Rheumatic Fever Quiz Questions PDF

Okay, I'm ready to design a professional and organized quiz based on the provided lecture on Rheumatic Fever. Here's a quiz divided into two parts, with varying difficulty levels, and a focus on important learning outcomes: Part One: Simple MCQs 1. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is primaril...

Okay, I'm ready to design a professional and organized quiz based on the provided lecture on Rheumatic Fever. Here's a quiz divided into two parts, with varying difficulty levels, and a focus on important learning outcomes: Part One: Simple MCQs 1. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is primarily associated with the pathogenesis of Rheumatic Fever? a) Type I Hypersensitivity b) Type II Hypersensitivity c) Type III Hypersensitivity d) Type IV Hypersensitivity 2. Which age group is most commonly affected by Rheumatic Fever? a) Infants (0-2 years) b) Toddlers (2-5 years) c) Children (5-15 years) d) Adults (25-40 years) 3. Which specific bacteria is responsible for triggering Rheumatic Fever? a) Group B Streptococcus b) Group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Streptococcus pneumoniae 4. What is the characteristic microscopic finding associated with Rheumatic Fever? a) Aschoff bodies b) Reed-Sternberg cells c) Granulomas d) Negri bodies 5. Which layer of the heart is NOT affected in Rheumatic carditis? a) Endocardium b) Myocardium c) Pericardium d) None of the above 6. What is the most common site of valvular involvement in Rheumatic endocarditis? a) Aortic valve b) Tricuspid valve c) Pulmonary valve d) Mitral valve 7. What is the term for the characteristic skin rash associated with Rheumatic Fever? a) Erythema marginatum b) Psoriasis c) Eczema d) Hives 8. Which neurological disorder is a major manifestation of Rheumatic Fever? a) Meningitis b) Encephalitis c) Chorea  d) Stroke 9. What is the typical size of a Rheumatic subcutaneous nodule? a) 0.5 - 1 cm b) 2 - 3 cm c) 5 - 10 cm d) 10 - 15 cm 10. Which of the following is NOT a minor Jones criterion for the diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever? a) Carditis b) Arthralgia c) Fever d) Elevated ESR/CRP Part Two: Complex MCQs 1. Explain the concept of "molecular mimicry" in the pathogenesis of Rheumatic Fever. a) The immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own tissues due to similarities between bacterial and host antigens. b) The bacteria mimic the body's immune response to evade destruction. c) The body's tissues mimic the bacterial antigens, leading to an autoimmune response. d) The bacteria directly damage the heart valves, causing inflammation. 2. Why does Rheumatic Fever predominantly affect the heart, joints, skin, and CNS? a) These tissues have a high concentration of immune cells. b) These tissues are more susceptible to bacterial infections. c) These tissues share antigenic similarities with the causative bacteria. d) These tissues are more sensitive to inflammatory damage. 3. Why is the mitral valve the most common site of valvular involvement in Rheumatic heart disease? a) It is the largest valve in the heart. b) It is located on the left side of the heart, which has higher pressure. c) It is more susceptible to bacterial infections. d) It has a thinner structure compared to other valves. 4. How does Rheumatic pericarditis typically present? a) Asymptomatic b) Chest pain that worsens on leaning forward c) Chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward d) Shortness of breath 5. What is the long-term consequence of Rheumatic myocarditis? a) Permanent heart failure  b) Complete resolution with no complications c) Valvular stenosis d) Subacute bacterial endocarditis 6. Why are vegetations in acute Rheumatic endocarditis less likely to embolize compared to those in infective endocarditis? a) They are smaller and more adherent to the valve. b) They are composed of different materials. c) They are located on a different part of the valve. d) They are caused by a different type of bacteria. 7. What are the potential complications of chronic Rheumatic valvular disease? a) Heart failure b) Stroke c) Atrial fibrillation d) All of the above 8. Why is subacute bacterial endocarditis a potential complication of Rheumatic heart disease? a) Damaged heart valves provide a site for bacterial colonization. b) Rheumatic Fever weakens the immune system. c) Rheumatic Fever causes inflammation of the endocardium. d) Rheumatic Fever increases the risk of bacterial infections. 9. How does mitral stenosis lead to pulmonary hypertension? a) It causes back pressure on the lungs, leading to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries. b) It reduces blood flow to the lungs, causing the pulmonary arteries to constrict. c) It damages the pulmonary arteries, leading to increased resistance to blood flow. d) It causes the lungs to become inflamed, leading to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries. 10. What is the significance of the "fish mouth" or "button hole" appearance in mitral stenosis? a) It indicates severe narrowing of the mitral valve. b) It is a sign of mitral valve prolapse. c) It suggests a high risk of subacute bacterial endocarditis. d) It is a characteristic finding in acute Rheumatic endocarditis. 11. What is the primary cause of death during an acute attack of Rheumatic Fever? a) Stroke b) Myocarditis c) Pericarditis d) Endocarditis 12. Why is Sydenham's chorea more common in young girls? a) Hormonal factors play a role in the susceptibility to chorea. b) Girls are more likely to develop Rheumatic Fever. c) The basal ganglia are more sensitive to inflammation in girls. d) The reason is unknown. 13. What is the significance of the time lag between streptococcal pharyngitis and the onset of Rheumatic Fever? a) It represents the time required for the bacteria to reach the heart. b) It reflects the time needed for the immune system to mount an antibody response. c) It indicates the severity of the initial infection. d) It determines the likelihood of developing Rheumatic heart disease. 14. Why are Rheumatic subcutaneous nodules non-tender? a) They are located in areas with low nerve endings. b) They are composed of fibrous tissue, which is not sensitive to pain. c) They are surrounded by inflammatory cells, which suppress pain signals. d) They are not directly caused by bacterial infection. 15. Why is the recurrence of Rheumatic Fever a concern? a) Each episode can cause further damage to the heart. b) It increases the risk of developing other autoimmune diseases. c) It weakens the immune system, making the individual more susceptible to infections. d) It can lead to chronic arthritis. 16. What is the role of genetic predisposition in the development of Rheumatic Fever? a) Certain genes increase the susceptibility to streptococcal infections. b) Genetic factors influence the immune response to streptococcal antigens. c) Some genes make individuals more prone to developing heart valve abnormalities. d) Genetic predisposition is not involved in the development of Rheumatic Fever. 17. What type of inflammatory response is observed in Rheumatic carditis? a) Acute inflammation b) Chronic inflammation c) Granulomatous inflammation d) A combination of acute and chronic inflammation 18. Why does Rheumatic endocarditis primarily affect the left side of the heart? a) The left side has higher pressure and oxygen content. b) The left side is more susceptible to bacterial infections. c) The left side has thinner valves. d) The reason is unknown. 19. What is the main difference between Aschoff bodies and other types of granulomas? a) Aschoff bodies are only found in the heart. b) Aschoff bodies are smaller and contain unique Aschoff giant cells. c) Aschoff bodies are caused by a different type of immune response. d) Aschoff bodies are not true granulomas. 20. Why is early diagnosis and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis crucial in preventing Rheumatic Fever? a) It reduces the bacterial load and minimizes the risk of an autoimmune reaction. b) It prevents the bacteria from spreading to the heart. c) It strengthens the immune system to fight the infection. d) It reduces the severity of the initial symptoms. Answer Guide Part One 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. a Part Two 1. a 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. b  14. d 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. a Done