L7,9 QS BANK, BMS201.pdf

Part One: Simple MCQs 1. What is the definitive host for malaria parasites? a) Human b) Mosquito c) Both human and mosquito d) None of the above 2. Which stage of the malaria parasite is injected into the human host by the mosquito? a) Merozoite b) Sporozoite c) Gametocyte d) Ookinete 3. Where...

Part One: Simple MCQs 1. What is the definitive host for malaria parasites? a) Human b) Mosquito c) Both human and mosquito d) None of the above 2. Which stage of the malaria parasite is injected into the human host by the mosquito? a) Merozoite b) Sporozoite c) Gametocyte d) Ookinete 3. Where does the exo-erythrocytic schizogony of malaria parasites occur? a) Red blood cells b) Liver cells c) Mosquito gut d) Mosquito salivary glands 4. What is the term for the dormant stage of P. vivax and P. ovale in the liver? a) Sporozoite b) Merozoite c) Hypnozoite d) Gametocyte 5. Which stage of the malaria parasite is responsible for the cyclical fever in patients? a) Ring stage b) Trophozoite c) Schizont d) Gametocyte 6. What is the name of the pigment produced by malaria parasites as they digest hemoglobin? a) Melanin b) Hemozoin c) Hemosiderin d) Bilirubin 7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of P. falciparum infection? a) Maurer's clefts b) Knob-like projections on infected RBCs c) Schuffner's dots d) Cytoadherence 8. Which stage of the malaria parasite is infectious to the mosquito? a) Ring stage b) Trophozoite c) Schizont d) Gametocyte 9. Where does the sexual cycle (sporogony) of the malaria parasite take place? a) Human liver b) Human red blood cells c) Mosquito gut d) Mosquito salivary glands 10. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for malaria? a) Bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito b) Blood transfusion c) Sharing food with an infected person d) Transplacental transmission 11. What is the average duration of the erythrocytic cycle in P. vivax and P. ovale? a) 24 hours b) 48 hours c) 72 hours d) 96 hours 12. Which species of Plasmodium is associated with the formation of rosettes? a) P. vivax b) P. ovale c) P. malariae d) P. falciparum 13. Which of the following is NOT a cause of anemia in malaria? a) Destruction of parasitized RBCs b) Increased red blood cell production c) Decreased erythropoiesis d) Shortened red cell survival 14. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of tropical splenomegaly syndrome (TSS)? a) Absence of parasites in peripheral blood b) Low titers of anti-malaria antibodies c) Microcytic hypochromic anemia d) Splenomegaly without hepatomegaly 15. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for severe malaria? a) Decreased consciousness b) Two or more convulsions c) High blood pressure d) Kidney failure 16. What is the term for the recurrence of malaria symptoms due to the reactivation of hypnozoites in the liver? a) Recrudescence b) Relapse c) Reinfection d) Remission 17. Which Plasmodium species is associated with nephrotic syndrome? a) P. vivax b) P. ovale c) P. malariae d) P. falciparum 18. Which of the following diagnostic methods is considered the "gold standard" for malaria? a) Serological tests b) PCR c) Microscopic examination of blood smears d) Clinical symptoms 19. What is the mechanism of action of primaquine? a) Blood schizonticidal b) Tissue schizonticidal c) Transmission blocking d) All of the above 20. Which of the following is NOT a vector control strategy for malaria? a) Insecticide-treated bed nets b) Indoor residual spraying c) Mass drug administration d) Use of repellents Part One: Simple MCQs Answer Guide  1. c 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. C Part Two: Complex MCQs 1. A patient presents with cyclical fever, chills, and sweating. Microscopic examination of a blood smear reveals ring-shaped trophozoites in red blood cells. Which species of Plasmodium is most likely responsible for this infection? a) P. vivax b) P. falciparum c) P. malariae d) P. ovale 2. A pregnant woman living in a malaria-endemic region is diagnosed with P. falciparum infection. What is the most significant concern in this case? a) Increased risk of placental malaria and complications for both mother and fetus b) Delayed onset of symptoms due to pregnancy c) Resistance to antimalarial drugs d) Absence of fever in the mother 3. A patient with P. vivax malaria experiences a relapse of symptoms six months after the initial infection. What is the most likely explanation for this? a) Reinfection with a different Plasmodium species b) Recrudescence of the original infection c) Reactivation of hypnozoites in the liver d) Development of drug resistance 4. A patient with P. falciparum malaria develops cerebral malaria. Which pathological feature is responsible for this severe complication? a) Sequestration of parasitized RBCs in the brain capillaries b) Destruction of red blood cells leading to anemia c) Release of toxins from the parasite d) Immune-mediated inflammation 5. A patient with P. malariae infection develops nephrotic syndrome. Explain the mechanism behind this complication. a) Immune complex deposition in the glomeruli b) Direct invasion of the kidneys by the parasite c) Obstruction of renal tubules by parasitized RBCs d) Decreased blood flow to the kidneys due to anemia 6. A child presents with fever, splenomegaly, and anemia. Blood smear examination reveals multiple ring-shaped trophozoites in red blood cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) P. falciparum malaria b) P. vivax malaria c) P. malariae malaria d) P. ovale malaria 7. A traveler returning from a malaria-endemic area experiences fever, chills, and headache a week after arrival. What is the next step in diagnosis? a) Prescribe antimalarial drugs empirically b) Order a blood smear for microscopic examination c) Perform a serological test for malaria antibodies d) Wait for symptoms to resolve on their own 8. Why is it important to differentiate between different Plasmodium species in a malaria patient? a) To determine the appropriate treatment regimen b) To predict the severity of the illness c) To assess the risk of relapse d) All of the above 9. What is the mechanism of action of chloroquine? a) It inhibits heme polymerization in the parasite's food vacuole b) It prevents the invasion of red blood cells by the parasite c) It blocks the transmission of the parasite to the mosquito d) It stimulates the host's immune system to attack the parasite 10. Why is primaquine added to the treatment regimen for P. vivax and P. ovale infections? a) To prevent relapse by killing hypnozoites in the liver b) To enhance the blood schizonticidal activity of chloroquine c) To treat severe complications like cerebral malaria d) To prevent transmission to mosquitoes 11. What is the role of vector control in malaria prevention? a) To reduce the mosquito population b) To prevent mosquito bites c) To eliminate the breeding sites of mosquitoes d) All of the above 12. A patient with P. falciparum malaria develops severe anemia. What is the most likely cause? a) Destruction of parasitized RBCs b) Suppression of erythropoiesis c) Iron deficiency d) Hemorrhage 13. What is the significance of Schuffner's dots in a blood smear? a) They indicate infection with P. falciparum b) They are associated with P. vivax and P. ovale infections c) They are a sign of severe malaria d) They are seen in all Plasmodium species 14. How does malaria affect the immune system? a) It suppresses the immune response, making individuals more susceptible to other infections b) It causes hyperactivation of the immune system, leading to tissue damage c) It has no effect on the immune system d) It stimulates the production of protective antibodies 15. What is the impact of malaria on pregnancy? a) It increases the risk of maternal and fetal complications b) It has no effect on pregnancy outcomes c) It protects against other infections during pregnancy d) It reduces the risk of premature birth Answer Guide Part Two 1. a 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a Done