BT 2012 Past Exam Paper PDF

QUESTION BOOKLET CODE A 2012 BT Test Paper Code: BT Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 300 INSTRUCTIONS A. General: 1. This Booklet i...

QUESTION BOOKLET CODE A 2012 BT Test Paper Code: BT Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 300 INSTRUCTIONS A. General: 1. This Booklet is your Question Paper. It contains X pages and has 100 questions. 2. The Question Booklet Code is printed on the right-hand top corner of this page. 3. The Question Booklet contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Clip board, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phone and electronic gadgets in any form are NOT allowed. 5. Write your Name and Registration Number in the space provided at the bottom. 6. All answers are to be marked only on the machine gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) provided along with this booklet, as per the instructions therein. 7. The Question Booklet along with the Objective Response Sheet (ORS) must be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. 8. Refer to Special Instruction/Useful Data on reverse of this sheet. B. Filling-in the ORS: 9. Write your Registration Number in the boxes provided on the upper left-hand-side of the ORS and darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your Registration Number using a HB pencil. 10. Ensure that the code on the Question Booklet and the code on the ORS are the same. If the codes do not match, report to the Invigilator immediately. 11. On the lower-left-hand-side of the ORS, write your Name, Registration Number, Name of the Test Centre and put your signature in the appropriate box with ball- point pen. Do not write these anywhere else. C. Marking of Answers on the ORS: 12. Each question has 4 choices for its answer: (A), (B), (C) and (D). Only ONE of them is the correct answer. 13. On the right-hand-side of ORS, for each question number, darken with a HB Pencil ONLY one bubble corresponding to what you consider to be the most appropriate answer, from among the four choices. 14. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. MARKING SCHEME: (a) For each correct answer, you will be awarded 3 (Three) marks. (b) For each wrong answer, you will be awarded -1 (Negative one) mark. (c) Multiple answers to a question will be treated as a wrong answer. (d) For each un-attempted question, you will be awarded 0 (Zero) mark. Name Registration Number BT- i / 24  A Special Instructions/ Useful Data BT- ii / 24  A Q.1 The % base pair values of four nucleic acid samples are provided below. Which one of the following samples has the highest Tm? (A) A = 31; T = 21; G = 20; C = 28 (B) A = 26; T = 14; G = 34; C = 26 (C) A = 17; T = 19; G = 33; C = 31 (D) A = 20; T = 30; G = 25; C = 25 Q.2 Which one of the following is TRUE regarding organization of human chromosomes? It is made up of (A) histones that are acidic proteins. (B) extra-chromosomal circular DNA. (C) chromatin that consists of DNA and basic proteins. (D) non-chromosomal DNA. Q.3 The melting point of unsaturated fatty acid (A) is not related to the number of double bonds. (B) increases with increase in the number of double bonds. (C) is higher than that of its corresponding saturated fatty acid. (D) decreases with increase in the number of double bonds. Q.4 Match the hormones in Group I with the metabolic processes in Group II Group I Group II P. Progesterone 1. Increases gluconeogenesis in liver Q. Glucagon 2. Implantation of fertilized ovum R. Insulin 3. Stimulates spermatogenesis process S. Androgen 4. Stimulates glucose uptake and storage (A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 Q.5 The most abundant immunoglobulin in human blood is (A) IgM. (B) IgA. (C) IgD. (D) IgG. Q.6 The process of purification and recovery of a product in biotechnology is known as (A) upstream processing. (B) downstream processing. (C) incubation. (D) formulation. Q.7 If the velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction is 60% of vmax , then the ratio of substrate concentration [S] to Michaelis-Menton constant KM is (A) 1 (B) 1.5 (C) 2 (D) 4 Q.8 In a DNA replication experiment, 1 μg of 15N DNA is allowed to replicate till two generations with 14N DNA. The amount (in μg) of 14N DNA formed during the second replication process is BT- 1 / 24  A (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q.9 Transport activities in cell membranes are carried by ____________; whereas fluidity of membranes is maintained by ____________. (A) lipids; proteins (B) proteins; nucleic acids (C) lipids; nucleic acids (D) proteins; lipids Q.10 Nodules of leguminous plants are a good source for the isolation of bacteria capable of (A) nitrogen fixation. (B) carbon fixation. (C) cellulase production. (D) amylase production. Q.11 Which of the following statements regarding techniques and their applications is NOT correct? (A) Recombinant DNA Technology: cloning genes and expression of proteins. (B) Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay: recognize antigen and antibody interactions. (C) Polymerase Chain Reaction: amplify specific DNA sequences. (D) Western Blot: detect DNA in given samples. Q.12 Addition of casein to solid media and picking up bacterial colonies that form clear zone is termed as (A) differential enrichment. (B) streaking. (C) serial dilution. (D) selective enrichment. Q.13 Leishmaniasis is transmitted by (A) sand fly. (B) tsetse fly. (C) rodent fly. (D) mosquitoes. Q.14 The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is affected by (A) hemoglobin concentration. (B) partial pressure of oxygen. (C) bicarbonate concentration. (D) 2,3-biphosphoglyceric acid. Q.15 The Human Genome Project was aimed for (A) DNA sequencing and DNA mapping. (B) protein and DNA sequencing. (C) protein sequencing and DNA mapping. (D) RNA sequencing and genome database. Q.16 In photosynthesis, the light energy is used to (A) generate low energy electrons. (B) produce ATP and NADPH. (C) generate chlorophyll. (D) form water from oxygen. BT- 2 / 24  A Q.17 In gram staining of gram negative bacteria, the crystal violet-iodine complex formed will be washed away after addition of (A) safranin solution. (B) ethyl acetate. (C) water. (D) alcohol. Q.18 The oxidation of glycolate to glyoxylate during photorespiration occurs in (A) bundle sheath cells. (B) mesophyll cells. (C) mesenchymal cells. (D) parenchymal cells. Q.19 In higher plants, the light harvesting molecules are (A) vitamin D and cytochrome C. (B) cytochrome C and cholorophyll. (C) anthocyanin and carotenoid. (D) chlorophyll and carotenoid. Q.20 Match the cell organelles in Group I with their functions listed in Group II Group I Group II P. Peroxisome 1. storage of starch granules Q. Mitochondria 2. detoxification R. Ribosome 3. proton gradient formation S. Leucoplast 4. protein synthesis (A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 Q.21 The effect of hypotonic solution on a plant cell and red blood cell are, respectively, (A) turgid and burst. (B) shrink and burst. (C) turgid and shrink. (D) plasmolysed and burst. Q.22 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for the classification of carbohydrates? (A) Dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde are trioses. (B) Galactose and glucose are hexoses. (C) Mannose and fructose are pentoses. (D) Erythrose and threose are tetroses. Q.23 The last stage of spermatozoa formation in spermatogenesis is (A) second meiotic division. (B) first meiotic division. (C) mitosis. (D) differentiation. Q.24 In plant tissue culture, differentiation of callus to root requires (A) high auxin and low cytokinin. (B) low auxin and high cytokinin. (C) low auxin and low cytokinin. (D) high auxin and high cytokinin. BT- 3 / 24  A Q.25 Regenerative medicine aims at (A) discovering small molecules. (B) generating therapeutic proteins. (C) growing tissues and organs. (D) identifying genetic mutations. Q.26 Which of the following is NOT required in a Polymerase Chain Reaction? (A) DNA template (B) Mg++ ion (C) Primers (D) Restriction enzymes Q.27 Which one of the following processes allows introduction of gene of interest to a target site in genome? (A) Somatic embryogenesis (B) Organogenesis (C) Gene cloning (D) Southern hybridization Q.28 Based on the dissociation constant Kd, the protein - ligand pair that has the strongest interaction is (A) insulin and insulin receptor (Kd = 1 × 10−10). (B) avidin and biotin (Kd = 1 × 10−15). (C) HIV surface protein and anti-HIV IgG (Kd = 4 × 10−10). (D) calmodulin and calcium (Kd = 3 × 10−6). Q.29 In genetic code, the codon degeneracy occurs at _________________ position(s). (A) first (B) second (C) third (D) first and third Q.30 In pea plants, green pod color is dominant over yellow pod color. 1000 seeds taken from a pea plant germinated to produce 760 green pod plants and 240 yellow pod plants. The parental genotype and phenotype of the seed plants are (A) heterozygous and yellow. (B) homozygous and green. (C) heterozygous and green. (D) homozygous and yellow. Q.31 Which of the following is FALSE for DNA? (A) DNA strands do not contain Uracil. (B) Two strands of DNA associate in parallel arrangement. (C) Orientation of one strand is 3´ to 5´ and other strand is 5´ to 3´. (D) Ability of nucleotide in two strands to form specific base pairs is due to hydrogen bonds. Q.32 In 2009, the swine flu outbreak was _______________ in nature. (A) sporadic (B) pandemic (C) chronic (D) endemic BT- 4 / 24  A Q.33 In angiosperms, the microsporangia develops to form (A) stigma. (B) ovule. (C) endosperm. (D) pollen sacs. Q.34 Given the pKa values of different acidic sites in cysteine, the principal ionic form in which it exists at pH 7.0, is + O pKa 10.5 NH3 OH pKa 1.9 H CH2SH pKa 8.4 (A) (B) O O + + NH3 - NH3 - O O - H CH2S H CH2SH (C) (D) O O H2N - H2N O OH - H CH2S H CH2S - Q.35 In ______________ evolution, ______________ anatomical structures develop in different directions to adapt different functions. (A) convergent, homologous. (B) divergent, homologous. (C) convergent, analogous. (D) divergent, analogous. Q.36 A model of gene control for the lac operon is shown below. I P O Z Y A Match the component of lac operon in Group I with the function listed in Group II. Group I Group II K. O 1. Encodes protein β-galactoside permease L. P 2. Provides binding site for RNA polymerase M. Y 3. Initiates lac mRNA synthesis N. A 4. Encodes protein thiogalactoside transacetylase (A) K-2, L-3, M-4, N-1 (B) K-3, L-2, M-4, N-1 (C) K-3, L-2, M-1, N-4 (D) K-2, L-3, M-1, N-4 BT- 5 / 24  A Q.37 Venkatraman Ramakrishnan was awarded noble prize in 2009 in chemistry for studying the structure and functions of (A) ribosome. (B) nucleosome. (C) spliceosome. (D) graphine. Q.38 The formation of 3-phosphoglyceric acid from 1,3-diphosphoglyceric acid in presence of phosphoglycerokinase is an example of (A) substrate level phosphorylation. (B) oxidative phosphorylation. (C) dehydrogenation. (D) isomerization. Q.39 During replication helicase enzyme separates parental strands of DNA in physiological conditions. In a Polymerase Chain Reaction, the function of helicase is achieved by (A) taq polymerase. (B) high temperature. (C) primase. (D) Mg++ ions. Q.40 In cats, white skin is dominant over grey, black eye is dominant over grey, and curl tail is dominant over straight. A cat homozygous for white skin, grey eye, curl tail mates with another cat homozygous for white skin, black eye, straight tail. What percentage of F1 generation will have white skin, black eye, curl tail phenotype? (A) 25% (B) 100% (C) 50% (D) 75% Q.41 Which given pair of greenhouse gases has highest contribution towards global warming? (A) CO2 and CH4 (B) CO2 and CFC (C) CO2 and N2O (D) CFC and CH4 Q.42 The INCORRECT statement regarding second messenger, adenosine 3´,5´-cyclic nucleotide monophosphate (cAMP), is (A) it acts as a second messenger for many regulatory molecules. (B) it acts as an intracellular second messenger in neurons. (C) it activates specific cyclic nucleotide dependent protein kinases. (D) it provides source of energy for cells. Q.43 In lactic acid fermentation, lactate dehydrogenase gene becomes non-functional due to mutation. The product that will accumulate at the end of this process is (A) pyruvate. (B) lactic acid. (C) acetaldehyde. (D) ethyl alcohol. Q.44 The deficiency of vitamin A in humans leads to (A) sterility. (B) rickets. (C) night blindness. (D) scurvy. Q.45 2-Butyne can be selectively reduced to trans-2-butene using (A) H2, Pd/C (B) H2, Pd/CaCO3, quinoline (C) LiAlH4 (D) Na/ liq. NH3 BT- 6 / 24  A Q.46 The correct Fischer projection representation of the following compound, is HO H CH3 H3C Br H (A) (B) CH3 CH3 HO H H OH H Br Br H CH3 CH3 (C) (D) CH3 CH3 HO H H OH Br H H Br CH3 CH3 Q.47 Match the compounds in Group I with their appropriate spectroscopic data in Group II. Group I Group II P. CH3COCH3 1. two singlets of equal intensity in the 1 H-NMR spectrum Q. CH3CH2COOH 2. a band at 1720 cm-1 in the IR spectrum R. CH3COOCH3 3. an intense peak at m/z 45 in the mass spectrum (A) P-1; Q-2; R-3 (B) P-2; Q-3, R-1 (C) P-1; Q-3; R-2 (D) P-2; Q-1; R-3 Q.48 Among the following compounds, the one that is soluble in aqueous NaOH but not in aqueous NaHCO3, is (A) (B) COOH OH BT- 7 / 24  A (C) (D) COOH OH Q.49 The major product of the following reaction sequence, is (i) O3, Zn/H2O (ii) conc. NaOH (iii) aq. acid (A) (B) CHO CHO COOH COOH (C) (D) COOH CHO COOH CH2OH Q.50 The major product formed in the E-2 elimination reaction of the following compound, is Br CH3 H H H3C D (A) (B) CH3 CH3 H H H D H3C H3C (C) (D) CH3 CH2 H3C H H H D H3C D BT- 8 / 24  A Q.51 The most reactive diene towards Diels-Alder reaction, among the following, is (A) (B) O (C) (D) Q.52 The correct structure of pyrophosphorus acid is (A) (B) H OH OH OH HO P O P OH HO P O P OH O (C) (D) H H OH H HO P O P OH HO P O P OH O O O Q.53 Among the following complexes, the one which exhibits optical isomerism, is (note: en = ethylenediamine) (A) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (C) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (D) trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] Q.54 The gas that is produced on treating NaCl with conc. H2SO4 is (A) O2 (B) Cl2 (C) SO2 (D) HCl Q.55 The correct order of the atoms in terms of their first ionization energy is (A) LiC Q.56 The compound with square planar geometry is (A) [Ni(CO)4] (B) [Ni(CN)4]2− (C) [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] (D) [NiCl4]2− BT- 9 / 24  A Q.57 Match the molecules in Group I with their shape in Group II. Group I Group II P. ICl2− 1. trigonal bipyramid Q. H2O 2. linear R. PCl5 3. V-shaped 4. square pyramid (A) P−3, Q−2, R−4 (B) P−4, Q−3, R−1 (C) P−2, Q−3, R−1 (D) P−4, Q−3, R−2 Q.58 The spin-only magnetic moment of [Fe(CN)6]4− is (A) 4.9 D (B) 0 D (C) 5.92 D (D) 2.82 D Q.59 One mole of a gas absorbs 40 J of heat. If the work done on the surrounding by the gas is 20 J, then ΔU (in J) for the gas is (A) 60 (B) 20 (C) −20 (D) −60 Q.60 For the reaction, N 2O4 (g ) ⇔ 2 NO2 ( g ) , taking place in a closed container at a constant temperature, the rate constant k in terms of P0 (pressure at time t = 0) and Pt (pressure at time t) is given by 1 P0 1 P 1 P0 1 P0 (A) ln (B) ln 0 (C) ln (D) ln t 2 P0 − Pt t Pt t P0 − Pt t P0 − 2 Pt Q.61 pK a of acetic acid is 4.80. A 10 mL of 1M solution of acetic acid is mixed with 5 mL of 1 M solution of NaOH. The pH of the resulting solution is (A) 3.2 (B) 7.0 (C) 4.8 (D) 2.4 Q.62 The series that corresponds to transition from higher levels to n = 4 in the hydrogen spectrum is (A) Paschen (B) Balmer (C) Pfund (D) Brackett Q.63 For the reaction, A → product , match the order of the reaction in Group I with their corresponding linear plots in Group II. Group I Group II P. Zero 1. ln[A] versus time Q. First 2. 1/[A] versus time R. Second 3. [A] versus time (A) P−1, Q−2, R−3 (B) P−2, Q−1, R−3 (C) P−3, Q−1, R−2 (D) P−1, Q−3, R−2 BT-10 / 24  A Q.64 Φ Φ Φ If E Au 3+ / Au + = − 0.29 V and E Fe 3+ / Fe 2 + = 0.77 V, then E for the reaction 2 Fe 2+ (aq ) + Au 3+ (aq ) ⇔ 2 Fe3+ (aq ) + Au + (aq ) is (A) +1.06 V (B) −1.06 V (C) −0.48 V (D) −1.83 V Q.65 The depth of a swimming pool filled with clean water (refractive index = 4/3) appears to be 3 m to a person standing near it. Its actual depth is (A) 2.25 m (B) 4 m (C) 5.3 m (D) 9 m Q.66 A semiconductor device that has two p-n junctions is (A) rectifier-diode (B) photo-diode (C) transistor (D) solar-cell Q.67 The resolution of a microscope is directly proportional to the wavelength of the radiation used for its operation. Among the following, maximum possible resolution can be achieved from (A) optical microscope with blue light source. (B) optical microscope with yellow light source. (C) electron microscope operating at 100 kV. (D) electron microscope operating at 200 kV. Q.68 Longitudinal waves can travel through (A) gas only. (B) gas and liquid only. (C) gas and solid only. (D) gas, liquid and solid. Q.69 The waves, y1 = A sin (ωt + kx) and y2 = A cos (ωt + kx), (A) are in same phase. (B) have a phase difference of π/4. (C) have a phase difference of π/2. (D) have a phase difference of π. Q.70 A vertical spring is fixed at its upper end. Same sized blocks of wood (W), glass (G) and copper (Cu) are attached to its lower end one at a time and the system is set into vertical oscillations. The three measured time periods are in the order (A) TCu > TG > TW (B) TW > TG > TCu (C) TG > TCu > TW (D) TCu > TW > TG Q.71 A neutron collides head-on with a He-atom at rest. Collision is elastic and He-atom recoils with a speed of 2 × 105 m/s. Then, the initial speed of the neutron is (A) 0.5 × 105 m/s. (B) 2 × 105 m/s. (C) 5 × 105 m/s. (D) 8 × 105 m/s. BT-11 / 24  A Q.72 The two ends of a composite slab consisting of three layers of different thermal conductivities and different widths (as shown in figure) but same length and breadth are maintained at temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 > T2). Then the heat flow rate through L 4K 2W T1 2K 3W T2 3K 1W (A) all the three layers is same. (B) top layer is maximum. (C) middle layer is maximum. (D) bottom layer is maximum. Q.73 Match the actions in Group II that will produce radiations listed in Group I. Group I Group II P. γ -rays 1. H-atom in 1st excited state returns to ground state. Q. UV radiation 2. A body at 600 K emitting radiation. R. IR radiation 3. Fusion of two light nuclei. (A) P-3, Q-1, R-2 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-2 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3 Q.74 A rigid conducting wire PQ is moving on conducting rails (as shown in figure) with constant speed v = 6 m/s in a region of uniform field B = 0.2 Wb/m2. The magnitude of induced emf and direction of induced current are P r r B r v v 1.5 m Q (A) 1.8 V, clockwise. (B) 1.8 V, anti-clockwise. (C) 3.6 V, clockwise. (D) 3.6 V, anti-clockwise. Q.75 A ball is projected at 30° from ground with an initial velocity of 10 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the horizontal range of the ball is (A) 2.5 m (B) 5 m (C) 8.66 m (D) 10 m BT-12 / 24  A Q.76 Consider equidistant points P, Q and R between two current carrying infinite straight parallel r r r wires (as shown in figure) with current induced magnetic fields B P , BQ and B R , respectively. Then I d P d Q d R d I r r r r (A) B P = − BR (B) B P = B R r r r (C) BQ ≠ 0 (D) BP > BQ Q.77 An object weighs 50 N on Earth (g = 10 m/s2). Its mass on a planet having g = 2 m/s2 will be (A) 1 kg (B) 2.5 kg (C) 5 kg (D) 10 kg Q.78 An 80 W fan, a 60 W bulb and a 500 W washing machine are operated for 15, 20 and 1 hr, respectively. The total electrical power units consumed are (A) 1.2 (B) 1.7 (C) 2.4 (D) 2.9 r r Q.79 An electron having a velocity v enters a region of uniform magnetic field B as shown in r figure. The effect of B on the motion of electron is that it will r B e– r v (A) continue to move without any deflection. (B) be reflected back. (C) be deflected up. (D) be deflected down. Q.80 In the given circuit, an ideal battery of 15 V and resistances of 4 ohm each are connected as shown below. The current (in amperes) through the ammeter A is A 15 V BT-13 / 24  A (A) 18.8 (B) 3 (C) 2.5 (D) 1.9 Q.81 In a series LR circuit connected to an alternating source Vs , the measured voltage across L (ideal inductor) is 20 V and across R is 15 V. Then the value of Vs is (A) 20 V (B) 25 V (C) 30 V (D) 35 V Q.82 How does the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite metal sheet depend on the distance ‘R’ from the sheet? (A) R–2 (B) R–1 (C) R–1/2 (D) Independent of R Q.83 1 ∫ (x | x | + x 4 The value of ) dx is −1 (A) 0 1 2 2 (B) (C) (D) 5 5 3 Q.84 The radius of the circle x 2 + y 2 − 4 x − 6 y + 4 = 0 is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 9 Q.85 For a complex number z , z denotes its complex conjugate. Let z1 = x + i y and z 2 = y + i x be two complex numbers such that | z1 | = | z 2 | = 1. Then z1 z2 is equal to (A) 2 xy − i (B) 2 xy (C) − i (D) i Q.86 If 1 and 2 are roots of x 2 + p x + q = 0 , then p and q , respectively, are (A) − 3 and 2 (B) 2 and − 3 (C) 3 and − 2 (D) − 2 and 3 Q.87 The area of the region lying in the first quadrant bounded by the curve y 2 = 4 x and the line x = 2 is 32 8 2 16 2 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) 3 3 3 3 Q.88 ⎛α α⎞ Let α and β be two real numbers. If a matrix ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ is symmetric and non-invertible, then ⎝−1 β ⎠ α + β is equal to (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) − 2 BT-14 / 24  A Q.89 If the sum of the infinite series (1 + x) 2 (1 + x)3 1 + (1 + x) + + +... 2! 3! 1 is e 2 , then x is 1 1 (A) − (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2 2 Q.90 The minimum value of the function f ( x) = x 4 − 2 x 2 + 2 in [−1, 2] is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) − 2 Q.91 Two ants P and Q are initially at a distance 148 m apart. They decide to meet. At the end of the first day, P covers a distance of 10 m towards Q while Q covers a distance of 5 m towards P. On each subsequent day, the distance covered by P reduces by 1 m and that by Q increases by 2 m of the previous day. The two ants will meet at the end of (A) 9th day (B) 8th day (C) 7th day (D) 6th day Q.92 The equation of the line that makes an intercept of 2 with x-axis and is perpendicular to the line x + y − 1 = 0 is (A) x + y − 2 = 0 (B) x + y + 2 = 0 (C) x − y − 2 = 0 (D) x − y + 2 = 0 Q.93 3 Mathematics, 2 physics and 2 chemistry books, all 7 by different authors, are to be arranged on a book shelf such that all the books of the same subject are together on the shelf. The total number of possible arrangements is (A) 5040 (B) 720 (C) 144 (D) 24 Q.94 If the point (1, 0, 1) is one extremity of the diameter of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 x − 4 y + 2 z − 6 = 0 , then its other extremity is (A) (1, 4, 1) (B) (−3, 0, − 3) (C) (3, − 4, 3) (D) (−3, 4, − 3) Q.95 ⎧ x ⎪ , x≠0 Let f be the function defined for real x as f ( x) = ⎨| x | Then, f is ⎪⎩ 1 , x = 0. (A) continuous for all real x. (B) right continuous at x = 0. (C) a non-negative function for all real x. (D) left continuous at x = 0. BT-15 / 24  A Q.96 An urn consists of 10 items out of which 4 are defective. Three items are chosen randomly from the urn. The probability that exactly 2 from the chosen items are defective, is 1 2 7 3 (A) (B) (C) (D) 20 3 10 10 Q.97 x2 y2 The eccentricity of the ellipse + = 1 is 16 9 3 1 7 7 (A) (B) (C) (D) 4 2 3 4 Q.98 Suppose the statement “If the flower smells sweet then I will buy it”, is given to be FALSE. Then which one of the following is correct. (A) The flower does not smell sweet and I bought it. (B) The flower does not smell sweet and I did not buy it. (C) The flower smells sweet and I bought it. (D) The flower smells sweet and I did not buy it. Q.99 The values obtained in 20 throws of a die are given in the following frequency table Value 1 2 3 4 5 6 Frequency 3 3 4 4 2 4 The sample median is (A) 3 (B) 3.5 (C) 4 (D) 4.5 Q.100 The equation of the normal to the curve x 2 y 3 = 4 at the point (2, 1) is (A) y = 3x − 5 (B) 5 y = 3x − 1 (C) 3 y = 5 − x (D) 5 y = − x + 7 BT-16 / 24  A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BT-17 / 24  A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BT-18 / 24  A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BT-19 / 24  A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK BT-20 / 24