Hydrometeorology-2.pdf

Hydrometeorology Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The science dealing with the waters of the earth, their occurrence, distribution and circulation, their chemical and physical properties and their i...

Hydrometeorology Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The science dealing with the waters of the earth, their occurrence, distribution and circulation, their chemical and physical properties and their interaction with the environment: a. hydrology b. meteorology c. climatology d. weather ____ 2. The continuous cycle by which water is transported from the ocean, to the atmosphere, to the land, and back to the sea: a. heat cycle c. hydrologic cycle b. atmospheric cycle d. weather cycle ____ 3. The short period variations in the atmosphere: a. climate c. meteorology d. hydrometeorology b. weather ____ 4. The long term manifestation of weather: a. meteorology b. climate c. atmosphere d. troposphere ____ 5. The precipitation that reaches the ground surface may be stored as: a. surface water c. snow and ice b. subsurface water d. all of the above ____ 6. The infiltrated water may be removed by: a. evaporation from the soil c. through flow towards stream channels b. percolation to the groundwater d. all of the above ____ 7. Most of the earth’s water is in the: a. oceans b. groundwater c. atmosphere d. polar ice ____ 8. Most of the earth’s fresh water is in the: a. rivers b. groundwater c. rivers d. air ____ 9. A topographically defined area drained by a river or a system of connecting rivers such that all outflow is discharged through a single outlet: a. watershed b. drainage basin c. catchment area d. all of the above ____ 10. Which of the following is not a source of runoff: a. surface flow c. base flow b. inter flow d. none of the above ____ 11. Portion of precipitation that is retained on the leaves, branches, and stems of vegetation and on the litter covering the ground: a. infiltration b. percolation c. interception d. transpiration ____ 12. Water in the stream: a. runoff b. stream flow c. discharge d. all of the above ____ 13. The water removed from any wet surface: a. precipitation b. transpiration c. evaporation d. all of the above ____ 14. Water absorption by the soil surface: a. overland flow b. percolation c. infiltration d. inter flow ____ 15. Water movement into deep groundwater reservoirs: a. percolation b. infiltration c. stream flow d. capillary rise ____ 16. The accumulation of water in the soil profile: a. interception storage c. soil moisture storage b. groundwater storage d. depression storage ____ 17. The process by which plants release water to the air as vapor through plant metabolism: a. evapo-transpiration c. consumptive use b. transpiration d. all of the above ____ 18. The interruption of the downward movement of precipitation by vegetation and the consequent redistribution as evaporation, through fall, and stem-flow: a. infiltration c. interception b. percolation d. subsurface flow ____ 19. Consumptive use refers to: a. evaporation c. evapotranspiration b. transpiration d. all of the above ____ 20.. Main input of water to the earth’s surface: a. precipitation b. virga c. clouds d. all of the above ____ 21. Dry weather flow: a. base-flow c. overland flow b. inter-flow d. none of the above ____ 22. Water that flows laterally through the upper soil layers until it reaches a stream channel: a. subsurface flow b. inter-flow c. through-flow d. all of the above ____ 23. The circulation of water in the earth -atmospheric system: a. hydrology b. hydrologic c. water balance d. water circulation ____ 24. The lowest layer of the atmosphere: a. troposphere b. stratosphere c. mesosphere d. thermosphere ____ 25. The ability of the atmosphere to absorb radiation in the long wave more efficiently than in the short wave range is the basis of the so-called: a. cloud effect c. greenhouse effect b. elevation effect d. none of the above ____ 26. The ozonosphere which absorbs much ultraviolet light from the solar spectrum is a layer within the: a. troposphere c. mesosphere b. stratosphere d. thermosphere ____ 27. Which component makes up the bulk of the air: a. nitrogen c. argon b. oxygen d. carbon dioxide ____ 28. The troposphere is heated mainly by: a. sun b. earth’s surface c. stratosphere d. clouds ____ 29. The portion of the atmosphere where long distance radio communication is made possible: a. exosphere c. ionosphere b. ozonosphere d. protosphere ____ 30. Radiation from the sun is also known as: a. short wave radiation c. insulation b. solar radiation d. all of the above ____ 31. The earth’s albedo is about: a. 0.10 b. 0.20 c. 0.30 d. 0.40 ____ 32. Albedo refers to: a. absorptivity b. reflectivity c. transmissivity d. emissivity ____ 33. The region of occurrence of most weather in the atmosphere: a. troposphere c. mesosphere b. stratosphere d. thermosphere ____ 34. A body that is capable of emitting radiation at the maximum possible intensity for every wavelength: a. white body c. black body b. gray body d. none of the above ____ 35. The rate at which solar radiation reaches the upper limits of the earth’s atmosphere on a surface normal to the incident radiation and at earth’s mean distance from the sun: a. solar elevation b. solar altitude c. solar constant d. zenith distance ____ 36. The boundary between two air masses of different temperature and moisture content: a. low pressure area c. thermal inversion b. high pressure area d. frontal surface ____ 37. The dry adiabatic lapse rate is equal to: a. 10 oC per km c. 5.5 oF per 1000 ft o b. 6.5 C per km d. none of the above ____ 38. With temperature inversion there is: a. isothermal condition c. positive lapse rate b. negative lapse rate d. neutral temperature condition ____ 39. Rising air motion results from: a. cooling of isolated air parcel b. horizontal air divergence c. air passing over the leeside of mountain d. none of the above ____ 40. The maximum vapor pressure exerted by the vapor molecules at a given temperature: a. relative humidity c. absolute humidity b. saturation vapor pressure d. dew point temperature ____ 41. The percentage ratio of the actual to the saturation vapor pressure: a. relative humidity c. absolute humidity b. specific humidity d. mixing ratio ____ 42. On a weather map, the line representing places of the same air pressure is: a. isohyet b. isotherm c. isobar d. isogon ____ 43. The lowest layer of the atmosphere: a. troposphere b. stratosphere c. mesosphere d. thermosphere ____ 44. The pressure exerted by vapor depending on existing amount of water for a particular temperature: a. saturation vapor pressure c. actual vapor pressure b. humidity d. absolute humidity ____ 45. Ratio of the amount of water in the air to the amount the air can hold at the same temperature: a. absolute humidity c. specific humidity b. relative humidity d. mixing ratio ____ 46. The process by which precipitation reaching the earth’s surface is returned to the atmosphere as vapor through the combined processes of evaporation and transpiration:  a. evaporation c. evapotranspiration b. transpiration d. any of the above ____ 47. The phenomenon by which air is forced to rise over a mountain barrier: a. wind upsurge c. convective lifting b. orographic lifting d. frontal lifting ____ 48. A type of storm occurring at the boundaries of warm moist air and dry cold air: a. typhoon c. convective storm b. orographic storm d. frontal storm ____ 49. The line on a map representing points of equal precipitation: a. isobar b. contour line c.. isotherm d. isohyet ____ 50. Heat transfer from ground to atmosphere which has an effect of increasing the air temperature: a. latent heat c. sensible heat b. vapor pressure d. atmospheric heat ____ 51. Term applied to solar radiation received at the earth’s surface: a. insulation b. illuminance c. scattering d. reflection ____ 52. A severe tropical storm: a. tropical depression c. typhoon b. tropical storm d. any of the above ____ 53. The constant moisture circulation between the land, the ocean, and the atmosphere, interconnected with complex series of phase changes: a. evaporation b. water budget c. hydrologic cycle d. water balance ____ 54. The type of climate prevailing in Region III: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV ____ 55. The process by which a substance changes its state from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state: a. convection b. sublimation c. precipitation d. evaporation ____ 56. The temperature at which water vapor becomes saturated when atmospheric air is cooled under constant pressure and with constant water vapor content: a. a. saturation temperature c. absolute humidity b. relative humidity d. dew point temperature ____ 57. The ratio of the amount of electromagnetic radiation reflected by a body to the amount incident upon it: a. reflectivity c. absorptivity b. albedo d. transmissivity ____ 58. This refers to the accounting of incoming and outgoing water in a certain region or area: a. hydrologic flood c. water balance b. routing cycle d. reservoir operation study ____ 59. The boundary or transition zone between two air masses of different temperature and moisture content: a. fusion b. front c. friction d. horizon ____ 60. A nearly colorless gaseous form of oxygen with characteristic odor like that of a weak chlorine and having a formula of O3: a. oxygen c. ozone  b. oxide d. dioxide ____ 61. A portion of precipitation which the land cannot absorb or retain in the surface: a. interception b. evaporation c. runoff d. infiltration ____ 62. A geologic formation which may contain large quantities of water but which does not permit movement of water at rates sufficient to support large springs or justify the development of well: a. aquifer b. aquiclude c. aquifuge d. dam ____ 63. The type of climate which has no dry season but with a very pronounced maximum rain from November to January: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV ____ 64. A form of precipitation characterized by numerous small droplets of less than 0.5 mm in diameter: a. drizzle b. rain c..snow d. hail ____ 65. A graph that plots the measured stream flow discharge vs. water surface elevation: a. hygrograph b. hydrograph c. rating curve d. hyetograph ____ 66. The total discharge or stream-flow is the combination of: a. base-flow + direct runoff c. overland flow +base-flow b. overland flow + inter-flow d. rain-flow + stream-flow ____ 67. An instrument for measuring stream velocity: a. anemometer c. current meter b. hydrograph d. aerovane ____ 68. Perrenial streams are also known as: a. effluent streams c. affluent streams b. influent streams d. tributaries ____ 69. An overflow or inundation from a river or other body of water: a. runoff b. precipitation c. storm d. flood ____ 70. The process of determining the stage height, storage volume, and outflow from a reservoir or a stream reach from a particular inflow hydrograph: a. flood routing c. flooding b. basin d. none of the above ____ 71. A plot of stream discharge versus time: a. hygrograph b. hydrograph c. rating curve d. bar graph ____ 72. The plot of rainfall versus time: a. isohyets b. hyetograph c. hydrograph d. double mass curve ____ 73. Watershed boundary is at: a. ridges c. water channels b. tributaries d. confluence of streams ____ 74. The rate of rainfall in depth per unit time: a. duration c. recurrence interval b. rainfall intensity d. weather ____ 75. Type of precipitation that results from air convergence and uplift of air: a. cyclonic c. orographic b. convective d. none of the above ____ 76. Precipitation type resulting from heating of the ground surface that causes warming of the air and local strong vertical air motions: a. cyclonic c. orographic b. convective d. none of the above ____ 77. Precipitation type resulting from mechanical lifting of moist air over barriers such as mountain ranges or islands in oceans: a. cyclonic c. orographic b. convective d. none of the above ____ 78. A technique used to check the consistency of rainfall records of a station: a. normal ratio method c. double mass analysis b. arithmetic mean method d. Thiessen method ____ 79. The method of determining areal precipitation that divides that divides the catchments into a series of sub-areas surrounding each rain-gage in such a way that the distance between any point within the sub-area and its rain-gage is less than the distance to an adjacent gage: a. arithmetic mean method c. isohyetal method b. Thiessen method d. any of the above ____ 80. That part of runoff that is presumed to consist of overland flow and a substantial portion of inter-flow: a. quick-flow c. storm runoff b. direct runoff d. any of the above ____ 81.. In hydrograph analysis, the time from which the concentration curve begins until the direct runoff reaches zero: a. time base c. rainfall duration b. time of concentration d. standard duration of rain ____ 82.. The method of analysis that divides the total hydrograph into direct and groundwater runoff as a basis for subsequent analysis: a. double mass curve c. hydrograph separation b. current meter analysis d. rating curve ____ 83. The flow time from the most remote point in the drainage area to the outlet of interest: a. time base c. time to peak b. time of concentration d. rainfall duration ____ 84. In the current meter velocity equation, V = a + b N, the constant “a” refers to: a. number of revolutions per second b. water velocity at the point of observation c. the starting velocity or the velocity required to overcome mechanical friction d. average velocity ____ 85. The height of the water surface above a fixed datum: a. water height c. river base b. river stage d. base elevation ____ 86. A scale set so that a portion of it is immersed in the water at all times: a. water gage b. water scale c. recording scale d. staff gage ____ 87. The hydrograph of one unit of direct runoff from a storm of specified duration: a. runoff hydrograph c. unit hydrograph b. storm hydrograph d. any of the above ____ 88. A relationship between rainfall intensity and runoff expressing the rate of runoff as equal to the product of rainfall intensity, catchments area, and a constant: a. rational formula c. stage-discharge relation b. Manning’s formula d. none of the above ____ 89. For shallow rivers and near the banks on deeper rivers where the depths are less than 2 ft, the average flow velocity is taken at this depth in a stream: a. 0.2 b. 0.5 c. 0.6 d. 0.8 ____ 90. The level to which groundwater rises: a. water table c. zone of saturation b. zone of aeration d. vadose zone ____ 91. The time from the centroid of rainfall to the hydrograph peak: a. time base c. time to peak b. basin lag d. time of concentration ____ 92. A geologic formation that contains water and transmits it from one point to another in sufficient quantities that permit economic development: a. aquifuge b. aquiclude c. aquifer d. aquitard ____ 93. A geologic formation that has no interconnected openings and cannot hold or transmit water: a. aquifuge c. aquifer b. aquiclude d. aquitard ____ 94. The rate at which water can be abstracted from a stream or reservoir: a. specific yield b. yield c. porosity d. water harvest ____ 95. Source of groundwater: a. meteoric water b. juvenile water c. connate water d. all of the above ____ 96. How many cubic feet are there in an acre-ft: a. 4,350 ft3 b. 43,560 ft3 c. 435,600 ft3 d. 435 ft3 ____ 97. A temperature of 30 0C is equivalent to how much in absolute 0 K scale: a. 30 b. 86 c. 490 d. 303 ____ 98. Given the precipitation value over their respective areas, what is the average precipitation over the area? Station Area Covered, sq. km Precipitation, mm AA 110 56 BB 145 68 CC 180 79 DD 120 85 EE 95 70 a. b. c. d. a. 71.6 mm b. 130 mm c. 58.6 mm d. 106.4 mm ____ 99. A stream-flow discharge measurement, over a period of one hour, at an outlet gives 1000 ft3/sec. If the area it drains is 3.10 sq. miles, what is the equivalent depth of stream: a. 5.0 in. b. 0.5 in. c. 0.05 in. d. 50.0 in. ____ 100. Given the following 2-hr unit hydrograph for a watershed. What is the peak flow of a 4-hr unit hydrograph for this watershed: Time, hr 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Q, cfs 0 50 300 400 200 50 0 a. 150 cfs b. 200 cfs c. 250 cfs d. 100 cfs Hydrometeorology Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 12. ANS: D PTS: 1 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 14. ANS: C PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: C PTS: 1 20. ANS: A PTS: 1 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 23. ANS: B PTS: 1 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 25. ANS: C PTS: 1 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 31. ANS: C PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: A PTS: 1 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. ANS: D PTS: 1 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: B PTS: 1 39. ANS: D PTS: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 44. ANS: C PTS: 1 45. ANS: B PTS: 1 46. ANS: C PTS: 1 47. ANS: B PTS: 1 48. ANS: C PTS: 1 49. ANS: D PTS: 1 50. ANS: C PTS: 1 51. ANS: A PTS: 1 52. ANS: C PTS: 1 53. ANS: C PTS: 1 54. ANS: A PTS: 1 55. ANS: B PTS: 1 56. ANS: D PTS: 1 57. ANS: A PTS: 1 58. ANS: C PTS: 1 59. ANS: B PTS: 1 60. ANS: A PTS: 1 61. ANS: A PTS: 1 62. ANS: B PTS: 1 63. ANS: B PTS: 1 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 65. ANS: C PTS: 1 66. ANS: A PTS: 1 67. ANS: C PTS: 1 68. ANS: A PTS: 1 69. ANS: D PTS: 1 70. ANS: A PTS: 1 71. ANS: B PTS: 1 72. ANS: B PTS: 1 73. ANS: A PTS: 1 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 75. ANS: A PTS: 1 76. ANS: B PTS: 1 77. ANS: C PTS: 1 78. ANS: C PTS: 1 79. ANS: B PTS: 1 80. ANS: D PTS: 1 81. ANS: A PTS: 1 82. ANS: C PTS: 1 83. ANS: B PTS: 1 84. ANS: C PTS: 1 85. ANS: B PTS: 1 86. ANS: D PTS: 1 87. ANS: C PTS: 1 88. ANS: A PTS: 1  89. ANS: C PTS: 1 90. ANS: A PTS: 1 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 92. ANS: C PTS: 1 93. ANS: A PTS: 1 94. ANS: B PTS: 1 95. ANS: D PTS: 1 96. ANS: C PTS: 1 97. ANS: D PTS: 1 98. ANS: C PTS: 1 99. ANS: B PTS: 1 100. ANS: C PTS: 1