IREX Question 1 Jan 2023 PDF

FTA IREX QUESTION 1 1 IREX QUESTIONS 1 IREX VH-OZY Effective 2 December 2021...

FTA IREX QUESTION 1 1 IREX QUESTIONS 1 IREX VH-OZY Effective 2 December 2021 For use in the CASA IREX exam only THE AIRCRAFT TYPE........ Twin piston engine aeroplane CALLSIGN...... VH-OZY MAX AUW...... Less than 5,700 kg. SPEED...... Cruise TAS 180 knots. AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE Category B. CROSS WIND COMPONENT 20 knots maximum for take-off or landing. TAIL WIND COMPONENT.. 10 knots maximum for take-off or landing. STANDARD EQUIPMENT The aircraft is fully equipped and serviceable for air transport operations under IFR. The aircraft does NOT have oxygen, pressurisation, de-icing/anti-icing, or auto feathering. Equipment fitted includes: 1. 2 x GNSS units, TSO-C146a (IFR approved). 2. 1 x VOR/ILS with glideslope and marker beacon receiver. 3. 1 x fixed card ADF. 4. Mode S transponder. 5. 3 axis autopilot, no flight director nor approach-capable system. 6. 2 x VHF radios. 7. 1 x HF radio. 8. Weather radar with 30 kW output rating. 9. Life jackets. 10. Life raft. ► No DME Unless otherwise stated in the question, assume all navigation aids and aircraft equipment are serviceable, GNSS RAIM is available, and you are qualified to fly as PIC, all instrument procedures based on these navigation aids (in any combination). The GNSS units fitted to the aircraft are deemed to be capable or RNAV 5, RNAV 2, RNAV1, RNP2, RNP1 and RNP APCH (LNAV only). OPERATIONS Unless otherwise stated in the question, the examination relates to an aeroplane flight operating to IFR procedures. FUEL Company fuel policy is compliant with CASR Part 91 MOS, Chapter 19, Table 19.02 (2) for aeroplanes with MTOW < 5,700 kg under the IFR or CASR Part 135 MOS, Chapter 7. All fuel calculations will be in minutes Do not separately plan climbs and descents. Assume holding consumption equals cruise consumption Do not add any time allowance for taxi, instrument approaches and overshoots. ADDTIONAL ABBREVIATIONS USED AICUS - acting in command under supervision CDI - Course deviation indicator/indication CIR - Command Instrument Rating OBS - Omni bearing selector/selection OBI - Omni bearing indicator PIC - pilot in command 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 2 1. You are cruising at FL 150 and have been instructed to descend to 9000'. You must change the altimeter setting from 1013.2 to local QNH? a. Immediately before commencing descent. b. Prior to transition layer. c. Descending through 10000'. d. Just prior to reaching 9000'. 2. You are the pilot in command of an IFR air transport flight, approaching GERALDTON, WA, which is a non-towered aerodrome. When should you monitor and broadcast on the CTAF frequency? a. By 5 NM from the aerodrome. b. Descending through 5000'. c. By 10 NM or earlier from the aerodrome. d. By 15 NM from the aerodrome. 3. You are planning an IFR air transport flight by day into an aerodrome for which no ground-based instrument approach and no RNAV/GNSS approach is available. Select the requirement regarding the alternate for this flight. a. No alternate is required. b. No alternate is required providing the area forecast indicates no more than 4 eighths cloud below LSALT + 500 feet and visibility not less than 8 km. c. An alternate is always required for an aerodrome with NO TAF. d. An alternate is not required providing the area forecast VMC will exist during the flight. 4. An aircraft is equipped with one VHF com. and one HF com. It takes 40 minutes from departure aerodrome to destination aerodrome. The destination requires an alternate due to lighting requirements. The time interval to the alternate is 40 minutes. The alternate is served by PAL with standby power and no responsible person is in attendance. Which are the minimum fuel requirements for this flight? a. 110 minutes. b. 137 minutes. c. 160 minutes. d. 167 minutes. 5. The distance between the departure and destination aerodromes is 150 nm. GNSS in the aircraft is unserviceable, and there is no radio navigation aid at either the departure or the destination aerodrome. With reference to the lowest safe altitude calculated for this flight, the area to be considered is a semi circle of a radius around the destination of how many miles? a. 7 nm. b. 12 nm. c. 38 nm. d. 43 nm. 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 3 6. An aircraft is in controlled airspace and maintaining track with reference to radio navigation aids. These aids fail, however the aircraft is able to maintain track by navigating by visual reference to the ground. If the aircraft is found to be off- track, when must the pilot immediately notify ATC? a. More than 2 nm from the cleared track. b. More than 1 nm from the cleared track. c. More than 3 nm from the cleared track. d. More than 5 nm from the cleared track. 7. You are inbound to an aerodrome with a published instrument approach procedure [non precision] at night. The weather conditions are such as to allow for a visual approach. The runway you intend to use is equipped with a PAPI. Which is the greatest distance from the runway you are permitted to descend below the MSA? a. Within the circling area. b. Within 5 nm aligned with the runway centreline and established not below "on slope" on the PAPI. c. Within 7 nm aligned with the runway centreline and established not below "on slope" on the PAPI. d. Within 10 nm aligned with the runway centreline and established not below "on slope" on the PAPI. 8. You have completed a published non precision approach, at night, to the MDA and are within the circling area of the aerodrome. Which lights must be kept in sight before descent below the MDA is permitted? a. Runway edge lighting and threshold lighting. b. Runway edge lighting and threshold lighting and approach lighting. c. Runway edge lighting and threshold lighting and wind direction indicator lighting and taxiway lighting. d. Runway threshold or approach lighting. 9. AMBERLY QLD. ILS-Z Rwy 15. You are not in receipt of either the ATIS or the AWIS. Which is the correct DA for this approach? a. 290'. b. 390'. c. 340'. d. 440'. 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 4 10. You are conducting a GNSS ARRIVAL to COFFS HARBOUR, NSW. Established inbound tracking 180 by reference to the VOR you commence descent in accordance with the published procedure. Passing 1850’ you receive a RAIM warning. Which of the following would be the correct procedure? a. Use the DME and continue approach. b. Continue descent to MDA and track to the VOR. c. Initiate a missed approach and climb to at least 2500’ whilst tracking to the missed approach point. d. Maintain present altitude or descend no lower than 1850' and track to the VOR. 11. You plan a flight in VH-OZY carrying passengers to PARABURDOO, WA (YPBO). Which frequency would you use to cancel SARWATCH? a. 128.15 MHz b. 125.7 MHz c. 135.6 MHz d. 126.8 KHz 12. Departure SYDNEY INTL, NSW. SYDNEY TWO DEPARTURE (RADAR). RWY 07. Your IAS is 150 kt and there is a tailwind component of 10 kt. Which is the minimum rate of climb for this procedure? a. 714. b. 742. c. 762. d. 782 13. You are rostered to conduct an IFR air transport flight [in VH-OZY] and you need to check your recency. In the last 90 days you logged the following: 17hrs command instrument flight time in VH-OZY, with no instrument approaches. 8hrs instrument flight time as co-pilot in multi-crew operations, which included 1 NDB approach and two ILS approaches, all in IMC. Which are the minimum recent experience requirements before you can fly as pilot in command of the rostered flight? a. 1 hr dual or AICUS instrument time in a single-pilot synthetic trainer. b. 3 hrs instrument time in a single-pilot synthetic trainer including one instrument approach. c. 1 simulated instrument approach in a single pilot operation in an approved simulation training device. d. 1 instrument approach as pilot in command in a single-pilot aeroplane in IMC. e. Nothing further required 18 Jan. 23  FTA IREX QUESTION 1 5 14. You are planning a flight over a non-published route and have to calculate the LSALT. The elevation of terrain is 850' and obstacle is situated on the route with a height of 130' AGL. Which is the minimum LSALT for this route? a. 2300' b. 2210' c. 1950' d. 2400' 15. At some aerodromes, due to obstacles, there are sectors which have been eliminated from the visual circling area and are annotated "No Circling". When is it possible to operate in theses areas? a. Never. b. By day, when VMC conditions exist. c. At night. d. In an emergency only. 16. Refer ERC LOW 2: TAC-3. JEPP AU(LO) 7: MELBOURNE AREA CHART. You are planning a flight from HORSHAM, VIC [S36 40.1; E142 10.3] to MOORABBIN, VIC. An appropriate ERC route to plan if you intend to cruise at A090 is? a. HSM – ESDIG – AV - MB b. HSM – ESDIG- WENDY- ML – EN – MB c. HSM – ESDIG – WENDY – ML – MB d. HSM – ESDIG – WENDY – AV – SAMIG -- MB 17. You are inbound to CANBERRA, ACT for a VOR Rwy 35 instrument approach. Due to traffic you are instructed to hold over the CB VOR at 5100 feet while waiting to conduct the reversal procedure. The holding requirements are? a. 1 Min or D14.0, first reached at Max IAS 170 kts b. 1 Min, Max IAS 230 kts c. 1 Min, Max IAS 170 kts d. 1 Min or D14.0, first reached at Max IAS 230 kts 18. You are in OZY on an IFR flight carrying passengers. You arrive overhead PORT LINCOLN, SA (YPLC) at 0311Z with 110 min. fuel onboard. Your alternate is 50 min. You enter the holding pattern due to fog. Which is the latest time to divert? a. 0326Z b. 0318Z c. 0411Z d. 0311Z 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 6 19. You are at 1700' and have just passed over the NDB at GOVE, NT, for the NDB Rwy 31 approach and are outbound on the initial track of 117 degrees. Which is the maximum speed you are permitted during this segment of the approach? a. 180 kts. b. 130 kts. c. 210 kts. d. 140 kts. 20. You are planning a flight to BRISBANE INTL, QLD. Due to technical problems, one VHF COM is unserviceable. Which are the cloud and visibility minima when considering alternate requirements? a. 700' - 2.5 km. b. 300' - 2 km. c. 1135’ – 4.4 km d. 1237' - 6.0 km. 21. You are planning a flight to HOBART, TAS. You study the aerodrome forecast and note the forecast cloud is as follows: SCT017 FEW016 with a VIZ of 4.4 km. At the time of your arrival, the tower will be operating and all airport facilities are available. Do you need to plan for an alternate for weather? a. Yes, because the total cloud is more than SCT below the alternate minimum. b. No alternate is required. c. Yes, because the VIZ is 4.4 Km. 22. You are told by ATC to "STOP SQUAWK". This instruction is in reference to your transponder operation and means? a. Termination of transponder operation. b. Temporary suspension of transponder operation. c. Reselection of the assigned mode and code. d. Termination of pressure altitude transmission because of faulty operation. 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 7 23. Inbound to CANBERRA, ACT, on a track of 330 M. You are carrying out the published DME or GNSS ARRIVAL procedure and are not visual at the MDA. Which is the correct procedure? a. Maintain 3250' until CB VOR, turn right, track 020, climb to 5100' or as directed by ATC. b. Climb to 5100 right away, turn left, track 020 or as directed by ATC. c. Maintain 3250' until CB VOR, or commence climb; track to CB VOR, turn right, track 020, climb to 5100', or as directed by ATC. d. Maintain 3250' until CB VOR, or commence climb; track to CB VOR, turn right, track 020, climb to 5100', or as directed by ATC. Requirement to complete turn within CB 4 DME. 24. Inbound to WEST SALE, VIC for the NDB-Z Rwy 27 instrument approach. Due to traffic, you are required to enter and maintain the holding pattern for a period of time. Which is the maximum speed permitted? a. 230 kts IAS. b. 140 kts IAS. c. 170 kts IAS. d. 210 kts IAS. 25. You are planning a night IFR flight to ECHUCA; VIC in VH-OZY. You have arranged for a responsible person to be in attendance from 30 minutes before your ETA until after you park the aircraft. Are you required to carry an alternate for this flight? a. You need to carry an alternate because TAF is not available for the aerodrome b. You do not need to carry an alternate c. You do not need to carry an alternate if you carry 30 minutes additional fuel for holding. d. You do not need to carry an alternate if both VHF radios are working correctly 26. You are planning a flight into HERVEY BAY, QLD with an ETA of 2335 UTC. The forecast is as follows: TAF YHBA 011805Z 0119/0207 29005KT 4000 LIGHT SHOWERS OF RAIN SCT025 BKN010 FM 012300 07012KT 6000 LIGHT SHOWERS OF RAIN SCT030 SCT020 T 16 19 23 24 Q 1011 1011 1010 1009 With regard to alternate requirements for this flight: a. alternate and holding fuel are not required. b. alternate or 5 min holding fuel is required. c. alternate is required d. alternate or 30 min holding fuel required. 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 8 27 You are conducting AMBERLY QLD. LOC-Z Rwy 15 in IMC, with no receipt of either the ATIS or the AWIS. Which is the lowest altitude you can go down to when you plan to land on runway 04? a. 290'. b. 390'. c. 760’ d. 860’. 28. An aircraft has just commenced a descent from FL160 towards the destination aerodrome. When should the pilot change the altimeter setting from 1013 hPa to local QNH? [Area QNH 970 hPa.] a. Top of descent. b. 10 nm from aerodrome. c. Prior to FL 125. d. Prior to FL 110. 29. You are conducting ILS-Z approach for Rwy 21 at PERTH International, WA. Which is the lowest permitted descent altitude in IMC and the procedure to carry out if not visual with the required visibility? a. 550' and track to the PH VOR, then initiate the published missed approach procedure. b. 250' and initiate the published missed approach straight away. c. 250' and track to the runway, then carry out the published missed approach. d. 550’ leveling off, then initiate the published missed approach procedure. 30. You are planning a flight to MACKAY, QLD (YBMK). The flight time is 2 hours 30 mins. The nearest suitable alternate is 35 minutes flight time from YBMK. The Terminal Forecast is as follows: TAF YBMK 011825Z 0120/0208 35015KT 4000 TSRA BKN015 FEW040CB. FM020300 25008 9999 SCT035 BKN090 T 16 21 26 27 Q 1007 1008 1006 1005 You plan to arrive at 0315UTC and do not want to nominate an alternate unless it is a requirement. Select the minimum amount of fuel (in minutes) which must be carried for this flight? a. 195 minutes b. 225 minutes c. 220 minutes d. 235 minutes 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 9 31. You are inbound to DUBBO, NSW to conduct the NDB-A approach. All airborne and ground based equipment is reported as serviceable. TAF indicates a wind 220/20KT. Which of the following is the MDA for this approach? a. 1630’ - 2.4 km b. 1730' - 2.4 km c. 1600' - 3.8 km d. 1500' - 3.8 km 32. You are planning a flight to ROMA, QLD [YROM] with an ETA of 1200 UTC. You are considering St GEORGE [YSGE] as your alternate. Both aerodromes are unattended at the time of your arrival. There are no weather or radio aid limitations affecting your flight. Do you require an alternate for this flight and is SGE suitable? a. An alternate is required and ST GEORGE is not suitable. b. No alternate is required. c. An alternate is required; ST GEORGE is suitable if you carry 30 min holding fuel. d. An alternate is required, ST GEORGE is suitable. 33. Maintaining 3900ft on PARKES (NSW) GNSS ARRIVAL from Bathurst, GNSS RAIM warning on just after passing 14 DME. What is the lowest altitude you can descend to? a. 3900 ft b. 3500 ft c. 2140 ft d. 2800 ft 34. You have departed a non-towered aerodrome and are on climb to FL150. When do you change your altimeter sub-scale from local QNH to 1013.2hPa? a. Before take-off. b. Passing through A095. c. Passing through A100. d. Passing through FL100. e. Passing through FL125. 35. You are conducting the LOC-Y Rwy 23 approach at ADELAIDE, SA. You level out at the MDA at 2.5 DME and are still in IMC. Which of the following actions would you choose if you wish to land as soon as possible? a. Commence the missed approach procedure at D2.5 AD and try another approach. b. Track to D1.5 AD and carry out the missed approach procedure if you are not visual with the minimum required visibility. c. Immediately carry out the missed approach procedure and try another approach. d. Track to the AD VOR and carry out the missed approach procedure. 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 10 36. Refer ERC LOW 2 or JEPP AU (LO) 7. You are flying at A090 from MILDURA, VIC (YMIA) (S34 14 E142 05) via W481 SWAN HILL and H119 CANTY to MELBOURNE INTL, VIC (YMML). At which distance from MELBOURNE will you be entering controlled airspace? a 20 nm b 30 nm c 45 nm d 90 nm 37. Your destination is YXXX, which satisfies lighting and radio nav aid requirements. A possible alternate is YYYY. The relevant TAFs for your flight are as follows: TAF YXXX 0318/0322 23010KT 5000 -RA BKN018CB OVC100 TAF YYYY 0318/0322 21005KT 9999 SCT060. Flight time to YXXX is 1 hour and 40 minutes. Flight time from YXXX to YYYY is another 50 minutes. Which is the latest time of your departure in order to plan the flight within the validity period of the TAFs? a. 2100 UTC b. 1920 UTC c. 1830 UTC d. 1930 UTC 38. You are required to conduct a payload critical flight to SYDNEY INTL, NSW. You need to carry the minimum amount of fuel required. One VHF communication radio is unserviceable. Which are the alternate minima for this flight? a. 700' - 2.5KM b. 1189' - 4.4KM c. 285' - 1.5KM d. 270' - 1.5KM 39. You are flying inbound to the MT GAMBIER, SA, VOR on a track of 145 degrees. Which OBS setting and which indication will you have if you require command indications? a. 325 OBS - TO b. 145 OBS - TO c. 145 OBS - FROM d. 325 OBS - FROM 40. You are planning a flight from HUGHENDEN, Qld to CAIRNS; Qld. NOTAM: due to technical problems the ILS are not working at Cairns. The ADF in your aircraft is unserviceable. Which are the alternate minima for this flight? a. 390' - 1.3 km b. 1010' - 4.0 km c. 1220' - 4.4 km d. 1280’ - 4.4km 18 Jan. 23 FTA IREX QUESTION 1 11 41. Find the correct operation of VHF Pilot Activated Lighting (PAL). a. Three pulses must be transmitted within 25 seconds b. Three pulses must be transmitted within 15 seconds c. Transmit pulse must be between 1 and 2 seconds. d. wind indicator light will flash during the last 5 minutes of illumination. 18 Jan. 23