → Remodeling → Bony callus d. Hematoma → Bony callus → Remodeling → Fibrocartilage callus 15. Which autoimmune disease involves antibodies blocking receptors at the neuromuscular junction? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Myasthenia gravis c. Guillain-Barré syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis 16. What does the “B” in the ABCDE rule for melanoma detection represent? a. Benign b. Border irregularity c. Black pigmentation d. Blistering General Pathology  17. What is the main difference between systolic and diastolic dysfunction? a. Systolic dysfunction is the inability to relax; diastolic dysfunction is the inability to contract. b. Systolic dysfunction occurs during filling; diastolic dysfunction occurs during ejection. c. Systolic dysfunction occurs when the left ventricle cannot pump blood effectively; diastolic dysfunction occurs when the left ventricle cannot relax and fill properly. d. Systolic dysfunction results in increased stroke volume; diastolic dysfunction results in decreased stroke volume. 18. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of right-sided heart failure? a. Ascites b. Peripheral edema c. Hepatomegaly d. Hemoptysis 19. Which type of shock is caused by a lack of blood volume? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Obstructive shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Distributive shock 20. What is the primary treatment for hypovolemic shock? a. Vasopressors b. Blood transfusion c. Diuretics d. Supplemental oxygen https://quizlet.com/984093401/comprehensive-review-of-cardiovascular-an d-gi-systems-flash-cards/