IR.pdf

IR ALL QUESTION 1. PANS-OPS means: A – Procedures for Air Navigation Systems – Airfield operations B – Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations C – Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures D – Prima...

IR ALL QUESTION 1. PANS-OPS means: A – Procedures for Air Navigation Systems – Airfield operations B – Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations C – Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures D – Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 2. What is the meaning of DER: A – dead end of runway B – departure end of runway C – dead reckoning D – displaced end of runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3. What is DER? A – Direct entry routing B – Descent rate C – Departure end of runway D – Dead end of runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 4. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual reference is known as the: A – minimum break-off altitude B – minimum descent altitude C – decision altitude D – decision height Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 5. What is a STAR? A – Standard arrival B – Standard instrument arrival C – Special terminal arrival D – Supplementary terminal arrival Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 6. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: A – Final approach segment B – Initial approach segment C – Intermediate approach segment D – Arrival segment Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 7. What is the meaning of OCA? A – Oceanic control area B – Obstacle clearance altitude C – Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude D – Occasional Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 8. OCH for a precision approach is defined as: A – The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements B – The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements C – The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria D – The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 9. What does the abbreviation OIS mean? A – Obstruction in surface B – Obstacle in surface C – Obstacle identification slope D – Obstacle identification surface Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 10. What is the meaning of MEHT? A – Mean height over threshold B – Maximum eye height C – Minimum elevation height D – Minimum eye height Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 11. What does the abbreviation DER mean? A – Departure end of runway B – Distance end of route C – Departure end of route D – Distance end of runway  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 12. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach… A – using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information B – using bearing, elevation and distance information C – using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft D – carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 13. What does AAL mean? A – Above aerodrome level B – Angle of attack limitation C – Acknowledge D – Aerodrome altitude level Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 14. A visual approach is: A – An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, providing that he has the necessary visual criteria B – an approach made under VFR using height and track guidance C – Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC D – The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is to be made Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 15. What does the abbreviation DER mean? A – Dead reckoning B – Departure end routing C – Departure end of runway D – Distance error rectification Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 16. Runway visual range is reported when it falls below: A – 1500m B – 1000m C – 800m D – 1200m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 17. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called: A – DH B – MDA C – MDH D – DA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 18. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is: A – Contact approach B – Visual approach C – Visual manoeuvring (circling) D – Aerodrome traffic pattern Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 19. A radial is:  A – a magnetic bearing to a VOR station B – a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station C – a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR D – a QDM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 20. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called… A – the Air Pilot B – PANS OPS Doc 8168 C – the Air Navigation bulletin D – the Convention of Chicago Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 21. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a: A – Procedure turn B – Base turn C – Race track D – Reversal track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 22. Which of the following defines transition altitude? A – The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to local QHN B – The flight level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to 1013 mb C – The altitude below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to QFE D – The altitude at which 1013 mb is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 23. The Transition Level: A – shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude B – shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established C – is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP D – is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in-command Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: A – Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) B – Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) C – AIRAC D – NOTAM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 25. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon: A – 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified landing mass B – 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass C – 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass D – 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mass Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 26. NOZ is: A – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS initial approach track centre line B – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS initial approach track centre line C – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide  path course and/or MLS final approach track centre line D – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final approach track centre line Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 27. A circling approach is: A – A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring B – A contact flight manoeuvre C – A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight D – A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 28. The “estimated total time” in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: A – of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day B – required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport C – required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time) D – required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 29. VORTAC is: A – A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the range from the TACAN element B – A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from the VOR C – Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device D – TACAN refined for missed approach positioning Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 30. A racetrack is: A – a right hand circuit pattern B – taking off and landing traffic the same runway  C – traffic landing and taking-off again within 1 hour and returning to the same airport of the original departure D – a procedure used for descent; resembling a holding pattern (including the entry) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 31. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: A – An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information B – An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations C – An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR D – An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C  010-06-03 Departure Procedures 1. What is a low visibility take-off? A – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m B – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m C – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m D – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 2. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of the following actions is required? A – The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable B – No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes C – None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan D – A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: A – To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace B – To request from ATC different heading for wind correction C – To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track D – To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 4. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: A – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure B – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used C – ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out D – ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 5. Turning departures provide track guidance within: A – 20 km B – 5 km C – 15 km D – 10 km Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 6. Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered in the design of an Instrument Departure Procedure? A – Terrain B – The transition altitude C – ATC requirements D – Airspace restrictions Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 7. Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? A – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20o from the runway alignment B – a departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15o from the runway alignment C – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10o from the runway alignment D – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5o from the runway alignment Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 8. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: A – 0 ft B – 394 ft C – 35 ft D – 50 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 9. when can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded? A – At PIC’s discretion where safety is an issue B – If there is work in progress on the aerodrome C – If the RVR isles than 1500m D – Never, it must always be complied with Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 10. 1658. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line within: A – 45o B – 30o C – 15o  D – 12.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 11. As a standard rule, while establishing the instrument departure procedures, the procedure assumes that the aeroplane has a climb gradient of: A – 3.3% with all engines operating B – 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking into account one engine inoperative C – 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative D – 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 12. Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1? A – The designer of the procedure (normally the State) B – ATC will provide radar vector for obstacle clearance C – The operator of the aircraft D – The pilot in close co-operation with ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 13. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of: A – 2.3% OIS and 1% increasing obstacle clearance margin B – 3.3% OIS C – 2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin D – 2.7% OIS and 0.6% increasing obstacle clearance margin Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)?  A – 2.5% B – 5% C – 3.5% D – 3.3% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 15. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: A – 35 ft B – 3.3% gradient C – 0 ft D – 0.8% gradient Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 16. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto the desired track? A – 1000 ft B – Transition altitude C – 150 m D – 120m (394 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 17. Who is responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after take off? A – The PIC B – The Operator C – The Authority D – ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: B 18. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is: A – the terrain surrounding the aerodrome B – ATC availability and requirements C – availability of navigation aids D – airspace restrictions applicable and in force Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 19. A turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than: A – 10o B – 15o C – 20o D – 25o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 20. Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within: A – 20 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns B – 20 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns C – 10 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns D – 10 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 21. For a turning departure turns may be specified at: A – An altitude or height B – At a fix  C – At a facility D – All of the above Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 22. For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that: A – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified B – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified C – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified D – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 23. When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is: A – ISA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude B – JSA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude C – ISA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude D – JSA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within: A – 5o of the alignment of the runway centre-line B – 10o of the alignment of the runway centre-line C – 15o of the alignment of the runway centre-line D – 25o of the alignment of the runway centre-line Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 25. The PDG is made up of: A – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification B – 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance C – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification plus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance D – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification minus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 26. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: A – 15o B – 30o C – 45o D – 12.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 27. The maximum distance from the DER that track guidance for a turning departure must be acquired is: A – 5 km after the completion of the turn B – 10 km after the completion of the turn C – 15 km before the initiation of the turn D – 20 km before the initiation of the turn Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 28. When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to Departure Control: A – when advised to do so by the Tower B – before entering cloud C – immediately after the aircraft is airborne D – when established on the first heading and clear of the aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C  010-06-04 Approach Procedures 1. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? A – At least 300m (984 ft) B – 150m (492 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) D – At least 150m (492 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 2. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg? A – Request an amended clearance B – descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude C – Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome D – Initiate a missed approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft? A – 224 km/h to 261 km/h B – 121 kts to 141 kts C – 261 km/h to 307 km/h D – 91 kts to 120 kts Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 4. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection  envelope is: A – 125 kt B – 120 kt C – 135 kt D – 150 kt Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 5. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of: A – 30 NM B – 10 NM C – 15 NM D – 25 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 6. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure? A–3 B – Up to 5 C–4 D – Up to 4 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 7. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between: A – 5 and 10 NM B – 3 and 7 NM C – 4 and 8 NM D – 3 and 10 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 8. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed: A – 6.5 percent B – 3 percent C – 5 percent D – 7.5 percent Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 9. If you lose the necessary visual references while “circling visual”, you should: A – turn towards the airport maintaining the visual circling altitude/height B – start the missed approach procedure C – make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and when overhead the airport climb on the missed approach track D – climb straight ahead to MSA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 10. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: A – 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft) D – 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 11. For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is: A – 200 ft B – depends on aircraft category C – 394 ft D – 591 ft  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 12. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is: A – 40 degrees or less B – 30 degrees or less C – 20 degrees or less D – 10 degrees or less Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 13. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is: A – 90m (295 ft) B – 50 m (164 ft) C – 30 m (98 ft) D – 120m (384 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: A – Procedure turn B – Base turn C – Reversal procedure D – Race track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 15. Minimum sector altitudes are determine by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: A – 5 NM B – 20 NM C – 10 NM D – 25 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 16. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to: A – 150m (492 ft) B – 210m (690 ft) C – 300m (984 ft) D – 120m (394 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 17. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is: A – ±12.5 NM B – ±10 NM C – ±5 NM D – ±2.5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 18. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until: 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is: A – 2, 3 B – 1, 2 C – 1, 2, 3 D – 1, 3 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 19. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: A – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25o for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15o for missed approach procedures B – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15o for missed approach procedures C – The bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories D – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 20. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? A – Arrival, intermediate and final B – Arrival, initial, intermediate and final C – Initial, intermediate and final D – Initial and final Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 21. Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach segment? A – 150 m B – 150 ft C – 300 m D – 300 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 22. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it  is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: A – Landing runway B – MAP C – FAF D – Final missed approach track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 23. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches? A – The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome B – The State of Registry of the aircraft C – The operator D – The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24. An instrument approach procedure consists of: A – 5 segments B – 4 segments C – 6 segments D – 3 segments Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 25. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is: A – 120m (384 ft) B – 30m (98 ft) C – 90m (295 ft) D – 50m (164 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 26. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure? A – 3o B – 2.5% C – 3.3% D – 2.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 27. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least: A – decreasing from 984 to 492 ft B – 1476 ft C – 492 ft D – 984 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 28. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: A – the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully B – a defined area symmetrically disposed about the normal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided C – the first part of the segment D – the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the appropriate minimum Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 29. Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3o be used? A – Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable B – For aircraft with STOL capabilities  C – Where noise abatement restrictions make a less steep approach impracticable D – Parallel runway operations Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 30. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end? A – When a height of 50 m has been achieved and maintained B – When established in the climb C – At the missed approach point D – When en-route either to hold or departure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 31. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? A – At the IF B – At the IAF C – At the FAF D – At the final en-route fix Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 32. Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localiser. The DR track will: A – Intersect the localiser at 30o and will not be more than 10 NM in length B – Intersect the localiser at 30o and will not be more than 5 NM in length C – Intersect the localiser at 45o and will not be more than 5 NM in length D – Intersect the localiser at 45o and will not be more than 10 NM in length Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 33. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: A – Aerodrome elevation B – Aerodrome reference point C – Relevant runway threshold D – Mean sea level Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 34. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: A – FAF B – MAP C – FAP D – IF Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 35. Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when… A – the cross-wind component is less than 25 kts B – the published time from the outer marker to the MAP has elapsed C – visual reference with the runway is established and can be maintained D – the pilot is familiar with the published procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 36. In a procedure turn (45o/180o), a 45o turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: A – 1 minute B – 1 minute 15 seconds C – 1 minute 30 seconds D – 2 minutes Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 37. The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are: A – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors B – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path only, plus a margin for height loss on any go around C – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path including an allowance for aircraft speed plus a margin D – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for height loss on any go around Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 38. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure? A – the “flight operations” of the company B – the operator  C – the pilot-in-command D – the state Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 39. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? A – at the point where the climb is established B – at the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated C – at the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained D – at the missed approach point Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 40. When determining the OCA/OCH for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to: A – MSL B – aerodrome reference point C – threshold D – highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 41. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined: A – Only for categories A and B aircraft B – For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them C – Only for categories C, D and E aircraft D – For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 42. What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure? A – navigation aids B – terrain C – ATC requirements D – weather Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 43. The NTZ extends from ___ to ___ A – the nearer runway threshold, the point at which both aircraft are established on the centre line of the runways B – the threshold of the nearer runway, the point at which 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced between aircraft C – the final approach fix, the end of the nearest runway D – the start of the approach, the touchdown point of the first runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 44. Which of the following is not shown on an approach plate? A – OCA/OCH B – DME frequency C – NDB location D – field elevation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 45. What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient? A – 2.5% B – 0.9% C – 3.3% D – 4.2%  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 46. For a category 1 precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than: A – 150 ft B – 250 ft C – 200 ft D – 100 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 47. In a precision approach (ILS) obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centre line, after being established on track, more than: A – One and a half of scale deflection B – One scale deflection C – A quarter of scale deflection D – Half a scale deflection Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 48. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: A – 0.8% B – 2.5% C – 3.3% D – 5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 49. If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the pilot shall: A – Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the  missed approach procedures B – Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to maintain obstacle clearance C – Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained D – Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 50. When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until: A – the pilot has visual reference and the required obstacles clearance can be maintained B – required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing C – Visual reference is established and can be maintained, the landing threshold is in sight, the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be executed D – You are clear of clouds Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 51. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is: A – 8% B – 5% C – 7% D – 6.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 52. During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until: A) Visual reference has been established and can be maintained B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight  C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC A – A, B and D B – A and B C– D – A, B and C Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 53. Where does the missed approach procedures start: A – At DH/MDH B – At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost C – At the missed approach point D – Over the threshold of the instrument runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 54. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken? A – Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude B – Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact C – If you have other visual cues, continues with ground contact D – Initiate a missed approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 55. How many aircraft approach categories are applicable to the new ICAO instrument approach procedures: A–3 B–4 C–5 D–6 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 56. For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide path angle? A – 3o B – 3.8o C – 3% D – 6.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 57. Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle clearance: A – 300m within 25 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome B – 300m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome  C – 300m within 25 km of the FAF or FAP D – 300m within 25 nm of the initial approach fix Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 58. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than: A – half scale deflection of the glide path indicator and horizontal 35o off the centre line B – full scale deflection of the localiser indicator C – half scale deflection of the localiser indicator D – full scale deflection of the localiser indicator and half scale deflection of the glide path indication Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 59. The initial approach segment starts at the ___ and the obstacle clearance (MOC) provided in the primary area is ___ A – initial approach fix, 300m B – initial approach fix, 600m C – intermediate fix, 150m D – final approach fix, 150m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 60. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Point (FAP) is set at a specified distance from the threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be? A – 9 km (5 nm) B – 19 km (10 nm) C – 28 km (15 nm) D – 38 km (20 nm) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 61. Where 2 aircraft are established on adjacent parallel ILS localisers, what is the minimum radar separation permitted under mode 2 operations? A – 2 NM B – 3 NM C – 4 NM D – 5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 62. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end? A – At the point where the climb is established B – Where the turn towards the IAF is made C – Where 50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained D – At 394 ft AGL Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 63. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed in the initial segment? A – 150m (492 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) C – 200m (656 ft) D – Reducing from 300m to 150m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 64. Where ends the initial missed approach segment? A – At the IAF B – At the point where the climb is established C – At the point where a turn is executed D – When an obstacle clearance of 164 ft is obtained Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 65. The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of: A – ¼ scale B – ½ scale C – Full scale D – On localiser centre line only Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 66. For a 45/180 procedure turn, what is the outbound leg time for a cat B aircraft? A – 45 sec B – 1 min C – 1 min 15 sec D – 1 min 30 sec Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 67. A missed approach procedure consists of: A – 2 phases B – 3 phases C – 4 phases D – 5 phases Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 68. What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non-precision approach? A – 5% B – 6.5% C – 4.5% D – 3.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 69. What is the maximum gradient for the final approach segment of a non- precision approach? A – 5.0% B – 3.5% C – 3.0% D – 6.5% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 70. In a procedure turn (45o/180o), a 45o turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: A – 1 minute 30 seconds B – 1 minute C – 1 minute 15 seconds D – 2 minutes Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 71. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach? A – 350 ft B – 250 ft C – 200 ft D – 125 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 72. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: A – the OCH B – 200 ft C – 350 ft D – 400 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 73. A CAT 1 operation is a precision approach and landing using an ILS, MLS or PAR with a DH not lower than ___ ft and with a RVR not less than ___ m. A – 250, 800 B – 200, 550 C – 150, 1200 D – 75, 350 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 74. If a step-down fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to: A – pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory B – follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path C – pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude D – leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 75. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment? A – 150m (492 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) C – 200m (656 ft) D – Reducing from 300m to 150m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 76. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than: A – 6m B – 3m C – 9m  D – 12m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 77. The initial missed approach segment: A – Begins at the MAPT and ends where the climb is established B – Begins at the threshold and ends at the point where the climb is established C – Begins where the pilot loses the guidance criteria and ends when OCH is passed D – Begins at MDH and ends when 50m OCH is obtained and can be maintained Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 78. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle clearance provided (not in mountainous areas)? A – 300m B – Not less than 300m C – 300m reducing to 150m D – It depends upon the MSA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 79. In a category A aircraft, what reversing turn manoeuvre takes 2 minutes in still air? A – 80/260 procedure turn B – 45/180 procedure turn C – Base turn D – Racetrack Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 80. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?  A – When a height of 50m has been achieved and can be maintained B – When the climb is established C – At the missed approach point D – When en-route either to the hold or to the point of joining route to the alternate Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 81. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment is at least: A – 750 ft B – 500 ft C – 1500 ft D – 984 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 82. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of: A – 2% B – 2.5% C – 5% D – 3.3% Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 83. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations: A – The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on the localiser B – the NOZ is the aerodrome ground area where movement of aircraft does not interfere with landing operations C – The NOZ is the airspace in the vicinity of the control tower where ILS operations are conducted D – Both A and B are correct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 84. Within how many degrees of the published approach track would the aircraft be “established” for an NDB procedure? A - +/- 10 deg B - +/- 5 deg C – Half scale deflection of the track guidance display instrument D - +/- 7.5 deg Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 85. Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start? A – FAF B – IAF C – FAH D – FAP Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 86. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: A – Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists B – Permits circling only in VMC C – Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists D – Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 87. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases: A – Initial and final B – Arrival, intermediate and final C – Arrival, initial, intermediate and final  D – Initial, intermediate and final Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 88. One of the conditions to descend below the MDA on a circling approach is: A – The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight B – The required visual references have been established and can be maintained C – The ceiling is 1500 ft or higher D – The horizontal visibility is at least 5 NM and the ceiling is 1500 ft or higher Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 89. What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approach? A – a procedure turn B – a reverse procedure turn C – a racetrack D – a base leg turn Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 90. On an instrument approach – when may the pilot descend below MSA? i) When the terrain below the aircraft and the destination airfield is in sight and is likely to remain so ii) When under radar control iii) When visual with the underlying terrain but not the airfield iv) When commencing a published approach procedure A – all of the above B – i and iv C – i, ii and iv D – ii and iii Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 91. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR non-precision approach? A – 250 ft B – 300 ft C – 350 ft D – 450 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 92. What is the lowest possible MDH for an NDB non-precision approach? A – 250 ft B – 300 ft C – 350 ft D – 500 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 93. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glide slope) non- precision approach? A – 100 ft B – 200 ft C – 250 ft D – 300 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 94. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS back-beam (localiser back-course) non-precision approach? A – 100 ft B – 200 ft C – 300 ft D – not approved Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 95. What is the lowest possible MDH for a SRA non-precision approach terminating at 1 NM? A – 200 ft B – 250 ft C – 300 ft D – 350 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 96. What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach? A – ¼ of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach B – ½ of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach C – ¾ of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the approach D – 10 NM either side of the approach path Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 97. What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the aircraft executes a missed approach if the aircraft either disappears from the radar for a significant time or the identity of the aircraft is in doubt? A – 0.5 NM B – 1 NM C – 2 NM D – 3 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 98. An MSA Provides: A – 300m obstacle clearance within 46 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome B – 300 ft obstacle clearance within 46 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome C – 300 ft obstacle clearance within 25 NM of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome D – 300m obstacle clearance within 20 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 99. Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearance for aircraft up to and including: A – Category A B – Category B C – Category C D – Category D Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 100. For a non-precision approach, the elevation of the relevant runway threshold is used for OCA/H reference if: A – The threshold elevation is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation B – The threshold elevation is less than 2m below the aerodrome elevation C – The threshold elevation is more than 2m above and below the aerodrome elevation D – The threshold elevation is less than 2m above and below the aerodrome elevation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 101. When constructing an instrument approach, the accuracy of a VOR providing track guidance is assumed to be: A – ±5.2o B – ±2.4o C – ±6.9o D – ±4.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 102. When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facility is assumed to be: A – ±4.5o, for a VOR where less than 300m obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±7.8o B – ±4.5o for an NDB where less than 300 ft obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±7.8o C – ±6.2o for a VOR where less than 300m obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±10.3o D – ±4.5o for a VOR where less than 300 ft obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±10.3o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 103. For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be: A – ±1.5 km B – ±1.5 nm C – ±3.1 km D – ±3.1 nm Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 104. When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is: A – 0-3 seconds B – 0-5 seconds  C – 3-5 seconds D – 3 seconds Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 105. The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to: A – 2% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority B – 0.8% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority C – 1.5% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority D – 3.3% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the appropriate authority Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 106. If a turn of greater than 15o is required during a missed approach the turn is not allowed: A – Until at least 50 ft vertical clearance has been ensured B – Until at least 50 m vertical clearance has been ensured C – Until at least 100 ft vertical clearance has been ensured D – Until at least 100 m vertical clearance has been ensured Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 107. If a dead reckoning segment is used in a STAR to intercept a localiser, what is its maximum angle of intersect and length? A – 30o and 10 NM B – 30o and 5 NM C – 45o and 10 NM D – 45o and 5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 108. A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) has: A – a decision height equal to at least 50 ft B – a decision height equal to at least 100 ft C – a decision height equal to at least 200 ft D – no decision height Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 109. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? A – When it seems possible to land B – When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight C – When the aircraft has the control tower in sight D – When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 110. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? A – 150m (492 ft) B – 300m (984 ft) C – 450m (1476 ft) D – 600m (1968 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 111. A so called VISUAL APPROACH can be performed: A – during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground B – during IFR and VFR flights in VMC C – during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate  DA or MDA for that procedure D – as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5.5 km or more Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 112. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC condition, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of: A – the airport controller B – the pilot-in-command C – the approach controller D – the radar controller Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 113. Minimum sector altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least ___ ft obstacle clearance within ___ NM of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure at the aerodrome. A – 984,25 B – 1000,25 C – 300,46 D – 300,25 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 114. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: A – Base turn B – Racetrack pattern C – Procedure turn D – Shuttle Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 115. Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted interception angle to intercept the localiser (centre line)? A – 20o B – 25o C – 30o D – 45o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 116. What is the lowest DH for a CAT-1 ILS? A – 100 ft above the threshold B – 100 ft above the aerodrome elevation C – 100 ft above MSL D – 200 ft above the threshold Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 117. In case of a non-precision approach, the angle between the extended runway centre line and the final approach track is ___ degrees or less A – 30o B – 20o C – 15o D – 10o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 118. Which of the following would be regarded as “established” on the localiser of an ILS approach? A – Within 10 deg of the published track B – Within 5 deg of the published track C – Within half-scale deviation of the CDI D – Not specified until the OM has been passed  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 119. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach procedure? A – Arrival, initial, intermediate, final and missed approach B – Arrival, primary, intermediate, final and missed approach C – Arrival, primary, secondary, final and missed approach D – Arrival, initial, intermediate, final and landing Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 120. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052o(M). You are flying inbound to hold on a track of 232o(M). What type of joint should you make? A – Direct B – Parallel C – Offset D – Pilot choice (B or C) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 121. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure? A – If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure B – Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure C – If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach D – None of the above is correct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 122. EAT is the time that an aircraft: A – is expected to join the holding pattern B – is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach C – is expected to land D – is expected to cross the FAF of FAP Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 123. What is the minimum visibility for a visual circling approach for a Category B aircraft? A – 1500m B – 1900m C – 2800m  D – 3500m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 124. What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? A – 300m (984 ft) reducing to 150m (492 ft) B – 150m (492 ft) reducing to 0m C – 450m (1476 ft) reducing to 150m (492 ft) D – 300m (984 ft) reducing to 0m Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 125. For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than: A – 200 ft B – the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH) C – 350 ft D – 400 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 126. Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure. The radium of this circle is: A – 25 NM B – 20 NM C – 10 NM D – 5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 127. What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure? A – Initial, intermediate, final B – Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach C – Descend, holding, arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach D – Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 128. On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach? A – 3o B – 5% C – 6.5% D – 4.5o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 129. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of an intermediate approach is: A – Not more than 150m B – Reduces from 300m to 150m C – Equal to or greater than 300m D – 500m in mountainous terrain Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 130. Name the criteria for descent below MDH on a VMC approach? A – Threshold in view, able to keep visual reference to terrain, clear of cloud B – Clearance from ATC, threshold in view, inside aerodrome traffic zone C – Runway visual, 5 km visibility and clear of cloud D – Visual glide path indication of ‘on glide path’ and VMC exists  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 131. When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course the minimum radar separation between them required for wake turbulence must be: A – 2 NM B – 3 NM C – 4 NM D – 5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 010-06-05 Holding Procedures 1. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a: A – rate of 3o per second B – rate of 3o per second or at a bank angle of 25o, which ever requires the lesser bank C – maximum bank angle of 25o D – rate of 3o per second or at a bank angle of 20o, which ever requires the lesser bank Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 2. Standard airway holding pattern below 14000 ft? A – Left hand turns/1 minute outbound B – Right hand turns/1.5 minutes outbound C – Right hand turns/1 minute outbound D – Left hand turns/1.5 minutes outbound Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3. What is the deviation allowed either side of track between entry sectors when joining a hold? A – 5 degrees B – 2.5 degrees C – 100 degrees D – 20 degrees Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 4. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: A – 20 degrees B – 15 degrees C – 5 degrees D – 10 degrees Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 5. What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area) of a holding pattern? A – 300m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas) B – 150m (500 ft) C – 90m (300 ft) D – 0m (0 ft) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 6. You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhead the VOR on radial 052, what type of entry will you perform? A – A direct entry B – A parallel or offset entry C – An offset entry  D – A reciprocal entry Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 7. In an offset entry into an omni-directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30o offset track is limited to: A – 1 minute 30 seconds B – 1 minute C – 2 minutes D – 3 minutes Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 8. An expected approach time is given: A – when an aircraft is instructed to hold B – on all flights C – once an aircraft has been holding for 20 minutes D – on request Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 9. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern? A – Follow the radio communication failure procedure B – a non-standard holding pattern is permitted C – it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion D – inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 10. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern below FL 140 (no wind)?  A – 1.5 minutes B – 1 minute C – 2 minutes D – 1 minute or 2 minutes, depending on the actual IAS Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 11. In a holding pattern, the pilot should attempt to maintain the ___ by making allowance for wind by applying corrections to ___ during entry and while flying the holding pattern. A – track, heading B – heading, time C – track, heading and time D – heading, track and time Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 12. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052o. You are approaching the fix on an inbound magnetic Track 232o. Select the available entry procedure: A – Either “offset” or “parallel” B – Offset C – Parallel D – Direct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 13. In a standard holding pattern turns are made: A – in a direction depending on the entry B – to the left C – to the right D – in a direction depending on the wind direction Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: C 14. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? A – Teardrop to the left and then to the right B – To the left C – First right and then to the left D – To the right Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 15. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? A – 30 seconds B – 2 minutes C – 1.5 minutes D – 1 minute Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 16. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? A – 2 minutes 30 seconds B – 1 minute C – 1.5 minutes D – 1 minute Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 17. The maximum angle of bank to be used in a holding pattern is:  A – 15o B – 25o C – 30o D – 35o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 18. In a holding pattern all turns should be made: A – to the right B – to the left C – to the right except otherwise described by the appropriate authority D – left or right depending on the entry procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 19. Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern? A – One and one half minute for altitudes above 14000 ft B – One and one half minute for altitudes above 10000 ft C – One minute for altitudes above 14000 ft D – None of the above is correct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 20. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: A – Bearing B – Course C – Heading D - Track Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 21. In the hold at FL 60, what is the normal holding speed in a CATEGORY C aircraft? A – 170 kts B – 210 kts C – 230 kts D – 150 kts Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 22. You are flying towards a VOR on the 320 radial and have been told to hold on the 045 radial at FL 60. What type of entry to the holding pattern is required? A – Direct B – Parallel C – Offset D – Either B or C Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 23. When holding at F 110, what is the normal outbound leg time? A – 30 secs B – 1 min 30 secs C – 1 min 15 secs D – 1 min Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24. The minimum permissible holding level provides a clearance above the obstacles of at least ___ in the holding area: A – 984 ft B – 492 ft  C – 394 ft D – 197 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 25. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made: A – At a bank angle of 20o or at a rate of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank B – At a bank angle of 15o or at a rate of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank C – At a bank angle of 30o or at a rate of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank D – At a bank angle of 25o or at a late of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 26. The still air time for flying the outbound heading should not exceed ___ if above 14,000 ft: A – 1.5 minutes B – 2 minutes C – 2.5 minutes D – not specified Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 27. When you are asked to hold on a non-standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns made? A – Right B – Left C – At pilot’s discretion D – It depends upon the inbound holding track  Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 28. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? A – 3 km B – 3 NM C – 5 km D – 5 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 29. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area? A – 100m B – 250m C – 300m D – Nil Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 30. What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern? A – 30 deg bank angle minimum B – 3 degrees per second C – 15 degrees bank angle maximum D – 5 degrees per second Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 31. What is the name of a climb or descent in a holding pattern? A – Base turn B – Shuttle C – Procedure turn  D – Vertical manoeuvre Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 32. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should: A – advise ATC as early as possible B – execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane C – remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding D – follow the radio communication failure procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 33. You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What is the required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top of the fix towards the outbound leg? A – 20o B – 30o C – 45o D – 60o Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 34. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft which will be the maximum speed? A – 230 KT TAS B – 240 KT IAS C – 240 KT TAS D – 230 KT IAS Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: D 35. The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to: A – Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors B – Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors C – True heading in relation to the three entry sectors D – True track in relation to the three entry sectors Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 36. You are flying towards a VOR on the 230 radial and have been told to hold on the 043 radial at FL60. What type of entry to the holding pattern is required? A – Direct B – Parallel C – Offset D – Either B or C Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 37. You are required to carry out a teardrop entry into a holding pattern. Having reached the fix, the aircraft is turned onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of ___ degrees from the reciprocal of the inbound track on the holding site. A – 20 B – 30 C – 45 D – 60 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 38. Which of the following defines standard holding procedure?  A – Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14000 ft B – Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14000 ft C – Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14000 ft D – Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14000 ft Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 39. In a standard holding pattern, all turns should be made ___ A – to the right at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires the lesser bank B – to the left at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires the lesser bank C – to the right at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires the highest bank D – to the left at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires the highest bank Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 40. What kind of entry into a holding pattern is madeif the aircraft is approaching the holding fix in sector one? A – Offset B – Parallel C – Direct D – Either A or B at pilot’s discretion Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 41. An Expected Approach Time (EAT) will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft when it is expected that it has to hold: A – for 30 minutes or more B – for 10 minutes or more C – for 15 minutes or more D – for 20 minutes or more Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir  Ans: A 42. The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: A – 1 minute 30 seconds B – 1 minute C – 2 minutes D – 2 minutes 30 seconds Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 43. The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is: A – 2 minutes B – 1 minute C – 1.5 minutes D – 30 seconds Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 44. What is the longest periodof time that you can fly the 30o leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a holding pattern? A – 1 minute 30 seconds B – 2 minutes 30 seconds C – 3 minutes D – 30 seconds Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 45. An aircraft is inbound to the hold on a track of 190oM. The inbound hold track is 010oM. The correct entry type would be:  A – parallel or direct B – offset or direct C – parallel or offset D – reciprocal or direct Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 033-04 IFR (AIRWAYS) FLIGHT PLANNING 033-04-01 Meteorological considerations 1. Given the following TAF/METAR: What are the lowest cloud conditions (oktas/feet) forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC? JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS FAJS/JNB FT0900 120900Z 121212 36010KT 9999 FEW030CB FEW035 PROB40 TEMPO 1318 VRB15KT 3000 TSRA SCT030CB BKN080 FM2000 03005KT CAVOK BECMG 0204 SCT008 SCT100 PROB30 0305 3000 BCFG BKN004 FM0800 34012KT 9999 SCT025 T25/12Z T15/03Z T27/12Z= A – 5 to 7 at 800 B – 3 to 4 at 800 C – 5 to 7 at 400 D – 3 to 4 at 400 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 2. Given the following TAF/METAR: Which best describes the weather, if any, at Lyon/Satolas at 1330 UTC? LYONS/SATOLAS LFLL/LYS SA1330 121330Z 14007KT 9000 –TSRA FEW020CB SCT033TCU BKN046 09/07 Q1003 NOSIG=  FC1100r 121100Z 121221 VRB03KT 9999 FEW010 SCT020 BKN040 BECMG 1821 33006KT TEMPO 1221 VRB15G20KT 4000 SHRA SCT008 BKN015= FT1000 121000Z 121812 33004KT 9999 SCT025 BKN060 BECMG 2224 VRB02KT 8000 SCT010 SCT020 BECMG 0204 1500 BR BKN003 TEMPO 0407 0800 FG OVC002 BECMG 0810 33006KT 9999 SCT015 BKN030= A – nil B – Frequent rain showers C – Fog D – Light rain associated with thunderstorms Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3. Refer to weather information for Birmingham. What is the total time for which the weather is forecast? BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011= FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 – DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37= FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007 KT FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007 KT A – 9 hours B – 18 hours C – 24 hours D – 28 hours Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 4. Given the following TAF/METAR: What maximum windspeed (kt) is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC AT 1600 UTC ? Bordeaux/Merignac LFBD/BOD SA1330 121330Z 21005KT 9000 FEW030TCU FEW 033CB SCT040 BKN100 09/08 Q1005 TEMPO 25015G25KT 3000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= FC1100R 121100Z 121221 28010KT 9999 –RA SCT020 FEW025CB SCT040 TEMPO 1218 25015G25KT 6000 SHRA SCT008 SCT020CB BKN033 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 28020G30KT 3000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB BECMG 1821 22004KT 8000 NSW FEW006 BKN030= FT1000 121000Z 121812 30010KT 9999 SCT020 FEW025CB BKN040 BECMG 1822 22004KT 8000 FEW006 BKN030 BECMG 0306 24005KT 6000 SCT007 SCT015 BKN090 BECMG 1012 –RA= A – 10 B–5 C – 30 D – 25 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 5. A METAR reads: SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024= Which of the following information is contained in this METAR? A – temperature/dewpoint B – runway in use C – day/month D – period of validity Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 6. Refer to the TAF below: What are the lowest cloud conditions forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH)? TAF EDDH ISSUED AT EDDH 0624 21010KT CAVOK BECMG 0810 9999 SCT025 SCT040 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 7000 –RADZ BKN012 BECMG 1620 7000 BKN020 TEMPO 1824 4000 RADZ BKN005 A – 5 to 7 at 1200 ft B – 3 to 4 at 500 ft C – 5 to 7 at 500 ft D – 5 to 7 at 2000 ft Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 7. Refer to weather information at Birmingham. What is the lowest visibility forecast at 280800Z? BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011= FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 –DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37= FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007KT A – 50 km B – 5000m C – 10 km or more D – 2500m Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 8. Given the following TAF/METAR: What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for Tunis/Carthage? TUNIS/CARTHAGE DTTA/TUN SA1330 121330Z 24008KT 9999 FEW023 BKN200 24/08 Q1007= FC1200 121200Z 121322 28012KT 9999 FEW030 SCT200 BECMG 1518 30014KT SCT026 BKN200 TEMP9O 1722 32014G25KT 6000 =SHRA FEW023CB= FT1020 121020Z 121212 26012KT 9999 FEW030 SCT 200 BECMG 1619 30014KT 8000 SCT020 BKN100 TEMPO 1802 32014G25KT 6000 SHRA OR – TSSHRA FEW023CB BECMG 0406 28019KT 6000 BECMG 0810 8000 SCT020 SCT026 TEMPO 5000 –SHRA FEW026CB= A – 0800 B – 1300 C – 1800 D – nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 9. A METAR reads: SA 1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024 Which of the following information is contained in this report? A – Day month B – Runway in use C – Temperature, dewpoint D – Period of validity Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 10. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45oN 026oE)? A – Severe B – Nil C – Moderate D – Light Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 11. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of Casablanca (N33 W008)? A – Severe B – Moderate C – Light D – Nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 12. (Refer to figure 10-2) What is the temperature deviation (oC) from ISA over 60oN 000oE? A - -9 B - -55 C - +2 D - +9 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 13. (Refer to figure 10-1) What is the maximum wind speed over Italy? A – 100 kt at FL380 B – 110 kts at FL380 but the maximum not shown on the chart C – 110 kts at FL380 D – 130 kts at FL340 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 14. (Refer to figure 10-2) What mean temperature (C) is likely on a course 360 (T) from N40 to N50 at E020? A - -47 B - -46 C - -49 D - -50 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 15. (Refer to figure 10-2) The approximate mean wind component (kt) along the true course 180 from 50N to 40N at 020E is: A – 55 kt tailwind B – 40 kt tailwind C – 70 kt tailwind D – 55 kt headwind Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 16. (Refer to figure 10-1) At position 38oN 15oE what is the worst hazard which could be expected? A – Engine flame-out and windscreen damage B – Turbulence C – Reduced visibility D – Nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 17. (Refer to figure 10-1) What is the wind associated with Munich (N50 E010)? A – Maximum wind of 160 kt from 360T B – Maximum wind of 120 kt from 260M C – Maximum wind of 100 kt from 360T D – Maximum wind of 140 kt from 290T Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 18. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53N 10W) to BERLIN (53N 13E)? A – None B – FL290 C – FL210 D – FL250 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 19. (Refer to figure 10-2) The approximate mean wind component at Mach 0.78 along the true course 270o at N50 from 000o to 010W is? A – 25 kt tailwind component B – 55 kt headwind component C – 35 kt tailwind component D – 40 kt headwind component Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 20. (Refer to figure 10-1) In the vicinity of WARSAW (52N 020E) the tropopause is at approximate FL: A – 400 B – 370 C – 350 D – 330 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 21. (Refer to figure 10-1) The surface system over London (51N 000E) is a/an: A – cold front moving west B – warm front moving north C – stationary occluded front D – occluded front moving east Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 22. (Refer to figure 10-1) In the vicinity of Paris (N49 E003), the tropopause is at approximately: A – FL340 B – FL400 C – FL350 D – FL380 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 23. (Refer to figure 10-1) Over PRAGUE (50N 014E) the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is: A – 350 B – 300 C – 270 D – 400 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 24. (Refer to figure 10-1) The surface weather system over England (53oN 002oW) is: A – a warm front moving south east B – a cold front moving east C – an occluded front moving east D – a depression moving north Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 25. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, forecast for the area south west of BODO (67oN 014oE)? A – 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180 B – 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180 C – 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180 D – Nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 26. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32oN 020oE)? A – Light B – Moderate C – Severe D – Nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 27. (Refer to figure 10-1) The wind velocity over ITALY is: A – a maximum of 110 kt at FL380 B – 130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart C – a maximum of 160 kt at FL380 D – 110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 28. (Refer to figure 10-2) The wind direction and velocity (o/kt) at 50oN 040oE is: A – 200/70 B – 020/80 C – 020/70 D – 350/70 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 29. (Refer to figure 10-2) The wind direction and velocity (o/kt) at 60oN 015oW is: A – 290/155 B – 320/155 C – 110/155 D – 290/185 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 30. (Refer to figure 10-2) What is the mean temperature deviation (oC) from the ISA over 50oN 10oW? A - +2 B - +9 C - +13 D - -2 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 31. (Refer to figure 10-2) The wind direction and velocity (o/kt) at 40oN 040oE is: A – 150/75 B – 300/75 C – 330/75 D – 330/85 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 32. (Refer to figure 10-7) What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR (EGLL)? A – 2200 B – 5000 C – 10,000 D – 1500 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 33. (Refer to figure 10-7) Which affects the visibility for 1330 UTC at TUNIS (DTTA)? A – Haze B – Mist C – Smoke D – Dust Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 34. (Refer to figure 10-7) What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for DUBAI (OMDB)? A – 1000 B – 1200 C – 1400 D – Nil forecast Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 35. (Refer to figure 10-2) What mean temperature (oC) is likely on a course of 360o(T) from 40oN to 50oN at 040oE? A - -49 B - -50 C - -47 D - -46 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 36. (Refer to figure 10-2) The W/V (o/kt) at 50oN 015oW is: A – 100/75 B – 175/90 C – 310/85 D – 355/90 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 37. (Refer to figure 10-2) What mean temperature (oC) is likely on a true course of 270o from 025oE to 010oE at 45oN? A - -48 B - -52 C - -54 D - -50 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 38. (Refer to figure 10-2) The W/V (o/kt) at 40oN 020oW is: A – 185/65 B – 005/65 C – 185/60 D – 005/60 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 39. (Refer to figure 10-25) What is the temperature deviation (oC) from ISA over 50oN 010oE? A - +10 B - -10 C - -55 D - +2 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 40. (Refer to figure 10-5) The W/V (o/kt) at 60oN 15oW is: A – 290/40 B – 110/40 C – 280/20 D – 100/20 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 41. (Refer to figure 10-4) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area over Warsaw (52oN 021oE)? A – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL120 B – 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL120 C – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL120 D – 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL120 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 42. (Refer to figure 10-4) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL100 overhead Warsaw (52oN 021oE)? A – severe B – moderate C – light D – nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 43. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of the Canary Islands (29oN 015oW)? A – moderate or severe B – moderate C – light D – nil Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 44. (Refer to figure 10-4) The surface system over ZURICH (48oN 008oE) is: A – Occluded front moving east B – Quasi-stationary front moving east C – Quasi-stationary front moving south D – Occluded front moving north east Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 45. (Refer to figure 10-4) In the vicinity of Paris (49oN 002oE) the tropopause is at about FL: A – 340 B – 350 C – 400 D – 450 Ref: AIR:atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 46. (Refer to figure 10-4) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over ZURICH (48oN 008oE)? A – broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL190, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL300 B – well separated CB base FL100 top