NEET Level Test - 16- Jun PDF

NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 Physics - Section A 5 A vehicle travels east for 6 km, then south...

NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 Physics - Section A 5 A vehicle travels east for 6 km, then south for 8 km without stopping. If the trip takes 15 min, what is the A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity v0 from the magnitude of the average velocity in km/h? 1 1. 40 ground at an angle θ with the horizontal direction. Which of 2. 20 the following statements is correct during its entire journey? 3. 56 (ignoring air resistance) 4. 14 Horizontal component of the linear momentum of the 1. projectile is constant during its motion. A particle is displaced through (3^i + 4^j) m by force 6 2. Velocity of the projectile is zero at the maximum height. 2^i N. The work done is: Acceleration of the projectile is zero at the maximum 3. 1. 14 J height. 2. 8 J Displacement of the projectile in a horizontal direction is 3. 6 J 4. zero. 4. 10 J 2 A 2 kg block slides down a 30∘ incline, as shown below, Given below are two statements: 7 2 with an acceleration of 2 m/s. We can get displacement from the Statement I: acceleration-time graph. We can get acceleration from the velocity-time Statement II: graph. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. The magnitude of the frictional force along the plane is: (take 4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. g = 10 m/s2) 1. 2.5 N 8 A force of 10 N stretches a spring that has a spring 2. 5 N constant of 20 N/m. The potential energy stored in the spring 3. 6 N is: 4. 10 N 1. 2.5 J 2. 5.0 J 3 The diameter of a thin wire is measured by: 3. 10 J 1. Screw gauge 4. 40 J 2. Spherometer 3. Spectrometer 9 A man is standing in a lift that goes up and down with the 4. Venturimeter same constant acceleration. If the ratio of the apparent weights in two cases is 2 : 1, then the acceleration of the lift is 4 The velocity of a particle at any instant is given by the (nearly): equation v→ = (2t^i + 3t2 ^j) m/s, and the radius of the 1. 1.67 ms −2 curvature of the path is 2 m. The centripetal acceleration of 2. 2.50 ms −2 the particle at t = 2 s will be: −2 3. 3.33 ms 1. 80 m/s2 −2 4. 5 ms 2. 160 m/s2 3. 40 m/s2 4. 100 m/s2 Page: 1  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 10 A spring has a force constant of 100 N/m and an 13 A block of mass m is attached to an unstretched spring unstretched length of 0.07 m. One end is attached to a post with a spring constant k placed on a smooth horizontal table. that is free to rotate in the centre of a smooth table, as shown The block is now pulled to a displacement of xm and then in the top view. The other end is attached to a 1 kg disc released. The maximum speed it will attain will be: moving in uniform circular motion on the table, which √ xm √ xm k m stretches the spring by 0.03 m. Friction is negligible. 1. 2. m k k m 3. xm 4. xm m k 14 The velocity of projection of an oblique projectile is v→ = (3^i + 2^j) ms-1. The speed of the projectile at the highest point of the trajectory is: 1. 3 ms-1 2. 2 ms-1 3. 1 ms-1 4. zero 15 A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of negligible mass What is the work done on the disc by the spring during one full circle? and a length of 2 m from the ceiling. A force of 60 N in the 1. 0 J horizontal direction is applied at the mid-point P of the rope 2. 94 J (see figure). The angle the rope makes with the vertical in 3. 186 J equilibrium is: −2 4. 314 J (take g = 10 ms ) 11 Given below are two statements: The relative velocity between any two bodies Assertion (A): may be equal to the sum of the speeds of the two bodies. Sometimes, the relative velocity between two Reason (R): bodies may be equal to the difference in the speeds of the two. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 1. 15∘ 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. 30∘ 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. 45∘ 4. 60∘ 12 Two bodies projected with initial speed of 4 m/s at two 16 The velocity v of a particle at a time t is given by different angles θ1 and θ2 cover equal range, then: b 1. sin θ1 = sin θ2 v = at + t+c. The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively: 2. sin θ1 = cos θ2 1. [LT −2 ] , [L] , [T ] 3. sin θ1 = tan θ2 2. [L2 ] , [T ] , [LT 2 ] 4. sin θ1 = sin 2θ2 3. [LT 2 ] , [LT ] , [L] 4. [L] , [LT ] , [T 2 ] Page: 2  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 17 Two vectors A→ and B → are acting at an angle θ on an 20 A constant force F is applied to the string so that the 3 kg object. If the magnitude of their vector product is √3 times block does not move, but the 5 kg block moves horizontally. their scalar product, the angle θ between them is: The acceleration of the 5 kg block is: (take g = 10 m/s2) 1. 30∘ 2. 45∘ 3. 60∘ 4. 90∘ 18 A block of mass 15 kg is suspended using two spring balances of negligible mass, as shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. 6 m/s2 2. 3 m/s2 3. 1.5 m/s2 4. 1.2 m/s2 21 A 1 kg object strikes a wall with velocity 1 ms–1 at an angle of 60∘ with the wall and reflects at the same angle. If it remains in contact with the wall for 0.1 s, then the force exerted on the wall is: 1. Both scales will read 15 kg. 1. 30√3 N 2. Both scales will read 10 kg. 2. zero 3. The upper scale will read 15 kg and the lower one zero. 3. 10√3 N 4. 20√3 N 4. The lower scale will read 15 kg and the upper one zero. A 22 In a certain physics experiment, two carts run along a 19 Two forces of magnitude A and 2 act perpendicular to frictionless, level, one-dimensional track. The mass of cart A each other. The magnitude of the resultant force is equal to: is 1 kg and the mass of the cart B is 2 kg. Initially cart A is A √5A moving to the right at 0.2 m/s, and cart B is moving to the left 1. 2. 2 2 at 0.7 m/s (see figure). After they collide, they stick together. 3A 5A 3. 4. 2 2 What is the magnitude of the total momentum of the system before the collision? 1. 1.2 kg-m/s 2. 1.5 kg-m/s 3. 1.6 kg-m/s 4. 2.7 kg-m/s Page: 3  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 23 A particle continuously moves in a circular path at 25 The velocity-time (v-t) graph of a body moving along constant speed in a counterclockwise direction. Consider a the x-axis is shown in the figure. The average speed during the time interval during which the particle moves along this first six seconds of motion is: circular path from point P to point Q. Point Q is exactly halfway around the circle from point P. 1. 10 m/s 2. 12 m/s What is the direction of the average velocity during this time 3. 15 m/s interval? 4. 20 m/s 1. → 2. ← Match List- I with List- II. 3. ↑ 26 4. ↓ List-I List-II (Measured values) (Significant figures) 24 A batsman takes the first run by moving from A to B and A 0.001213 I 2 then goes for the second run. When he reaches 20 yards from B 2.1 × 1016 II 3 B to D (see figure), he was run out. The net displacement of C 3.70 III 1 the batsman is: D 3000 IV 4 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 2. A-III, B-I, CII, D-IV 3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 27 In a vernier callipers, 20 vernier scale divisions are equal to 16 main scale divisions. If one main scale division is equal to 2 mm, then what is the least count of the instrument? 1. 2 yards 1. 0.2 mm 2. 20 yards 2. 0.1 mm 3. 22 yards 3. 0.4 mm 4. 42 yards 4. 0.5 mm Page: 4  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 28 A swimmer swims perpendicular to river flow and 32 Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so reaches point B. If the velocity of a swimmer in still water is 4 that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. km/hr, the velocity of river flow is: The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15. (take g = 10 ms-2) 1. 50 ms-2 2. 1.2 ms-2 3. 150 ms-2 4. 1.5 ms-2 33 The determination of the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) by simple pendulum method employs the formula, L g = 4π 2 2 T The expression for the relative error in the value of g is: ) = 4π 2 [ ΔL ] Δg ΔL Δg 1. g = L + 2( ΔT T 2. g L − 2 ΔT T = 4π 2 [ ] ) Δg ΔL ΔT Δg ΔL ΔT 3. +2 4. = − 2( 1. 3 km/hr g L T g L T 2. 5 km/hr 3. 2 km/hr 34 A ball of mass 5 grams is thrown downward from point 4. 6 km/hr A with a certain initial velocity v0 towards a hard floor. Without any loss of energy, it rebounds from the floor to a 29 A cyclist speeding at 5 ms-1 on a level road takes a sharp point 10 m above the original level. Thus, the initial velocity circular turn of radius 5 m without tilting and reducing the v0 of the ball is: speed. What should be the minimum value of the coefficient 1. 10 m/s of static friction between the tyres and the road so that the 2. 50 m/s cyclist will not slip while taking the turn? (take g = 10 ms-2) 3. 14 m/s 1. 0.50 4. 28 m/s 2. 0.25 3. 0.20 35 Given below are two statements: 4. 0.15 It is difficult to move a bicycle along a road Assertion (A): with its brakes on. 30 An elephant pulls a large tree trunk, 4 km in a direction When a bicycle moves with its brakes on, it 50∘ east of north. What are the components of the elephant's Reason (R): skids and sliding friction is greater than displacement in the easterly and northerly directions? rolling friction. (Given, sin50∘ = 0.766 and cos50∘ = 0.642) 1. 3.06 km east and 2.57 km north Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. 2. 2.57 km east and 3.06 km north explanation of (A). 3. 3.94 km east and 0.69 km north Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. 4. 0.69 km east and 3.94 km north explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 31 If the unit of mass is 1 kg, the unit of length is 1 m and 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. the unit of time is 1 min, then in this system the unit of pressure will be: 1. 1 36 Nm-2 2. 1 60 Nm-2 3. 1 3600 Nm-2 4. 1 600 Nm-2 Page: 5  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 Physics - Section B 38 A bob of mass m is suspended by a thread of length L. At the lowest point A (see figure) of its position, a horizontal Which of the following motions of an object always velocity v0 is imparted such that it completes a semicircular 36 trajectory in the vertical plane. The minimum velocity results in zero acceleration? imparted should be: 1. Any motion in a straight line. 2. Projectile motion. 3. Any motion in a circle. 4. None of the motions above guarantees zero acceleration. 37 Three balls, each of mass 1 kg, are attached to three light strings, each of length 1 m, as shown in the figure. They are rotated in a horizontal circle with an angular velocity ω = 4 rad/s. Which of the following options is correct? 1. √5gL 2. √3gL √ gL 3. √gL 4. 5 39 The work done on a block by friction as it slides on a rough surface is: 1. negative and directly proportional to μk 2. negative and inversely proportional to μk 3. positive and directly proportional to μk 4. positive and inversely proportional to μk 1. T1 = 16 N, T2 = 32 N, T3 = 48 N 40 A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular wooden 2. T1 = 48 N, T2 = 32 N, T3 = 16 N block with velocity u. When bullet travels 24 cm through the 3. T1 = 96 N, T2 = 80 N, T3 = 48 N block along its length horizontally, velocity of bullet becomes 4. T1 = 16 N, T2 = 80 N, T3 = 48 N u/3. Then it further penetrates into the block in the same direction before coming to rest exactly at the other end of the block. The total length of the block is: 1. 30 cm 2. 27 cm 3. 24 cm 4. 28 cm Page: 6  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 41 A woman pushes a trunk on a railway platform which has 43 A ball swings freely back and forth in an arc from point I a rough surface. She applies a force of 100 N over a distance to point IV, as shown in the figure. Point II is the lowest point of 10 m. Thereafter, she gets progressively tired and her in the path, III is located 0.5 m above II, and IV is 1 m above applied force reduces linearly with distance to 50 N. The total II. Air resistance is negligible. distance through which the trunk has been moved is 20 m. The plot of force applied by the woman and the frictional force, which is 50 N versus displacement is given below. Work done by the two forces over 20 m are: If the potential energy is zero at point II, where will the kinetic and potential energies of the ball be equal? 1. At point II. 1. 1750 J and −1000 J 2. At some point between II and III. 2. 1750 J and 1000 J 3. At point III. 3. −1750 J and 1000 J 4. At some point between III and IV. 4. −1750 J and −1000 J 44 The small block of mass m slides down the 30∘ incline, 42 Which of the following is correct regarding the graph in starting from rest. The average power of the force of gravity, which the motion of two persons A and B is shown from their during the motion, is: home to their office? (Home of A is taken as origin, x is the position and t is time). mg√gL 1. mg√gL 2. 2 mg√gL mg√gL 3. 4. 4 2√2 1. B starts earlier than A. 2. A moves faster than B. 45 A 0.5 kg ball traveling at 10 m/s collides with a 3. Both meet at 150 m from the house of A. stationary 2.0 kg ball and rebounds in the opposite direction at 4. Both meet at 50 m from the house of B. 6 m/s. What is true, from the options given below, for the Choose the correct option from the given ones: speed of the 2.0 kg ball after collision? 1. (A), (B), and (C) only 1. The 2.0 kg ball moves at 10 m/s. 2. (A) and (B) only 2. The 2.0 kg ball moves at 6 m/s. 3. (B) and (D) only 3. The 2.0 kg ball moves at 4 m/s. 4. (A), (B), (C), (D) 4. The 2.0 kg ball moves at 2.5 m/s. Page: 7  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 46 Identify the correct statements: 49 The given parabola is a graph of speed v as a function of Every force encountered in mechanics has an associated time t for an object. Which of the following graphs, from the (A) four options given, best represents the magnitude F of the net potential energy. The work done by all the forces is equal to the change in force exerted on the object as a function of time t? (B) kinetic energy. The work done by all the forces is equal to the change in (C) potential energy. The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if (D) the forces, doing work on it, are conservative. Choose the correct option from the options given below: 1. (A) and (B) only 2. (C) and (B) only 3. (C) only 4. (B) and (D) only 47 A child grabs the strap on his pack and pulls it for 1.5 m across the ground. The tension in the strap is 25 N and is 1. 2. directed at an angle of 30∘ above the ground. What work does the child do in pulling his pack? 1. 12.5 J 2. 18.8 J 3. 32.5 J 4. 37.5 J 48 A block of 1 kg is released from the top of a smooth 3. 4. curve AB, and then it encounters a rough surface BC, coming to rest at C. The work done by friction is: (take g = 10 m/s2) 50 When a body falls freely toward the earth, its total mechanical energy (ignoring air resistance): 1. increases 2. decreases 3. first increases and then decreases 4. remains constant Chemistry - Section A 1. 25 J 51 How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg3 (PO4 )2 2. 50 J will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms? 3. −25 J 1. 0.02 4. −50 J 2. 3. 125 × 10−2 3. 1. 25 × 10−2 4. 2. 5 × 10−2 Page: 8  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 52 57 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly In the Balmer series of the hydrogen represented? spectrum, the transitions occur from an initial 1. H->H>H + Assertion (A): energy level n1 = 2 to successive higher 2. Na+>F->O2- energy levels n2 = 3, 4, 5,.... 3. F->O2->Na+ In the Balmer series of the hydrogen 4. N3->Mg2+ F 1. 2. F > Cl explanation of (A). 3. Br > Cl Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. 4. F > I explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. The number of significant figures in 1.0001 is/are : 59 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 1. 1 2. 2 53 Which of the following molecules has the maximum 3. 4 dipole moment? 4. 5 1. CO2 2. CH4 60 Which of the following electronic configuration 3. NH3 represents a sudden large gap between the values of second 4. NF3 and third ionisation energies of an element? 2 2 To which group does the element named ununtrium (Uut) 1. 1 s , 2 s 2p3 54 2. 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2 3p3 belong according to the IUPAC naming convention? 1. s-block element 3. 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2 3p1 2. p-block element 4. 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3s2 3. d-block element 4. Actinoids 61 Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide? 55 Match List I (hybridization) with List II (molecules): 1. BaO List I (hybridization) List II (molecules) 2. SO3 A. sp3d I. BrF5 3. Al2O3 4. SiO2 B. dsp2 II. PF5 C. sp3d2 III. [PtCl4]2- 62 Which of the following statements about visible light is D. d2sp3 IV. [Co(NH3)6]3+ correct? The product of wavelength and frequency is a constant for 1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: visible light in a vacuum. 1. A - (II); B - (III); C - (IV); D - (I) As the wavelength of light increases, the energy of a 2. 2. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV) photon increases. 3. A - (III); B - (II); C - (IV); D - (I) As the wavelength of light increases, its amplitude also 4. A - (II); B - (III); C - (I); D - (IV) 3. increases. 4. Green light has a higher frequency than blue light. 56 Which of the following sequences accurately represents the correct order? 1. F>N>C>Si>Ga - non-metallic character. 2. F>O>Cl >N - oxidising property. 3. CP>N - electron affinity value. 4. All of the above. Page: 9  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 63 66 Arrange the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si in ascending order: 1. Na < Mg > Al < Si 2. Na > Mg > Al > Si 3. Na < Mg < Al < Si 4. Na > Mg > Al < Si 67 Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states because they release electrons from the following orbits: 1. ns and np orbits 2. (n-1)d and ns orbits 3. (n-1)d orbits 4. ns orbits 68 The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The speed of light is 3 × 1017 nm s–1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometers of a quantum of light with a frequency of 6 × 1015 s–1? 1. 25 2. 50 3. 75 4. 10 The ultraviolet region in the above figure is indicated by: 69 A hydrocarbon has a mass ratio of carbon to hydrogen of 1. D 6:2. What is the empirical formula of this hydrocarbon? 2. B 1. CH 3. A 2. CH2 4. C 3. CH3 The term(s), that does not have a unit among the 4. CH4 64 following, is/are- 70 Temperature-dependent term(s) among the following (a) Electronegativity is/are: (b) Electron gain enthalpy 1. Molarity (c) Ionization enthalpy 2. Molality (d) Metallic character 3. Mole fraction Choose the correct option: 4. All of the above 1. (a), (d) 2. (b), (c) 71 What is the family/group and electronic configuration of 3. (c), (d) 4. (b), (d) the recently discovered element with atomic number 114? 10 2 1. Carbon family , [Rn]5f 14 6 d 7 s 7p2 65 25.4 of I2 and 14.2 g of Cl2 are made to react 10 2 2. Oxygen family, [Rn]5f 14 6 d 7 s 7p4 completely to yield a mixture of ICI and ICI3. Calculate mole 10 2 of ICI and ICI3 formed: 3. Nitrogen family, [Rn]5f 14 6 d 7 s 7p6 10 2 (Given, Molecular mass of I2 -254, Cl2 - 71) 4. Halogen family, [Rn]5f 14 6 d 7 s 7p5 1. 0.5, 0.2 2. 0.1, 0.1 3. 0.1, 0.3 4. 0.3, 0.4 Page: 10  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 72 A mixture of NH4 NO3 and (NH4 )2 HPO4 contains 79 Which of the following contains the highest number of 30.40% mass percent of nitrogen. What is the mass ratio of helium atoms? the two components in the mixture? 1. 4 u of helium 1. 2:1 2. 1:2 2. 4 g of helium 3. 3:4 4. 4:1 3. 2.27 L of helium at STP 4. 4 mol of helium 73 For a multi-electron atom, the highest energy level 80 Which among the following are isoelectronic species? among the following is: 1. n=5, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2 1. Na+ , K+ , Ca2+ , Mg2+ 2. n=4, l=2, m=0, s=+1/2 2. Ca2+ , Mg2+ , S2− , K+ 3. n=4, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2 3. Ca2+ , Ar, S2− , K+ 4. n=5, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2 4. None of the above Arrange the following elements in increasing order of 81 Bohr's atomic model provides explanations for: 74 metallic character: 1. The spectrum of hydrogen atoms only. Si, Be, Mg, Na, P The spectrum of an atom or ion containing only one 1. P < Si < Be < Mg = Na. 2. electron. 2. P < Si > Be < Mg < Na 3. The spectrum of hydrogen molecule. 3. P > Si > Be >Mg > Na 4. The solar spectrum. 4. P < Si < Be < Mg < Na. First ionisation enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of 82 What is the angular momentum value associated with the 75 nitrogen because of: 'f' orbital? h 1. 0 2. π √2 1. More shielding of paired electrons in 2p orbital of oxygen. √3h √3h 2. Half-filled stable configuration of nitrogen. 3. π 4. √2π 3. More Z effective of oxygen. 4. Small atomic size of oxygen. 83 What is the volume of CO₂ produced from the complete decomposition of 20 g of CaCO₃ at STP? 76 If the uncertainty in position and momentum are 1. 2.24 litre equivalent, what is the corresponding uncertainty in velocity? 2. 4.48 litre 1 √h 3. 20 litre 1. 2. √ h 4. 22.4 litre 2m π 2π 1 √h h 3. 4. What is the number of iron atoms present in each m π π 84 molecule of hemoglobin if hemoglobin from the red blood 77 Arrange the elements Li, Be, B, C, and N in increasing cells of most mammals contains approximately 0.33% iron by order of their first ionization enthalpies: mass, with a molecular mass of 67,200 amu? (Atomic mass of 1. Li < B < Be < C < N iron = 56) 2. Li < Be < C < B < N 1. 2 3. Li < Be < N < B < C 2. 3 4. Li < Be < B < C < N 3. 4 4. 5 78 1 liter of N₂ gas combines with 3 liters of H₂ gas to produce 2 liters of NH₃ gas under identical conditions. Which gas law or principle does this reaction illustrate? 1. Law of constant composition 2. Law of multiple proportions 3. Law of reciprocal proportions 4. Gay-Lussac's law of gaseous volumes Page: 11  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 85 The Lewis structure of O3 is: 90 A sample of a pure compound was found to contain carbon, hydrogen, and chlorine. Its elemental analysis is given below: Element Composition/Weight Carbon 1.201 grams Hydrogen 0.202 grams Chlorine 7.090 grams Correct formal charges on oxygen atoms 1, 2, and 3, What is the empirical formula for the compound? respectively, are: 1. +1, 0, –1 1. CHCl3 2. CH2 Cl 2. –1, 0, +1 3. CH2 Cl2 4. CH3 Cl 3. +1, –1, 0 4. 0, +1, –1 91 Determine the empirical and molecular formulae of a Chemistry - Section B compound given the following percentage composition by mass: 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon, and 71.65% chlorine, with a 86 Calcium reacts with element X to form an ionic molar mass of 98.96 g/mol. compound. If the ground-state electron configuration 1. CH2Cl and C2H4Cl2 of X is 1s2 2s2 2p4 , what is the simplest formula for this 2. CH3Cl and C2H6Cl2 compound? 3. C2HCl and C4H2Cl2 1. CaX 4. C2HCl and C2H4Cl2 2. CaX2 3. Ca4 X2 Which of the following species does not have one or 4. Ca2 X2 92 more π bonds ? 87 Which of the following elements is an unreactive metal? 1. SO2 2. SF6 1. Chlorine 2. Gold 3. O2 3. Sodium 4. Radon 4. SO3 88 Which of the following substances does not exhibit 93 Choose the group that does not contain isotopes of the paramagnetism? same element: 1. NO Number of protons Number of neutrons 2. N+ 2 1. Atom I 18 18 3. CO Atom II 18 19 4. O− 2 2. Atom I 25 30 Among the following transformations, the hybridization Atom II 25 31 89 3. Atom I 37 42 of the central atom remains unchanged in: Atom II 37 41 1. CO2 → HCOOH 2. BF3 → BF4 − 4. Atom I 82 126 3. NH3 → NH+ Atom II 81 126 4 4. PCl3 → PCl5 94 What is the symbol for the element that forms a protective oxide coating? 1. K 2. Ga 3. Al 4. Mg Page: 12  NEET Level Test - 16- Contact Number: 9667591930 / Jun 8527521718 95 Which of the following are isostructural species? 100 Arrange the given oxides in decreasing order of their 1. CH−3 and CH3 + basic character: 2. CO2 and NH3 1. Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 > CuO − 2. MgO > Al2O3 > CuO > Na2O 3. SnCl4 and ClO4 4. AlCl3 and SO2 3. Al2O3 > MgO > CuO > Na2O 4. CuO > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 96 Which of the following explains why oxygen atoms are paramagnetic in their ground state? Biology I - Section A 1. Pauli's exclusion principle 2. Electron shielding Which of the following taxonomic categories are 3. Hund's rule 101 4. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle correctly matched to their standard termination of names with respect to biological classification of plants? 97 The only substance listed below that contains ionic, σ I Division: - phyta and π bonds is: II Class: - opsida 1. Na3 N III Order: - ales 2. NO2 IV Family: - idae 3. NaNO3 1. I, II, IV 4. NH3 2. I, II, III 3. II, III, IV 98 1 M NaOH solution was slowly added into 4. I, II, III, IV 1000 mL of 183.75 g impure H2 SO4 solution and the 102 Regarding taxonomy and systematics, which one is following plot was obtained. The percentage purity of the sample and the slope of the curve respectively, are: exclusive to systematics? 1. Internal structure 2. Development process 3. Evolutionary relationships between organisms 4. Ecological information of organisms 103 Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 1. Volvox - Starch 2. Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin 3. Ulothrix - Mannitol 4. Porphyra - Floridian starch 1 1 104 Floridean starch is a form of: 1. 75%, − 3 2. 80%, − 2 3. 80%, −1 4. None of these stored food in red algae that resembles the structure of 1. amylopectin and glycogen 99 stored food in brown algae that resembles the structure of Increasing order of bond energy is 2. Assertion (A): agarose and agaropectin C−C