Giant test PTA800.pdf

Kings Kingsborough Community College Of the City University of New York Physical Therapist Assistant Program PTA 8 1. A patient with a transfemoral amputation has been fitted with a prosthesis that utilizes a quadrilateral socket. Follow...

Kings Kingsborough Community College Of the City University of New York Physical Therapist Assistant Program PTA 8 1. A patient with a transfemoral amputation has been fitted with a prosthesis that utilizes a quadrilateral socket. Following gait training the assistant should examine pressure tolerance areas of the residual limb with the device off. These include:: a. Ischial tuberosity and lateral sides of the residual limb b. Adductor magnus and medial side of the residual limb c. Distolateral end of femur and ischial seat d. Perineal area and medial side of the residual limb 2. The MOST appropriate positioning strategy for a patient recovering from acute stroke who is in bed and who demonstrates a flaccid UE is: a. Supine with the affected UE flexed with hand resting on stomach. b. Side-lying on the sound side with the affected shoulder protracted and UE extended resting on a pillow. c. Supine with the affected elbow extended and UE positioned close to the side of the trunk. d. Side-lying with the affected UE flexed overhead. 3. A PTA is working with a patient in a patient's home. The patient is being seen for right hemiparesis. The PT evaluation indicates that the patient demonstrates good recovery with the LE moving out of an extensor synergy. The patient is ambulatory with a NBQC. The activity that would be MOST appropriate for a patient at this stage of recovery is: a. Supine, bending the hip and knee up to the chest with some hip abduction. b. Sitting, marching in place (alternate hip flexion movement). c. Standing, picking the foot up then moving it behind and slowly lowering it. d. Standing, small-range knee extension movements to gain quadriceps control 4. A patient with MS demonstrates strong bilateral LE extensor spasticity in the typical distribution of antigravity muscles. They should be expected to demonstrate: a. Sitting with the pelvis laterally tilted with increased weight-bearing on ischial tuberosities. b. Sacral sitting with increased extension and adduction of LE's. c. Sitting with both legs abducted and laterally rotated. d. Skin breakdown on the ischial tuberosities and lateral malleoli. 5. Muscle activation of an involved extremity due to intense action of an uninvolved muscle of groups of muscles is called: a. Distraction b. Chopping c. Overflow d. Mass movement patterns 6. To facilitate functional capabilities in children with considerable developmental delay and persistence of the tonic labyrinthine reflex, it is BEST to have them practice reaching for objects by positioning them in: a. Supine b. Prone c. Long-sitting d. Side-lying 7. For a patient with Down syndrome the plan of care includes promoting increased muscle tone. To meet this goal the PTA should: a. Perform slow, rhythmic movements b. Lightly bounce the child on their lap c. Assist the child to perform facilitated somersaults d. Perform gentle passive range of motion 8. A PTA working with a patient whose status is post-traumatic brain injury. The patient has developed a flexion synergy pattern in the right UE. To inhibit this pattern during functional activities the PTA should position the right: a. Scapula into retraction, shoulder into abduction, and elbow into extension. B. Scapula into protraction, shoulder into lateral rotation, and elbow into flexion. c. Shoulder into medial rotation, elbow into extension, and forearm into pronation. d.Elbow extension, forearm into supination, and wrist into flexion. 9. A common deviation observed in boys with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy when standing from the floor is: a. A forward bent position because of weak back extensors. b. A protruding abdomen secondary to weak abdominals. c. Use of the UE's to push on the knees and "walk" hands up the legs. d. Use a nearby object for UE support because of spastic motor recruitment patterns. 10. A child with severe autism encounters a change in routine at school. The child is likely to react by: a. Demonstrating increased excitement and the inability to sit still, disturbing classmates by talking and distracting them. b. Directing others to participate in the new routine to make coping easier. c. Refusing to participate, disagreeing verbally with direction or withdrawing by going to sleep. D. Having a tantrum, screaming, displaying stereotypical behaviors such as hand flapping, or social withdrawal. 11. Where would the stimulus be applied to test the flexor withdrawal reflex? a. Sole of the foot with the lower extremity in extension b. Sole of the foot with the lower extremity in flexion c. Forefoot with the lower extremity in extension d. Forefoot with the lower extremity in flexion 12. Assuming normal development, which activity would typically not occur by six months of age? a. Moves things from one hand to another b. Sits unsupported for a brief period c. Rolling prone to spine d. Prone on hands 13. The patient is 5 months old. You want to test several reflexes of this patient. The stimulus you utilize is a sudden movement by which the head is dropped into extension to cause a startle reaction in the patient. Which of the following are you most likely performing? a. Protective Reaction B. Moro Reflex c. Grasp Reflex d. Protective extension reaction 14. A therapist would expect a four-month-old infant to have completed which of the following developmental milestones? a. Lift head in supine b. Rolls from supine to prone position c. Gets into sitting position d. Prone on forearms 15. A therapist is examining a child and notices an increase of flexor tone in the UE's and an increase in extensor tone in the LE's when the child's head was flexed. This would be a positive sign for which of the following reflexes? a. extensor thrust b. flexor withdrawal C. STNR D. ATNR 16. You are treating a neurological patient according to the theories of Brunnstrom. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment emphasis according to Brunnstrom? a. Limb synergies are a necessary intermediate stage of recovery and the patient should be encouraged to use limb synergy patterns. b.Patient should learn diagonal patterns of movement. c. Do not reinforce abnormal patterns of movement. d. Do not use associated reactions. 17. A patient status post stroke presents with a hypotonic left upper extremity. While ambulating this pt. what would be the most appropriate position for the left UE? a. extended at pts. side b. in a sling in shoulder adduction and elbow flexion c. weight bearing through the UE with the elbow extended d. weight bearing through the UE with elbow and wrist flexed 18. A therapist treating a patient in supine elects to reinforce active movement of the LE in extension, adduction and lateral rotation pattern. This proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique pattern is termed: a. D1 flexion b. D1 extension C. D2 flexion d D2 extension 19. You are testing the tonic labyrinthine reflex of a patient. You have positioned the patient in supine. Which of the following would you consider to be a positive response to this position? a. Increased extensor tone in the UEs and flexor tone in the LE's b. Increased flexor tone in the UEs and extensor tone in the LE's c. Increased extensor tone D. Increased flexor tone 20. A therapist is examining a child and documents the following findings - STNR positive/ normal, ATNR positive/normal, Galant - negative/normal and rooting reflex - negative/normal. How old might you expect this child to be? a. 0-2 months B. 4-6 months C. 8-10 months d. 10-12 months 21. You are observing the gait of a pt. With a prosthesis. You notice that the suspension is inadequate and the patient is developing distal residual limb skin issues resulting from translation of the prosthetic limb from the residual limb. This describes: a. lateral whip b. rotation of the foot heel strike c. instability of the knee d. pistoning of the socket 22. The therapist asks a pt. to stand heel to toe, cross their arms over their chest and close their eyes. What test is being performed? a. SOLEC b. WOFEC C. Sharpened Rhomberg d. Rhomberg 23. Which of the following tests assesses dynamic balance? a. SOLEC b. SOLEO c. Sharpened Rhomberg D. WOFEC 24. A therapist notices that his patient with an AKA is exhibiting a circumduction gait. Which of the following may be causing this problem? a. prosthesis is too short b. socket is too small C. contracted hip adductors d. pt. feels insecure 25. An amputation through the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints is called a(n) a. Chopart amputation b. Transmetatarsal amputation c. Rays amputation d. Lisfranc amputation 26. A PTA notices that a patient with an BKA has forward trunk flexion during ambulation. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this deviation? a. knee instability b. prosthesis is too long c. poor balance d. weak hip flexors 27. A 5 y.o. child with CP has persistence of the symmetrical tonic neck reflex. For the child to maintain stability in quadruped position, the PTA should: a. Turn the head to the non-dominant side b. Tap on the paraspinal muscles c. Apply approximation to both shoulders. d. Keep the chin elevated. 28. A PTA notices that a patient with an AKA consistently takes a longer step with the prosthetic limb than the contralateral limb. The MOST likely cause of the deviation is: a. Weak abdominal muscles b. Hip flexion contracture c. weak residual limb d. fear and insecurity 29. You have been asked to see a 7-month-old child with cerebral palsy. The child has been described as one who has an excessive amount of increased tone in his LE's but no involvement in his UE's. How might this child be classified?  a. Spastic paraplegia b. Spastic hemiplegia c. Ataxic paraplegia d. Ataxic paraplegia 30. You are treating a child who has hypotonia quadriplegia and you notice that this child sits in a W position on the floor. Which of the following may the child be compensating for? a. Weak trunk muscles causing decrease shoulder movement b. Weak abdominal muscles causing a persistent anterior pelvic tilt c. Weak abdominal muscles causing a persistent posterior pelvic tilt d. Tight quadriceps causing a persistent posterior pelvic tilt 31. A PTA wants to use PNF with a patient who is at the end stage of recovery from a left rotator cuff surgery. The patient has no pain but the patient needs to increase their ROM and improve coordinated isometric movements. Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate to use when performing PNF with this patient? a. Rhythmic stabilization b. Rhythmic initiation c. Traction d. Hold relax 32. You are performing UE PNF on a patient who is s/p right CVA at stage 6 of recovery. You tell the patient to squeeze your hand, turn it, bring it up across their face while bending their elbow. Which of the following patterns are you performing? a. UE D1 flexion with elbow straight b. UE D1 flexion with elbow flexion c. UE D1 flexion with elbow extension d. UE D1 extension with elbow flexion 33. You are performing LE PNF on a patient who is s/p right CVA in stage 4-5 of recovery who displays a left LE extensor synergy. In an effort to help the patient improve his isolated movement, you decide to do PNF with the patient. Which of the following patterns may this patient benefit from most? a. LE D1 extension with knee flexion b. LE D1 flexion with knee straight c. LE D1 flexion with knee extension LE D2 flexion with knee flexion 34. A characteristic of the LE extensor synergy is: a. abduction b. plantarflexion c. lateral rotation d. knee flexion 35. A PTA notices that a patient with a transfemoral amputation consistently displays a medial whip during toe-off on the prosthetic leg. The MOST likely cause of the deviation is: a. socket is too tight b. hip flexion contracture c. prosthesis is too long d. fear and insecurity 36. A patient is scheduled for surgical removal of the UE proximal to the elbow joint. The type of UE amputation is a/an: a. Forequarter amputation b. transhumeral amputation c. elbow disarticulation amputation d. Transradial amputation 37. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation are components of which UE PNF pattern? a. D1 flexion b.. D1 extension c. C. D2 flexion d. d. D2 extension 38. The use of specific handling techniques to facilitate posture, alignment, and motor control is a component of which neurological rehabilitation approach? a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b. b. Motor control: a task-oriented approach c. C. Brunnstrom d. d.neuromuscular development treatment 39. A therapist performs gait training with a patient who is s/p transfemoral amputation. Which of the following potential etiologies would most likely result in a vaulting gait? a. the prosthesis is too short b. b. long residual limb c. c. excessive plantar flexion d. d. high medial wall 40. Which of the following TUG times indicates that the patient is at the limit for functional independence? a. 5 seconds b. b.10 seconds c. c. 20 seconds d. d. 30 seconds 41. What is the maximum score and the score that indicates an increased risk of falling according to the Berg test? a. Maximum score 52 and a score of 26 or below will indicate an increased risk of falling b. b. Maximum score 46 and a score of 23 or below will indicate an increased risk of falling c. c.Maximum score 56 and a score of 45 or below will indicate an increased risk of falling d. d. Maximum score 20 and a score of 16 or below will indicate an increased risk of falling 42. Which of the following is a term for movement impairment where the patient is unable to control the range of movement and the force of muscular activity? a. Dystonia b. b.Dysmetria c. c.Rigidity d. d.Clonus 43. Which of the following techniques would be appropriate to use with someone who has a vestibular problem? a. Associated Reaction techniques b. b.Neuromuscular developmental techniques c. c.Habituation techniques d. b.Perturbation techniques 44. You are treating a patient and notice that when the patient raises their arm over 100 degrees with the elbow extended, the patient's fingers extend and abduct. Which is the most appropriate term for this observation? a. Associated reaction b. b.Souques' phenomenon. c. c. Raimiste's phenomenon d. d. Homolateral synkinesis 45. Which of the following PNF patterns elicit contractions of the gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, pectineus, quadriceps, and gastrocnemius? a. D1 extension with knee flexion b. b.D1 extension with knee extension c. c.D2 flexion with knee extension d. d.D2 extension with knee extension 46. Which PNF technique assists in improving mobility and is performed by the patient performing a maximal contraction of the antagonist's muscle followed by relaxation followed by PROM from the therapist? a.Contract Relax b. Hold Relax c. Joint Distraction d. Normal Timing 47. Which of the following patterns elicit elbow extension and wrist and finger flexion? a. UE D1 flexion with elbow extension b. UE D1 flexion with elbow straight  c. UE D2 extension with elbow flexion d. UE D2 flexion with elbow extension 48. Your patient with a transtibial prosthesis with a suspension device that has an elastic or neoprene sleeve is pulled over both the prosthesis and a large area of skin, thereby suspending the prosthesis by partial suction. This is called: a. Gel liner b. Thigh corset c. Sleeve suspensions d. d.Supracondylar system 49. When treating a patient with an AKA, which of the following positions should a patient avoid? a. Prolonged hip flexion b. b. Prolonged hip extension c. C. IRS d. d. Hip abd. 50. Which of the following activities may not be used to work on dynamic balance? a. Tandem walking b. b. Braiding c. Standing on one leg d. Stepping over objects on the floor 51. What orthoses may be used to transfer pressure from the metatarsal heads to the shafts thereby reducing plantar flexor force during push-off? a. Heel wedge b. Heel flare c. Heel cushion d. Rocker bar 52. Which of the following orthoses are used to reposition the heel vertically and prevent lateral calcaneal shift?  a. Heel seats b. UCBL c. Metatarsal pads d. Medial longitudinal arch supports 53. Which type of AFO allows for PF and slight DF? a. PLS b. Solid Ankle c. Heel flare d. Heel wedge 54. What is the name the following AFO: a. Plantarflexion Stop AFO b. Solid Ankle AFO c. Dorsiflexion Stop AFO d. PLS AFO 55. A patient reports to the physical therapy department wearing a Milwaukee orthosis. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Spondylolisthesis b. Scoliosis c. Spina Bifida d. Thoracic spine fracture 56. Which of the following KO's may be recommended for a patient that requires mild control of knee hyperextension? a. Swedish knee cage b. Lenox hill brace c. Patellar stabilizing brace d. Neoprene sleeve 57. Which of the following is not an indication for a Taylor brace? a. Spinal compression fractures b. Osteoporosis of the spine  c. Congenital abnormalities of the lumbar-sacral region d. Spondylolisthesis 58. What type of invasive cervical orthosis provides maximal control of cervical motions? a. Minerva orthosis b. Soft collar c. Halo orthosis d. Four poster orthoses 59. Which of the following UE orthosis may be used to assist a patient with a SCI in Tenodesis? a. Motor-driven flexor Hinger orthosis b. Wrist drive prehension orthosis c. Dorsal splint d. Resting splint 60. Which of the following orthosis is designed for patients with paraplegia and allows a person to stand with a posterior lean of the trunk? a. HKAFO b. Craig-Scott KAFO c. TLSO d. Corset orthosis 61. A patient with peripheral neuropathy affecting the L4 myotome uses an orthosis. The most likely classification of orthosis is a/an: a. Foot orthotic b. Ankle-foot orthotic c. Knee-ankle-foot orthotic d. Hip-knee-ankle-foot orthotic 62. The type of orthosis used for patients with LE paralysis that does not allow for knee and hip joints to unlock is known as a: A. KAFO B. Standing frame  C. Parapodium D. HKAFO 63. Which of the following regarding the GRF are true? A. In heel strike, the GRF vector passes anterior to the hip joint. B. In heel strike, the GRF vector passes anterior to the knee joint. C. In heel strike, the GRF vector passes anterior to the ankle joint. D. None of the above are true. 64. How much ankle DF is required for normal gait? A. 0-5 degrees B. 0-10 degrees C. 0-15 degrees D. 0-20 degrees 65. The movement from initial contact on the right leg to initial contact on the left leg is known as: A. Step B. Step length C. Stride D. Stride length 66. Which of the following statements is true? A. In foot flat, the GRF falls posterior to the ankle creating a DF moment. B. In foot flat, the GRF falls anterior to the ankle creating a DF moment. C. In foot flat, the GRF falls posterior to the ankle creating a PF moment. D. In foot flat, the GRF falls anterior to the ankle creating a PF moment. 67. A person with a three-year history of Parkinson's disease demonstrates a festinating gait. Which shoe adaptation would BEST address this gait deviation? a. Medial foot wedge b. Lateral foot wedge c. Anterior foot wedge d. Posterior foot wedge 68. A person who recently had a rupture of the quadriceps tendon is currently under precautions for quad activity. Quadriceps activity is greatest at which of the following phases of gait? A. terminal stance B. initial swing C. loading response D. midswing 69. Which of the following muscles are active during terminal swing to prevent the knee from snapping into extension? a. hamstrings b. quadriceps c. gastrocnemius d. popliteus 70. During which phase of gait is the gluteus maximus contracting? a. Toe-of b. foot flat c. c. midswing d. heel strike ot 71. Which of the following would be considered a normal developmental sequence of how infants develop? a. symmetrically controlled symmetrical → asymmetrical →.controlled asymmetrical b. b. stability then mobility c. cephalon to caudal and distal to proximal d. extension → flexion → lateral flexion → rotation 72. You observe a child who is 6 months old. Which of the following observations would be considered inappropriate for the child's age? A. Child rolls from prone to supine B. Child is able to perform prone on hands  C. Child moves toys from one hand to another D. Child sits with support 73. You observe a child who is 12 months old. Which activity may be considered advanced for this age? A. Child pulls to standing B. Child cruises. C. Child drinks from a cup with the cup held. D. Child begins using a spoon 74. A PTA completes a developmental assessment on an infant. At what age should an infant begin to sit without support for an extended period of time? A. 6-7 months B. 8-9 months C. 10-11months D. 12-15 months 75. A patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome works on weight shifting activities while standing in the parallel bars. The PRIMARY objective of this activity is to improve: A. mobility B. stability C. controlled mobility D. skill 76. A technique fused to elicit voluntary muscular contraction is: A. inhibition B. key point of control C. grading D. Facilitation 77. When performing NDT on a pediatric patient to transition the patient from prone to long sit, your key points of control would be: A. both hands on lateral pelvis B. one hand on scapula and other hand on ipsilateral pelvis C. both hands on shoulder girdle D. one hand on scapula and other hand on contralateral pelvis 78. When performing NDT on a pediatric patient to transition the patient from side sit to quadruped, your key points of control would be: A. both hands on lateral pelvis B. one hand on scapula and other hand on ipsilateral pelvis C. one hand on the abdominals and the other hand on the sacrum D. one hand on scapula and other hand on contralateral pelvis 79. According to the CDC, when do 50% of babies crawl on their hands and knees? A. 5 months B. 68 months C. 10 month D. 12 months 80. At what age should a child be able to catch a large ball most of the time? A. 2 years B. 2 1⁄2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years 81. The PTA describes a reflex where when the patient is positioned in supine and the patient exhibits an extensor tone. This reflex is most likely:  A. Tonic labyrinthine reflex B. Positive supporting reaction. C. Palmar grasp reflex D. Extensor thrust 82. You are observing a 5 month old infant and you observe the therapist lay the infant in quadruped over her knees. When the therapist extends the infant's neck, the UE's extend and the LE's flex. Which of the following statements is true? A. The infant has a positive ATNR which is appropriate for their age. B. The infant has a negative ATNR which is inappropriate for their age. C. The infant has a positive STNR which is appropriate for their age. D. The infant has a negative STNR which is inappropriate for their age. 83. You are testing the reflexes of an infant who is 1 month old with no history of neurological issues. Which of the following responses to the flexor withdrawal reflex would you expect this patient to have? A. the patient has no response B. the patient displays uncontrolled flexion of the stimulated LE C. the patient displays uncontrolled extension of the stimulated LE. D. the patient displays uncontrolled flexion of the opposite LE 84. The PTA describes a reflex where when the patient is positioned in prone and the patient exhibits a flexor tone. This reflex is most likely: A. Tonic labyrinthine reflex B. Positive supporting reaction C. Palmar grasp reflex D. Extensor thrust 85. A child is 8 months old, which of the following reflexes would you expect to be positive on a child with no history of neurological issues? A. Plantar Grasp B. Galant C. Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex D. Crossed Extension 86. An eleven-month-old child with CP attempts to maintain a quadruped position. Which reflex would interfere with this activity if it was NOT integrated? A. Galant B. STNR C. Positive support reflex D. Plantar grasp reflex 87. A PTA performs several testing procedures in order to assess an infant's primitive reflexes. When assessing the startle reflex, what is the MOST appropriate stimulus? A. touch to the skin along the spine from the should to the hip B. head position, turned to one side C. head suddenly dropped into extension. D. A loud, sudden noise 88. A PTA observes an infant positioned in pivot prone. Which neurodevelopmental posture would be a precursor to this position? A. bridging  B. modified plantar grade C. quadruped D. prone on elbows 89. A 5-month-old child is referred to PT for a developmental assessment. During a treatment session the PTA observes the infant roll from prone to supine. Integration of which primitive reflex is often associated with completion of this milestone? A. ATNR B. STNR C. Galant reflex D. Moro reflex 90. What reflex would you expect to be positive if the child has difficulty with protective reactions in sitting? A. palmar grasp reflex B. ATNR C. Moro Reflex D. Body Righting Reflex 91. A patient is scheduled for surgical removal of one toe and the metatarsal. This type of lower extremity amputation is: A. Syme amputation B. Rays disarticulation C. Chopart amputation D. Lisfranc amputation 92. A PTA provides pre-operative instructions to a patient scheduled for LE amputation. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of LE Amputation? A. Tumor B. trauma C. Peripheral vascular disease D. Cardiac disease 93. A PTA observes a patient's status post transfemoral amputation lying in supine with a pillow positioned under the residual limb. This position results in the patient being MOST susceptible to a: a. Knee extension contracture b. Knee flexion contracture c. Hip flexion contracture d. Hip extension contracture 94. Which of the following does not need to be considered when ace wrapping a transtibial amputation: a. Elastic wrap should not have any wrinkles b. More pressure should be provided distally to enhance shaping c. Circular patterns should be used d. Anchor wrap above the knee 95. Which of the following is not an advantage for a rigid dressing for a patient who is status post transtibial amputation? A. does not limit edema B. Provides soft tissue support C. Promotes circulation and healing D. Allows early ambulation with a pylon 96. Which of the following would not be an appropriate activity for a patient who is post-op day 3 from a transtibial amputation? A. desensitizing the residual limb B. transfer patient out of bed and ambulate patient C. teach residual limb and unaffected LE inspection D. teach patient to don and doff a shrinker 97. A patient is scheduled to undergo a transtibial amputation of the left LE. In addition, the patient is one month post right total knee arthroplasty. Given the patient's past and current surgical history, the PTA should expect which of the following activities to be the MOST difficult for the patient following their amputation? A. rolling from supine to side-lying B. moving from supine to sitting C. moving from sitting to standing D. ambulating in the parallel bars 98. A patient two weeks post transtibial amputation is instructed by the physician to remain at rest for two days after contracting bronchitis. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate for the patient while in bed? A. supine with a pillow under the patient's knees B. supine with a pillow under the patient's thighs and knees C. supine with legs extended D. side lying in the fetal position 99. Surgical removal of the UE including the shoulder girdle is called: A. shoulder disarticulation B. transhumeral amputation C. forequarter amputation D. elbow disarticulation 100. Which of the following statements regarding a transradial amputation is false? A. A trans-radial amputation is the least common type of UE amputation. B. A trans-radial amputation is typically the result of trauma. C. A trans-radial amputation is functionally preferred over a wrist disarticulation. D. d. A transradial amputation must be a minimum of 5cm proximal to the distal radius. 101. Which of the following PNF patterns would be appropriate to strengthen the iliopsoas, gluteus medius, hamstrings, and anterior tibialis? A. LE D1 flexion with knee flexion B. LE D1 flexion with knee extension C. LE D2 flexion with knee extension D. LE D2 extension with knee flexion 102. What is the technique that may be used with PNF to facilitate flexion? A. a. traction B. b. approximation C. c. alternating isometrics D. d. rhythmic initiation 103. A flexion pattern of the involved upper extremity facilitates flexion of the involved lower extremity is called... A. overflow B. homolateral synkinesis C. Raimiste's phenomenon D. Souques' phenomenon 104. The PT has asked you to perform a Tinetti test on a patient. Which of the following scores MOST accurately indicates the standards of the test that may predict a high risk of falling? A. a total score of less than 28 B. a total score of less than 12 C. a total score of less than 19 D. a total score of less than 36 105. The PTA is treating a child who is 12 months old and notices that when the child receives pressure on the base of his toes, the toes flex. What is this an indication of? a. this is a positive plantar grasp reflex that is normal at this age b. this is a negative plantar grasp reflex that is normal at this age c. this is a positive plantar grasp reflex that is abnormal at this age d. this is a negative plantar grasp reflex that is normal at this age 106. Which of the following involves disc damage that includes a rupture of the nuclear material into the confines of the posterior longitudinal ligament or above or below the disc space? a. Protrusion b. Extrusion c. Prolapse d. Free sequestration 107. Anterior slippage of one vertebra on another vertebra directly below it is known as: a. Spondylosis b. Spondylolisthesis  c. Stenosis d. DDD 108. Which of the following is preferred to maximize balance during lifting tasks? a. Use of a long lever arm b. Use of a lumbar support belt c. Use of a wide base of support d. Use of a semi-squatting position 109. Your patient complains of pain with quick extension movements which is in the middle of the back and spreads across the back into the buttocks and thigh. The patient has had difficulties with bladder control and is experiencing some neurological signs. Which of the following may you expect this patient to be diagnosed with? a. Disc lesion b. Radiculopathy c. RA d. Ankylosing spondylitis 110. Your patient is POD#2 from a complete L4-L5 laminectomy. Which of the following would you least likely be teaching the patient during this maximal protection phase? a. Teach patients not to lift more than 10 lbs. b. Teach patient ambulation training c. Teach patient extension exercises d. Teach patient to log rolling supine to sit 111.To teach a patient how to manage painful symptoms related to poor posture, which of the following is most important? a. Awareness of the relationship between faulty posture and pain b. Stretching program c. Strengthening program d. High-repetition, low-resistance exercise program 112. Which of the following best describes scoliosis?  a. A transverse plane deviation of the vertebrae usually involving the thoracic and lumbar regions b. A lateral curvature of the spine wherein rotation of the vertebral bodies is toward the convexity of the curve c. An irreversible lateral curvature with fixed rotation of the vertebrae caused by lordotic posture d. A collapse of intervertebral space resulting from weakness of the deep segmental muscle of the spine 113. Disk lesions are more common in the 30-year to 45-year age span because a. The annulus begins degenerating, loses tensile strength, and begins to tear with excessive forces. b. The nucleus pulposus changes in chemical composition during this time and is capable of imbibing greater than normal amounts of water, causing greater than normal pressure against pain-sensitive structures. c. The facets are wearing out and the entire joint complex is placed under greater stress. d. This is not the most common age span for disk lesions. 114. A PTA classifies a patient's posture as lordotic after completing a postural assessment. Which muscle group would you expect to be shortened based on the results of the postural assessment? a. intercostals b. hip flexors c. scapula retractors d. abdominals 115. A patient positioned in prone on a treatment plinth complains of pain in the low back. In order to alleviate the pain, the PTA attempts to reduce the patient's lumbar lordosis. The MOST appropriate modification is: A. a. place a pillow under the patient's upper or middle chest B. place a pillow under the patient's lower abdomen C. c. place a pillow lengthwise from the patient's pelvis to the thorax D. d. place a small bolster under the patient's anterior ankles 116. Low back pain secondary to adaptive shortening of soft tissue structures is referred to as: A. Soft tissue syndrome B. Derangement syndrome C. Postural syndrome D. Dysfunction syndrome 117. Treatment of flexion dysfunction includes the use of the: A. Extension principle B. Rotation principle C. Flexion principle D. Spinal manipulation 118. Which of the following is not an indication for traction? A. RA B. Disc herniation C. Spinal stenosis D. DDD 119. A 3-year-old comes to the clinic with the following symptoms: neck deformity that causes rotation and tilting of the head. The mom reports that it is a result of an MVA 2 weeks ago. What treatment would you recommend to the mom for a HEP to obtain maximum results? A. NO HEP, treatment should only be performed by the PT/PTA B. Ice packs and stretching C. Electric stimulation D. Stretching and proper positioning/postural instructions 120. You have a workman's compensation patient who has been treated three times per week for two weeks, receiving moist heat to the cervical paraspinal, right scapular muscle, upper trapezius, and right anterior shoulder, followed by an ultrasound to the right cervical paraspinal. The patient has also received soft tissue massage to the bilateral cervical paraspinal, upper trapezius, and upper thoracic paraspinal. The patient continues with complaints of elevated pain. In continuing the patient's treatment program, which of the following would be the most appropriate response? A. The patient has been treated only 2 weeks, so continue with 2 more weeks of PT. B. The patient is a workman's compensation patient and most likely a malingerer, so discharge him from PT. C. Contact the supervising PT to suggest changes in the treatment program. D. Since the patient is not showing significant progress, he really does not need a PTA's attention: therefore the physical therapy aide should take over this patient. 121. To teach a patient how to manage painful symptoms related to poor posture, which of the following is important? A. Awareness of the relationship between the faulty position and pain B. Stretching program C. Strengthening program D. High repetition, low resistance exercise program 122. A PTA reviews the medical record of a patient who recently had a "long" spinal fusion. Which medical condition would MOST likely require this type of surgical procedure? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Scoliosis C. Spinal disk herniation D. Spinal segment instability 123. A patient who has ankylosing spondylitis is referred to physical therapy for instruction in a HEP. Strengthening of which of the following muscles would be the MOST beneficial for the patient? A. Rectus abdominis B. Internal and external obliques C. Quadratus lumborum D. Erector spinae 124. Although rare, when a disk herniation occurs in the thoracic spine, it will most likely occur between which of these levels?  A. thoracic levels 4 and 5 B. thoracic levels 7 and 8 C. thoracic levels 9 and 10 D. thoracic levels 11 and 12 125. Your patient has LBP stemming from joint involvement. Which of the following mechanical traction settings would be most appropriate? A. Static spinal traction - 60 seconds on 20 seconds off at 15 lbs. B. Static spinal traction – 15 seconds on 15 seconds off at 50 lbs. C. Intermittent spinal traction - 15 seconds on 15 seconds off at 50 lbs. D. Intermittent spinal traction - 60 seconds on 20 seconds off at 15lbs. 126. Which of the following is not a contraindication for lumbar traction? A. Obesity B. TMJ dysfunction C. Spinal hypermobility D. Uncontrolled Cardiopulmonary disorders 127. For a patient with a flexion bias - flexion syndrome, which of these passive positioning techniques could be used to relieve their symptoms? A. prone positioning without a pillow under the abdomen B. sitting in a low chair with armrests, arms supported C. standing with an ergonomic cushion on the floor D. supine positioning with lower extremity extended 128. A PTA is working with a patient with an extension bias - extension syndrome, during the recovery phase after the acute symptoms have stabilized. During this stage of recovery, if symptoms of a protrusion are felt, which of these activities would be the least beneficial? A. full-range pelvic rocking with a lumbar roll while seated B. posterior pelvic tilts while in the quadruped position C. prone position press-ups on a mat in the floor D. slow backward bending from the standing position 129. A patient with chronic low back pain and functional limitations presents for PT intervention. Which of these fundamental skills should be the starting point of this care?  A. activities of daily living body mechanics training B. functional activities training C. kinesthetic awareness training D. muscle strength and performance training 130. A patient is observed to have an extremely lordotic posture. Which of these is a likely cause of a lordotic posture? A. mobility impairments in the iliopsoas and rectus femoris B. mobility impairments in the rectus abdominis and obliques C. tightness in hip extensors and excessive posterior pelvic tilting D. tightness in the unilateral gluteus maximus and medius 131. A patient who has a grade II lumbar spondylolisthesis experiences symptoms of neurogenic claudication. Which of the following exercises would MOST likely exacerbate the patient's symptoms? A. walking on a treadmill with zero incline B. Cycling with varying resistance C. Abdominal crunches on an exercise ball D. Spinal stabilization in the flexed position 132. Which of the following is not an opioid drug? a. Meperidine (Demerol) b. Proposyphene (Darvon) c. Hydromorphone (Hydrostat) d. Dexamethasone (Decadrol) 133. Which of the following is not an indication for glucocorticoid agents? a. Anti-inflammatory b. Treatment of rheumatic diseases c. Treatment of respiratory disorders d. Muscle relaxant 134. Your patient complains of drowsiness, confusion, generalized muscle weakness and headache. You suspect that this patient may be suffering from side effects from which class of medication? a. Glucocorticoid agents b. Muscle relaxants c. c. Antispasticity agents d. d. Non-opioid agents 135. What type of prostaglandin production causes inflammation and production? a. COX-1 b. COX-2 c. Aspirin d. Motrin 136. Which of the following is a muscle relaxant medication? a. Chloizoxazone (Parafon Forte) b. Metoprolol (Lopressor) c. Diltiazem (Cardizem) d. Oxycodone (OxyContin) 137. Your patient is taking a medication that puts the patient at high risk for bleeding. What medication is your patient most likely taking? a. Heparin b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Diazepam (Valium) d. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 138. Which type of pharmacological agent may be prescribed during treatment following a spinal cord injury, CVA or MS to reduce tone? a. Antiepileptic agent  b. Antispasticity agent c. Muscle relaxant agent d. Opioid agent 139. Your patient performs a number of vigorous exercises. Following the exercise, your patient's HR has not increased as you had expected. What class of medication may cause this alteration in HR? a. Antispasticity agent b. Seizure medication c. Calcium channel blocker agent d. Diuretic agent 140. Which of the following is not a side effect of chemotherapy? a. Weakened muscles b. Increased joint laxity c. Decreased endurance d. Dependence 141. Which of the following would not be an indication for a beta blocker agent? a. Angina b. Hypertension c. Arrhythmias d. Thromboembolism 142. Upon reviewing the patient's initial evaluation, you read that the patient has had a recent CABG. Which of the following medications may you suspect this patient may be currently taking? a. Warfarin (Coumadin) b. Hydrocortisone (dermacort) c. Prednisolone (Pediapred) d. Carisoprodol (Soma) 143. Diuretic agents are used in conjunction with medications used to treat which of the following? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Diabetes type II d. Diabetes type I 144. Which of the following musculoskeletal pharmacological agents has a side effect of physical dependence? a. Nonopioid agents b. opioid agents c. glucocorticoid agent d. disease-modifying agent 145. Which ethical principle requires that the healthcare worker not do anything to cause the patient harm? a. Beneficence b. Nonmaleficence c. Justice and veracity d. Confidentiality 146. Which of the following core values of a PTA is described as the devotion to the interest of a patient/client? a. Caring and compassion. b. Duty c. Altruism d. Integrity 147. Which of the following is not part of the Patient's Bill of Rights? a. A patient has the right to privacy concerning their own medical care. b. Young patients may remain on their parent's insurance until age 26.  c. Insurance companies may discriminate against children who have preexisting conditions. d. Patient has the right to refuse any and all treatment. 148. Which of the following is not a violation of the Standards of Ethical Conduct for a PTA? a. A PTA treats a patient without proper onsite supervision. b. A PTA knows that a patient is being overcharged by a private practice but does not do anything. c. A PTA refuses to provide joint mobilization on a patient's wrist because of their inexperience. d. A PTA educates new nursing assistants about proper body mechanics during orientation. 149. Which of the following is not a core value for a PTA as outlined by the APTA in 2009: a. Altruism b. Responsibility c. Integrity d. Judgements 150. You are studying the Standards of Ethical Conduct for the PTA. Which of the following would not be Standard of the Ethical Conduct for the PTA? a. PTA respects the rights and dignity of all individuals. b. PTA provides services independently to all patients. c. PTA provides services within the limits of the law. d. PTA makes those judgments that are commensurable with his/her qualifications. 151. Which of the following is a violation of the Standards of Ethical Conduct for a PTA? a. A PT neglects to communicate a change in patient status to the PTA.  b. A PTA treats a patient with the PT on the other side of the room. c. A PT instructs the PTA to perform PROM on a patient and the PTA follows the POC and performs PROM d. A PTA knows that a patient is getting overcharged by a private practice but does not do anything. 152. A PTA reads in a patient's chart that the patient has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely require the use of this medication? a. breast cancer b. angina pectoris c. exercise-induced asthma d. spinal cord injury 153. A PTA reads in the medical record that a patient was recently prescribed a thrombolytic agent. Which condition would be considered a contraindication to this type of pharmacological agent? a. myocardial infarction b. hemorrhagic stroke c. pulmonary embolism d. venous thrombosis 154. A PTA works on transfer training with a patient who is currently taking diuretic medication. Which effect is MOST likely to occur during the session secondary to the use of this type of medication? a. postural hypotension b. bleeding c. sedation d. headache 155. A patient uses a patient-controlled analgesia with a lockout interval following an inpatient surgical procedure. Which medication would be MOST consistent with this delivery method?  a. Atorvastatin (Lipitor) b. Baclofen (Lioresal) c. Meperidine (Demerol) d. Methotrexate (Trexall) 156. The PTA reviews the chart to find that the patient is taking the medication, Dilantin. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to have? a. Diabetes b. MS c. Epilepsy d. MI 157. The analysis of what drugs do to the body including the mechanism by which the drug exerts its effect is: a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmacology d. Bioavailability 158. The drug nomenclature for Tylenol is a. The chemical name b. The generic name c. The trade name d. None of the above 159. Which of the following is not an advantage of the parenteral method of administration? a. Rapid diffusion into the bloodstream over large alveolar surface b. Allows for an accurate known quantity of drug to be introduced c. Provides a steady prolonged release of the drug into systemic circulation  d. Peak levels are attained quickly 160. Movement of drugs that use membrane proteins to transport substances across the cell membrane without ATP is called: a. Passive diffusion b. Active transport c. Facilitated diffusion d. Endocytosis 161. The route of administration of a drug directly into a bursa is termed: a. Intrathecal b. Sublingual c. Intra-arterial d. Parenteral 162. The extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation is known as the: a. Half-life b. bioavailability c. drug nomenclature d. pharmacotherapeutics 163. Which of the following is not considered a parenteral method of administration? a. IV b. inhalers c. intrathecal d. buccal 164. Which of the following is not an enteral method to administer medication? a. Rectally b. Orally c. Sublingually d. nasal spray 165. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the enteral method of administration? a. Must be lipid soluble to pass through the GI mucosa into the bloodstream b. May cause vomiting. c. May cause mucosa damage. d. May cause irritation of the respiratory tract 166. The percentage of a drug that reaches the bloodstream is known as: a. Bioavailability b. Pharmacotherapeutics c. Biotransformation d. Pharmacokinetics 167. If a drug that crosses into the plasma membrane by being engulfed by the cell via an invagination, this is called: a. Active transport. b. Endocytosis c. Passive diffusion d. Facilitated diffusion 168. Drugs are stored in a variety of areas in the body. Where is a drug stored if it forms bonds with intracellular structures? a. Adipose tissue b. Muscle c. Bone d. Organs 169. A patient is administered a narcotic medication one hour prior to the onset of a PT session. Which form of administration ensures that the medication will be 100% bioavailable? a. intravenous b. oral c. inhalation  d. sublingual 170. The patient has been trained to self-administer their medication through injection. This type of injection allows for a slow release of medication into the systemic circulation. What type of injection is the patient most likely administering? a. intra-arterial b. Intramuscular c. subcutaneous d. intravenous 171. The doctor is trying to compare the potency of two different medications. Which of the following may the doctor look at? a. bioavailability b. dose-response curve c. toxicology d. pharmacotherapeutics 172. A 12-month-old child with cerebral palsy demonstrates an abnormal persistence of the positive support reflex. During therapy this would MOST likely interfere with: a. Sitting activities b. Standing activities c. Prone on elbows activities d. Supine activities 173. Your patient is 55 y.o male with a diagnosis of MS. The PT asked you to perform a Functional Reach Test on this patient. The test revealed that the patient is not at risk of falling. What would likely be the quantitative value of this test? a. 14.5-17 inches b. 13.5-15 inches c. 10.5-13.5 inches d. 5.5-10 inches 174. Your patient is recovering from a stroke. The patient displays a strong flexor synergy of the right lower extremity. You would expect this patient to display: a. Hip flexion, abduction, ER, knee flexion, DF and inversion b. Hip flexion, adduction, ER, knee flexion, DF and eversion c. Hip flexion, abduction, IR, knee flexion, PF and inversion d. Hip flexion, adduction, IR, knee flexion, PF and eversion 175. Which of the following is the least common complaint from patients suffering a vestibular disorder? a. A feeling of spinning inside b. Dizziness c. Altered balance d. Auditory changes 176. A patient with cerebellar dysfunction exhibits signs of dysmetria. Which of the following activities would be the MOST difficult for the patient? a. Rapid alternating pronation and supination of the forearms b. Placing feet on floor markers while walking c. Walking at varying speeds d. Marching in place 177. A patient s/p right CVA lifts his left arm about 100 degrees and you notice his left fingers extend and abduct. You suspect that this patient is displaying: a. Raimistes phenomenon b. Souques' phenomenon c. Homolateral limb synkinesis d. Instinctive grasp reaction 178. A patient is s/p right CVA with mild hemiparesis. The patient is able to sit independently and ambulates with an NBQC with supervision for occasional loss of balance and weight shift. Which activity would be most appropriate for this patient? a. Ambulating on a balance beam b. Sidestepping c. Tandem walking  d. Grapevine 179. A physician indicates that a patient rehabilitating from a cerebrovascular accident has significant perceptual deficits. Which anatomical region would most likely be affected by the stroke? a. Primary motor cortex b. Somatosensory cortex c. Basal ganglia d. Cerebellum 180. The PTA notices that when he turns his patient's head supine, the patient's arm, and leg on one side of the body flex, and on the other side of the body it extends. His patient has a dx of a CVA. The PTA suspects that the patient may have a a. Positive ATNR b. Negative ATNR c. Associated reaction d. Homolateral synkinesis 181. Which of the following may be an appropriate activity when treating a patient with Down's syndrome? a. Gentle shaking while having the child do quadricep exercises. b. Prolong icing while having the child do quadricep exercises. c. Gentle rocking while having the child do quadricep exercises. d. Tapping while having the child do quadricep exercises. 182. According to Brunnstrom, if a patient with a CVA has strong synergistic patterns of movement with no isolated muscle contractions would be in what stage of recovery? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 5 d. Stage 7 183. The PTA resists hip add on the unaffected side in order to elicit hip add on the contralateral side. This describes: a. Souques Phenomenon b. Raimiste's Phenomenon c. Homolateral Synkinesis d. Proprioceptive Traction Response 184. Which of the following is not true as it relates to associated reactions? a. Flexion of uninvolved UE facilitates extension of involved UE b. Extension of uninvolved UE facilitates the extension of involved UE- both extensions c. Flexion of uninvolved LE facilitates extension of the involved LE d. Extension of uninvolved LE facilitates flexion of the involved LE 185. You are testing your patient's balance and you have the patient with a heel-to-toe stance and arms crossed over the chest. After 20 seconds, the patient loses their balance to the right side. Which would best describe the results of this test? a. Normal Romberg b. Abnormal Romberg c. Normal sharpened Romberg d. Abnormal sharpened Romberg 186. Which of the following would test a patient's static balance? a. SOLEC b. Tinetti - c. Timed up and go test d. WOFEC? 187. You observe a patient being tested for balance problems. You notice that the patient stands up, walks, turns walks back, and sits down. This describes which of the following tests? a. TUG test b. Tinetti c. WOFEC d. Single leg Stance Test 188. A male patient is examined by a physician after a recent onset of hand and finger weakness and muscular fasciculations. During the physician visit, the patient is informed that his medical condition is very serious and he has 2-5 years to live. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent with this scenario? a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson's Disease d. Huntington's disease 189. Which of the following describes the movements of an upper extremity flexor synergy? a. Scapula depression and retraction, shoulder flexion, abduction, ER, elbow flex, supination, wrist flexion, finger flexion b. Scapula elevation and retraction, shoulder flexion, adduction, IR, elbow flex, pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion c. Scapula elevation and retraction, shoulder flexion, abduction, ER, elbow flex., supination, wrist flexion, finger flexion d. Scapula depression and protraction, shoulder flexion, abduction, IR, elbow flex, pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion 190. Which of the following is a static sitting balance exercise for a patient with a dx of a right CVA? A. Have the patient in sitting and reaching for your finger  B. Have the patient sitting and reaching and placing cones on the left side C. Have the patient sitting on a foam square and maintain balance for 2 minutes D. Have the patient sitting on a foam square and reaching for a cone with the left UE 191. The PTA is seeing a patient who has recently suffered a CVA. The patient presents with slurred speech due to motor deficits of the tongue and other muscles. Which of the following best describes this condition? A. Dysarthria B. Dysphagia C. Aphasia D. Ataxia 192. The PT has instructed the PTA to work on strengthening the medial rotation using PNF. Which of the following LE patterns would be best to use for this patient? A. D1 flexion with knee extension B. D1 extension with knee straight C. D2 extension with knee extension D. D1 flexion with knee flexion 193. You are performing PNF UE D1 flexion exercises with a patient with increased tone. Which of the following techniques would be MOST effective to add to this exercise? A. rhythmic stabilization B. rhythmic initiation C. approximation D. traction 194. A PTA instructs a patient in a LE PNF pattern by telling the patient to turn your heel in and bring your leg up across your chest while straightening your knee. This type of command would be most appropriate to initiate: A. LE D1 flexion with knee extension B. LE D1 flexion with knee flexion C. LE D2 flexion with knee extension D. LE D2 flexion with knee flexion 195. A patient is s/p right CVA with left hemiplegia with a left UE flexor synergy. The past few days the patient has displayed decreased synergistic movement and you have decided to attempt to do PNF with this patient. Which of the following PNF patterns would this patient most benefit from? A. left UE D1 flexion with elbow flexion B. left UE D1 flexion with elbow extension C. left UE D1 extension with elbow extension D. left UE D1 extension with elbow flexion 196. In order to increase the speed and strength of a contraction, which of the following techniques would be appropriate to add to a PNF pattern? A. traction B. approximation C. quick stretch D. hold relax 197. Which of the following is contraindicated for someone who has a subluxation? A. approximation B. traction C. hold relax D. contract relax 198. The PT has asked you to do UE PNF with Mr. Smith in order to reinforce ER and abduction, and supination. Which of the following PNF patterns would you most likely select? A. UE D1 flexion B. UE D1 extension C. UE D2 flexion D. UE D2 extension 199. Which of the following is not necessary to perform PNF on a patient?  A. Patient must have normal vision. B. Patient must have normal hearing. C. Patient must be pain free. D. Patient must have good cognitive skills. 200. The PT has asked you to do PNF on a patient. The therapist wants you to specifically do LE D1 flexion on the patient. Which of the following are motions are elicited with LE D1 flexion? A. a Hip extension, abduction, IR, knee remains straight, PF, eversion B. Hip extension, adduction, ER, knee remains straight, PF, inversion C. Hip flexion, abduction, IR, knee remains straight, DF, eversion D. Hip flexion, adduction, ER, knee remains straight, DF, Inversion 201. A PTA instructs a patient in an UE PNF pattern by telling the patient to begin by grasping an imaginary sword positioned on their left hip using their right hand. This type of command would be most appropriate to initiate: A. D1 extension B. D1 flexion C. D2 extension D. D2 flexion 202. A patient diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis exhibits a forward stooped posture. As part of the patient's established plan of care the PTA implements a number of active exercises that promote improved posture. Which PNF pattern would be most appropriate to achieve the established objective? A. D1 extension B. D1 flexion C. D2 extension D. D2 flexion 203.A PTA implements a strengthening program for a patient with UE weakness that incorporates UE PNF techniques. Which verbal command would be the most appropriate for D1 flexion? A. Close your hand and pull up and across your body B. Close your hand and pull down and across your body C. Open your hand and pull up and away from your body D. Open your hand and push down and away from your body 204. A PTA positions a patient with T6 paraplegia in a long sitting on a mat table. The PTA's goal is to improve the patient's trunk control by facilitating a co-contraction of the antagonists. Which of the following facilitation techniques would be the most useful? A. Rhythmic stabilization B. Hold-Relax C. Rhythmic stabilization D. Contract-Relax 205. Which of the following statements regarding PNF is false? A. You may give maximal resistance to the distal muscles in order to get overflow to the proximal muscles. B. PNF allows you to facilitate certain muscle groups. C. When performing PNF on a patient it is important to control the rotary component. D. During PNF, maximal resistance is applied to the muscles during isotonic and isometric contractions. 206. While testing a patient's balance, you have the patient perform a series of activities, starting with those that require a low level of balance control and progressing to more difficult tasks. Of the following, the task that requires the greatest amount of balance control is:  A. Catching and throwing a ball while sitting. B. Raising the opposite arm and leg while in the quadruped position. C. Walking with one foot placed in front of the other. D. While standing, balancing on one leg for 10 seconds. 207. A PTA reviews an examination completed on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Results of the examination include 4/5 strength in the lower extremities, 10-degree flexion contracture at the hips, and exaggerated forward standing posture. The patient has difficulty initiating movement and requires manual assistance for gait on level surfaces. The MOST appropriate activity to incorporate into a home program is: A. Prone lying B. Progressive relaxation exercises C. Lower extremity resistive exercises with ankle weights D. Postural awareness exercises in standing 208. A combination of bilateral UE asymmetrical patterns performed as a diagonal activity is called: A. distraction B. chopping C. overflow D. mass movement patterns 209. A PNF technique that you can add to a PNF diagonal pattern includes a technique that requires a slow and resisted concentric contraction of agonists and antagonists around a joint without rest between reversals is called: A. Slow reversal B. Slow reversal hold C. Hold relax D. Contract relax 210. Which of the following terms may be defined as the act of moving an extremity into a position that the patient must hold against gravity? A. facilitation B. inhibition C. overflow D. placing 211. The therapist below has positioned his patient and is about to perform which of the following UE PNF patterns? A. D1 flexion B. D1 extension C. D2 flexion D. D2 extension 212. A 10-year-old girl with cerebral palsy is referred to physical therapy. The patient exhibits slow involuntary movements of her UEs and LEs. This type of motor disturbance is MOST representative of: A. Spasticity B. Ataxia C. Hypotonia D. Athetosis 213. A 16 y.o. female accompanied by her mother receives exercise instructions. During the treatment session, the mother makes several comments to her daughter that appear to be extremely upsetting and result in the daughter losing concentration. The MOST appropriate action is: A. Document the mother's comment B. Ask the patient if her mother is verbally abusive C. Ask the mother to return to the waiting area D. Discontinue the treatment session 214. Which of the following is a positive reaction for the Crossed Extension Reflex? A. Uncontrolled extension of the stimulated LE B. Uncontrolled extension of the stimulated UE C. Upon flexion of the extended LE, the opposite LE extends D. Sudden extension or abduction of the UE's Persists at this age 215. You are asked to see a 2 y.o. boy with a positive flexor withdrawal reflex. Which of the following would you expect to see? A. The boy flexes his LE which is an abnormal reaction.  B. The boy extends his LE which is an abnormal reaction. C. The boy flexes his LE which is a normal reaction. D. The boy extends his LE which is a normal reaction. 216. The PT has asked you to test a child's Positive Supporting reflex. You hold the child in a standing weight-bearing position. The child is 4 months old. Which of the following would you expect to find? A. You would expect the child to display extensor tone which is a positive reaction that is normal for this age. B. You would expect the child to display extensor tone which is a positive reaction that is abnormal for this age. C. You would not expect the child to display extensor tone which is a negative reaction that is normal for this age. D. You would expect the child to display extensor tone which is a negative reaction that is abnormal for this age. 217. You notice that your patient is having difficulty with crawling and continues to use primitive prone extension and stabilize his arms close to his body. Which of the following might you suspect this patient have? A. Head and Neck Asymmetry issue B. Neck Hyperextension issue C. Shoulder issue D. Positive ATNR 218. You are reading a PT evaluation describing the type of CP your patient has. You read that the patient has poor definition of muscles, hypermobility at the joints and has trouble moving against gravity. What specific type of CP may you suspect this patient has? A. Athetoid B. Spastic C. Hypotonic D. Ataxia 219. Which of the following activities would you not expect to see a 6-month-old doing? A. Supported sitting B. Rolling prone to supine  C. Prone on hands D. Gets in and out of sitting 220. A 9 y.o. child has a diagnosis of CP. She has severe increased resistance to passive stretch that appears not to be dependent on speed of the movement in both LE's. How might this child's CP be described? A. Severe hypotonic diplegia. B. Severe hypertonic diplegia C. Severe Rigid diplegia D. Severe Ataxia paraplegia 221. The PTA is treating an 8-month-old baby with mild neurological deficits. The child has no problems with his reflexes. Which of the following reflexes would you expect to be positive in this baby? A. ATNR B. Palmar Grasp Reflex C. Moro Reflex D. Body Righting Reflex 222. Which of the following would you expect to see a baby who is 1 1⁄2 years old doing? A. run B. kick a ball C. walking independently D. walks up and down stairs 223. The PT is evaluating a 7-month-old baby and finds that when pressure is placed at the base of the toes, the child flexes their toes. Which of the following statements are true? A. This child has a positive plantar grasp reflex that is normal for this age. B. This child has a positive plantar grasp reflex that is abnormal for this age. C. This child has a negative plantar grasp reflex that is normal for this age. D. This child has a negative plantar grasp reflex that is abnormal for this  age. 224. Which of the following may be seen in babies that are born prematurely? A. a posterior pelvic tilt B. hyperextended neck and trunk C. hips adducted D. scapula protraction 225. The therapist is testing a 4-month-old baby's Galant reflex. Which would be the expected finding? A. The reflex is positive and the child laterally flexes the trunk to the side of the stimuli B. The reflex is positive and nothing happens. C. The reflex is negative and nothing happens. D. The reflex is negative and the child laterally flexes the trunk to the side of the stimuli. 226. A syndrome in which muscles contract uncontrollably causing twisting and abnormal postures, affecting one muscle group or the whole body is known as? A. clonus B. dystonia C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Tic 227. A type of abnormal muscle tone where the patient has difficulty with trunk stability, precise movements, poor coordination and intentional tremors is called... A. athetoid B. ataxia C. spasticity D. rigidity 228. A PTA observes the gait of a child who has cerebral palsy. The PTA notes that the patient exhibits excessive lumbar lordosis during ambulation. Which of the following surgical procedures would BEST address this postural deformity? A. Hamstring tendon lengthening  B. Adductor longus tendon lengthening C. Iliopsoas tendon lengthening D. Lumbar laminectomy 229. The PT documents that the patient is a 6-month-old infant that displays a head and neck asymmetry issue. Which of the following statements would you be least likely to find in this patient? A. decreased attention to the midline B. ATNR that dominates C. Tight neck extensors D. scoliosis. 230. You notice that your patient sits in a "W sit" position. She displays decreased disassociation of the pelvis and LE's and weak abdominal muscles. What type of neurological issue would you suspect to find that is causing these issues? A. A head and neck asymmetry B. shoulder block C. anterior pelvic tilt D. posterior pelvic tilt 231. You are asked to see a child who is 2 years old and has a negative neck righting reflex and a positive body righting reflex. Explain the difference between the two responses. (describe what this child does) ANSWER KEY!!!! 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. D 22. C 23. D 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. C 51. D 52. A 53. A 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. B 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. D 72. C 73. D 74. B 75. C 76. B 77. D 78. A 79. B 80. D 81. A 82. Taken out 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. D 88. D 89. A 90. C 91. B 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. C 98. C 99. C 100. A 101. Taken out 102. A 103. B 104. C 105. C 106. C 107. B 108. C 109. A 110. C 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. B 116. D 117. C 118. A 119. D 120. C 121. A 122. B 123. D 124. D 125. C 126. B 127. B 128. B 129. C 130. A 131. A 132. D 133. D 134. C 135. B 136. A 137. A 138. B 139. C 140. D 141. C 142. A 143. B 144. B 145. B 146. C 147. C 148. C 149. D 150. B 151. D 152. C 153. B 154. A 155. C 156. C 157. B 158. C 159. Taken out 160. C 161. A 162. A 163. D 164. D 165. D 166. A 167. B 168. B 169. A 170. C 171. B 172. B 173. B 174. A 175. A 176. B 177. B 178. B 179. B 180. A 181. D 182. B 183. B 184. A 185. D 186. A 187. A 188. A 189. C 190. C 191. A 192. B 193. B 194. A 195. C 196. C 197. B 198. C 199. C 200. D 201. D 202. D 203. A 204. A 205. A 206. C 207. A 208. B 209. A 210. D 211. B 212. D 213. C 214. C 215. A 216. C 217. C 218. C 219. D 220. C 221. D 222. C 223. A 224. B 225. C 226. B 227. B 228. C 229. D 230. D 231. Neck righting would be when babys head is turned to one side they log roll to that same side and body righting reflex is when babys head is turned to one side they segmentally roll to that side. This kid should not be doing these reflexes because they are 2 years old and the neck righting is 0-6 months and body righting is 6-18 months