Final Practice Questions PDF

**1. What is the primary function of the upper airway?** A) Gas exchange B) Humidify and filter inspired air (Correct) C) Oxygenate blood D) Remove carbon dioxide **2. Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?** A) Uvula B) Epiglottis (Correct)...

**1. What is the primary function of the upper airway?** A) Gas exchange B) Humidify and filter inspired air (Correct) C) Oxygenate blood D) Remove carbon dioxide **2. Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?** A) Uvula B) Epiglottis (Correct) C) Soft palate D) Vocal cords **3. The narrowest part of the adult airway is the:** A) Glottic opening (Correct) B) Cricoid cartilage C) Trachea D) Nasopharynx **4. Which maneuver is recommended to open the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury?** A) Head-tilt/chin-lift B) Jaw-thrust (Correct) C) Sellick's maneuver D) Head-tilt/neck-lift **5. The primary purpose of the oropharyngeal airway is to:** A) Serve as a conduit for suctioning B) Prevent the tongue from occluding the airway (Correct) C) Deliver medications D) Protect the airway from aspiration **6. When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:** A) Tip of the nose to the earlobe (Correct) B) Corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw C) Tip of the nose to the chin D) Corner of the mouth to the earlobe **7. Which oxygen delivery device can provide the highest concentration of oxygen?** A) Nasal cannula B) Simple face mask C) Non-rebreather mask (Correct) D) Venturi mask **8. The appropriate oxygen flow rate for a non-rebreather mask is:** A) 1-6 L/min B) 6-10 L/min C) 10-15 L/min (Correct) D) 15-20 L/min **9. Capnography measures the concentration of which gas in exhaled air?** A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide (Correct) C) Nitrogen D) Carbon monoxide **10. A normal end-tidal CO₂ (EtCO₂) reading ranges between:** A) 20-30 mmHg B) 30-35 mmHg C) 35-45 mmHg (Correct) D) 45-55 mmHg **11. Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing?** A) Respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute B) Bilateral clear breath sounds C) Use of accessory muscles (Correct) D) Pink, warm, dry skin **12. The Sellick maneuver involves applying pressure to the:** A) Thyroid cartilage B) Cricoid cartilage (Correct) C) Hyoid bone D) Sternum **13. Which airway adjunct is contraindicated in patients with a gag reflex?** A) Nasopharyngeal airway B) Oropharyngeal airway (Correct) C) Supraglottic airway D) Endotracheal tube **14. The "E" in the LEMON mnemonic for difficult airway assessment stands for:** A) Evaluate 3-3-2 rule (Correct) B) Examine neck mobility C) Ensure equipment readiness D) Estimate airway size **15. In the 3-3-2 rule, the first "3" refers to:** A) Mouth opening of three fingers (Correct) B) Thyromental distance of three fingers C) Neck circumference of three inches D) Jaw length of three centimeters **16. Which of the following is an early sign of hypoxia?** A) Cyanosis B) Altered mental status (Correct) C) Bradycardia D) Hypotension **17. The BURP maneuver stands for:** A) Backward, Upward, Rightward Pressure (Correct) B) Bilateral Upper Respiratory Palpation C) Basic Upper Respiratory Procedure D) Breathing Under Resuscitation Protocol **18. Which medication is commonly used as a sedative during rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?** A) Atropine B) Etomidate (Correct) C) Succinylcholine D) Epinephrine **19. Succinylcholine is classified as a:** A) Sedative B) Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (Correct) C) Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker D) Analgesic **20. The primary indication for using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is:** A) Asthma exacerbation B) Pulmonary edema (Correct) C) Pneumothorax D) Upper airway obstruction **21. Which of the following is a contraindication for nasotracheal intubation?** A) Spontaneously breathing patient B) Suspected basilar skull fracture (Correct) C) Patient over 12 years old D) Respiratory distress **22. The narrowest part of a child's airway is the:** A) Glottic opening B) Cricoid cartilage (Correct) C) Trachea D) Nasopharynx **23. What is the primary reason for preoxygenation before intubation?** A) Prevent carbon dioxide buildup B) Ensure adequate oxygen reserves during apnea (Correct) C) Reduce airway secretions D) Improve lung compliance **24. The primary purpose of waveform capnography during airway management is to:** A) Assess oxygenation B) Confirm proper ET tube placement (Correct) C) Evaluate SpO₂ trends D) Monitor tidal volume **25. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of increased airway resistance?** A) Bronchospasm B) Pulmonary edema C) Dehydration (Correct) D) Airway obstruction **26. Which medication is an anticholinergic used to treat bronchospasm?** A) Albuterol B) Ipratropium (Correct) C) Epinephrine D) Atropine **27. What is the primary goal of CPAP therapy in respiratory distress?** A) Reduce carbon dioxide levels B) Increase functional residual capacity (Correct) C) Provide full ventilatory support D) Enhance tidal volume **28. When using a BVM, how should you adjust for a pediatric patient?** A) Use an adult-sized bag and limit volume B) Use a pediatric-sized bag (Correct) C) Increase the rate of ventilation D) Avoid using PEEP **29. A contraindication for the use of succinylcholine is:** A) Hyperkalemia (Correct) B) Tachycardia C) Respiratory acidosis D) Obesity **30. Which of the following is an advantage of using an i-gel airway?** A) Requires inflation B) Protects against aspiration C) Provides gastric access (Correct) D) Limited use in pediatric patients **31. Which ventilation mode provides a set tidal volume regardless of patient effort?** A) CPAP B) Assist-Control (Correct) C) BiPAP D) Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation **32. The maximum suctioning time for an adult is:** A) 5 seconds B) 10 seconds C) 15 seconds (Correct) D) 20 seconds **33. Which condition would most likely benefit from bronchodilator therapy?** A) Pulmonary edema B) Asthma (Correct) C) Pneumonia D) Pulmonary embolism **34. Which supraglottic airway device allows for gastric decompression?** A) King LT B) i-gel (Correct) C) Combitube D) LMA **35. An SpO₂ reading of less than 85% indicates:** A) Adequate oxygenation B) Moderate hypoxia C) Severe hypoxia (Correct) D) Normal oxygenation **36. Which respiratory condition is characterized by decreased compliance and increased work of breathing?** A) COPD B) Asthma C) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) (Correct) D) Pneumothorax **37. The sniffing position aligns which three airway axes?** A) Oral, nasal, pharyngeal B) Laryngeal, oral, tracheal C) Oral, pharyngeal, laryngeal (Correct) D) Nasal, laryngeal, tracheal **38. Which of the following is a primary side effect of ketamine when used for RSI?** A) Hypotension B) Hypertension (Correct) C) Respiratory depression D) Tachycardia **39. Which ventilatory setting is adjusted to maintain EtCO₂ within normal limits?** A) PEEP B) FiO₂ C) Respiratory rate (Correct) D) Tidal volume **40. During intubation, how far should the ET tube cuff be advanced past the vocal cords?** A) 1-2 cm (Correct) B) 2-3 cm C) 3-4 cm D) 5-6 cm **41. What is the purpose of PEEP in mechanical ventilation?** A) Reduce tidal volume B) Prevent alveolar collapse (Correct) C) Increase respiratory rate D) Reduce CO₂ retention **42. What is the recommended initial tidal volume for mechanical ventilation in non-ARDS patients?** A) 4-6 mL/kg B) 6-8 mL/kg (Correct) C) 8-10 mL/kg D) 10-12 mL/kg **43. A Mallampati score of Class IV indicates:** A) Full visibility of the uvula and soft palate B) Visibility of the soft palate only (Correct) C) Visibility of the tonsils and uvula D) Complete visualization of airway structures **44. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?** A) Foreign body B) Tongue (Correct) C) Secretions D) Laryngeal edema **45. A contraindication for CPAP is:** A) Pulmonary edema B) Hypotension (Correct) C) Asthma exacerbation D) COPD exacerbation **46. Which paralytic agent is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?** A) Succinylcholine B) Rocuronium (Correct) C) Ketamine D) Etomidate **47. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for a patient in mild respiratory distress?** A) Non-rebreather mask B) Nasal cannula (Correct) C) CPAP D) BVM **48. The appropriate ventilation rate for a cardiac arrest patient with an advanced airway is:** A) 8-10 breaths per minute (Correct) B) 12-15 breaths per minute C) 6-8 breaths per minute D) 10-12 breaths per minute **49. Which of the following medications is indicated for status asthmaticus?** A) Epinephrine (Correct) B) Atropine C) Rocuronium D) Dexamethasone **50. Which airway device is most effective in protecting against aspiration?** A) Oropharyngeal airway B) Nasopharyngeal airway C) Endotracheal tube (Correct) D) Laryngeal mask airway **51. What is the correct positioning for an obese patient requiring airway management?** A) Supine with head turned laterally B) Ramp position with head elevated (Correct) C) Semi-Fowler's with head tilted forward D) Prone position **52. The maximum time an intubation attempt should last is:** A) 10 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 30 seconds (Correct) D) 40 seconds **53. The first step in managing a foreign body airway obstruction in a conscious adult is to:** A) Perform abdominal thrusts (Correct) B) Perform chest compressions C) Insert an oropharyngeal airway D) Begin ventilations with a BVM **54. A complication of excessive ventilation during cardiac arrest is:** A) Decreased cardiac output (Correct) B) Hyperoxia C) Increased EtCO₂ D) Respiratory alkalosis **55. What is the recommended I:E ratio for most patients during mechanical ventilation?** A) 1:1 B) 1:2 (Correct) C) 2:1 D) 1:3 **56. The primary reason to auscultate breath sounds after intubation is to:** A) Confirm bilateral lung inflation (Correct) B) Assess the depth of sedation C) Determine airway resistance D) Monitor tidal volume **57. Which medication is used as a bronchodilator in asthma management?** A) Dexamethasone B) Albuterol (Correct) C) Ketamine D) Succinylcholine **58. Which supraglottic airway device uses dual balloons to secure the airway?** A) King LT B) Combitube (Correct) C) i-gel D) LMA **59. A patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax should be ventilated at a rate of:** A) 6-8 breaths per minute B) 8-10 breaths per minute C) 10-12 breaths per minute (Correct) D) 12-15 breaths per minute **60. Which airway management technique is recommended for severe facial trauma?** A) Oropharyngeal airway B) Nasopharyngeal airway C) Surgical cricothyrotomy (Correct) D) Endotracheal intubation **61. Which of the following is a reliable method to confirm proper ET tube placement?** A) Visualizing chest rise B) Listening for bilateral breath sounds C) Waveform capnography (Correct) D) Fogging in the tube **62. Which medication is contraindicated in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?** A) Etomidate B) Succinylcholine (Correct) C) Ketamine D) Rocuronium **63. The primary risk of using a supraglottic airway in a patient who is vomiting is:** A) Hypoxia B) Aspiration (Correct) C) Laryngospasm D) Barotrauma **64. The best method for managing gastric distension during ventilation is:** A) Reposition the airway and reduce ventilation pressure (Correct) B) Increase the ventilation rate C) Use a larger BVM D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway **65. The purpose of preoxygenation prior to RSI is to:** A) Ensure patient cooperation B) Maximize oxygen reserves (Correct) C) Prevent aspiration D) Reduce sedative doses **66. A contraindication for nasopharyngeal airway placement is:** A) Altered mental status B) Suspected basilar skull fracture (Correct) C) Excessive oral secretions D) Respiratory distress **67. The initial step in managing a patient with a complete airway obstruction is:** A) Administer oxygen B) Perform abdominal thrusts (Correct) C) Intubate the patient D) Insert a supraglottic airway **68. The most effective technique for ventilating a patient with a BVM is:** A) Single-provider operation B) Two-person mask seal technique (Correct) C) High-flow oxygen with nasal cannula D) Holding the mask with one hand **69. Which paralytic agent has the shortest duration of action?** A) Succinylcholine (Correct) B) Rocuronium C) Vecuronium D) Pancuronium **70. Which airway device is preferred for long-term mechanical ventilation?** A) Endotracheal tube (Correct) B) King LT C) LMA D) i-gel **71. The cricoid cartilage is located:** A) Above the thyroid cartilage B) Below the thyroid cartilage (Correct) C) At the base of the tongue D) Between the vocal cords **72. A patient with asthma is unresponsive to bronchodilators. Which medication might be used next?** A) Ipratropium B) Magnesium sulfate (Correct) C) Atropine D) Rocuronium **73. The sniffing position is used to:** A) Align the airway axes for intubation (Correct) B) Increase tidal volume during ventilation C) Prevent aspiration D) Reduce the risk of cervical spine injury **74. The most common complication of endotracheal intubation is:** A) Aspiration B) Hypoxia (Correct) C) Esophageal intubation D) Vocal cord damage **75. What does the "BURP" maneuver accomplish?** A) Secures the ET tube in place B) Improves glottic visualization during intubation (Correct) C) Reduces gastric distension D) Aligns the airway for ventilation **76. A pulse oximeter reading may be inaccurate in the presence of:** A) Carbon monoxide poisoning (Correct) B) Tachycardia C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Mild hypoxia **77. Which condition is most likely to cause pulsus paradoxus?** A) Pneumothorax B) Cardiac tamponade (Correct) C) Pulmonary embolism D) COPD **78. Which of the following is a potential complication of CPAP therapy?** A) Hypertension B) Hypotension (Correct) C) Hypercapnia D) Increased work of breathing **79. The Mallampati score is used to evaluate:** A) Risk of aspiration B) Difficulty of intubation (Correct) C) Airway resistance D) Need for mechanical ventilation **80. Which medication is preferred for sedation in hypotensive patients?** A) Ketamine (Correct) B) Etomidate C) Midazolam D) Succinylcholine **81. During mechanical ventilation, an increasing peak inspiratory pressure suggests:** A) Improved lung compliance B) Airway obstruction (Correct) C) Reduced tidal volume D) Low PEEP settings **82. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for nasotracheal intubation?** A) COPD B) Respiratory distress C) Apnea (Correct) D) Asthma **83. The i-gel airway is beneficial because:** A) It protects against aspiration B) It does not require inflation (Correct) C) It is reusable D) It can be inserted blindly **84. When using waveform capnography, a "shark fin" appearance suggests:** A) Airway obstruction (Correct) B) Normal ventilation C) Hyperventilation D) Cardiac arrest **85. What is the minimum oxygen flow rate required to prevent rebreathing with a non-rebreather mask?** A) 6 L/min B) 8 L/min C) 10 L/min D) 15 L/min (Correct) **86. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the LMA?** A) Requires laryngoscopy for placement B) Does not protect against aspiration (Correct) C) Cannot be used in pediatric patients D) Requires a supraglottic seal **87. A patient with wheezing, tachypnea, and accessory muscle use is likely experiencing:** A) Pneumonia B) Bronchospasm (Correct) C) Pulmonary edema D) Pleural effusion **88. Which condition would most likely require surgical cricothyrotomy?** A) Asthma exacerbation B) Severe facial trauma (Correct) C) COPD exacerbation D) Pulmonary embolism **89. Which airway device is most appropriate for a patient with an intact gag reflex?** A) Oropharyngeal airway B) Nasopharyngeal airway (Correct) C) King LT airway D) Endotracheal tube **90. Which of the following is a primary indication for CPAP?** A) Tension pneumothorax B) Severe pulmonary edema (Correct) C) Respiratory arrest D) Hypovolemia **91. The King LT airway is contraindicated in patients with:** A) COPD B) An intact gag reflex (Correct) C) Apnea D) Asthma **92. Which of the following is a potential complication of endotracheal intubation?** A) Barotrauma (Correct) B) Improved lung compliance C) Decreased airway resistance D) Increased oxygenation **93. Which medication is most effective in reducing airway inflammation in asthma?** A) Albuterol B) Dexamethasone (Correct) C) Succinylcholine D) Ketamine **94. A waveform capnography reading of 25 mmHg during cardiac arrest indicates:** A) Normal perfusion B) Inadequate chest compressions (Correct) C) Proper ET tube placement D) Hyperventilation **95. Which anatomical structure serves as the primary barrier to aspiration?** A) Cricoid cartilage B) Epiglottis (Correct) C) Vocal cords D) Uvula **96. The correct ventilation rate for a pediatric patient with a pulse is:** A) 12-20 breaths per minute B) 10-12 breaths per minute C) 15-20 breaths per minute (Correct) D) 8-10 breaths per minute **97. Which paralytic agent is most commonly used in prehospital RSI?** A) Rocuronium B) Vecuronium C) Succinylcholine (Correct) D) Pancuronium **98. Which condition is characterized by decreased tidal volume and increased respiratory rate?** A) Hypercapnia B) Hypoxia C) Respiratory distress (Correct) D) Pulmonary edema **99. Which airway device has dual lumens to allow for ventilation through the esophagus or trachea?** A) King LT B) Combitube (Correct) C) i-gel D) LMA **100. What is the primary indication for end-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring during resuscitation?** A) Confirm oxygenation B) Assess effectiveness of chest compressions (Correct) C) Detect airway obstruction D) Diagnose hypoxia **101. Which medication is used as an adjunct therapy in severe asthma exacerbations?** A) Magnesium sulfate (Correct) B) Rocuronium C) Midazolam D) Etomidate **102. The most appropriate initial step for a patient with visible upper airway obstruction is:** A) Perform abdominal thrusts (Correct) B) Administer oxygen C) Perform needle cricothyrotomy D) Insert an oropharyngeal airway **103. What is the primary complication of excessive PEEP during mechanical ventilation?** A) Hypoxia B) Barotrauma (Correct) C) Hyperventilation D) Hypoventilation **104. Which anatomical landmark is most useful for performing cricothyrotomy?** A) Thyroid cartilage B) Cricoid cartilage (Correct) C) Sternum D) Hyoid bone **105. Which condition is most likely to cause hypercapnia?** A) Hyperventilation B) Hypoventilation (Correct) C) Pulmonary embolism D) Pneumothorax **106. A contraindication for using CPAP is:** A) Pulmonary edema B) Pneumothorax (Correct) C) Asthma exacerbation D) COPD exacerbation **107. The primary goal of oxygen therapy is to:** A) Increase respiratory rate B) Maintain SpO₂ \> 94% (Correct) C) Improve lung compliance D) Reduce tidal volume **108. What is the minimum SpO₂ level for a patient with COPD before initiating oxygen therapy?** A) 80% B) 88% (Correct) C) 90% D) 94% **109. Which maneuver improves vocal cord visualization during intubation?** A) Sellick's maneuver B) BURP (Correct) C) Head-tilt/chin-lift D) Sniffing position **110. Which ventilation mode allows the patient to breathe spontaneously between mandatory breaths?** A) Assist-Control B) SIMV (Correct) C) CPAP D) Pressure Control **111. Which device is used to suction a patient with an endotracheal tube?** A) Yankauer catheter B) Whistle-tip catheter (Correct) C) Rigid suction catheter D) Venturi suction adapter **112. What is the appropriate initial FiO₂ setting for a patient on mechanical ventilation?** A) 21% B) 50% C) 60-100% (Correct) D) 40% **113. What is the recommended oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula?** A) 1-6 L/min (Correct) B) 6-10 L/min C) 10-15 L/min D) 12-20 L/min **114. Which medication provides dissociative anesthesia and maintains respiratory drive?** A) Etomidate B) Ketamine (Correct) C) Midazolam D) Propofol **115. What does a "flat line" on waveform capnography indicate?** A) Normal ventilation B) Apnea or dislodged ET tube (Correct) C) Hypoventilation D) Hyperventilation **116. Which of the following is a contraindication for CPAP use?** A) Asthma B) Unconsciousness (Correct) C) Pulmonary edema D) COPD **117. What is the preferred position for a patient during rapid sequence intubation?** A) Supine B) Sniffing position (Correct) C) Left lateral recumbent D) Semi-Fowler's **118. Which of the following is a complication of hyperventilation in a head injury patient?** A) Increased intracranial pressure B) Decreased intracranial pressure (Correct) C) Reduced oxygenation D) Increased carbon dioxide retention **119. Which waveform pattern on capnography suggests bronchospasm?** A) Flat waveform B) Shark-fin waveform (Correct) C) Rounded waveform D) Steep upslope **120. How do you measure for the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?** A) From the corner of the mouth to the earlobe (Correct) B) From the tip of the nose to the chin C) From the corner of the mouth to the jawline D) From the nose to the base of the neck **121. Which of the following drugs is used to reduce secretions during airway management?** A) Atropine (Correct) B) Epinephrine C) Albuterol D) Succinylcholine **122. Which of the following is an early indicator of respiratory failure?** A) Cyanosis B) Altered mental status (Correct) C) Bradycardia D) Hypotension **123. A decrease in EtCO₂ during resuscitation may indicate:** A) ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) B) Hyperventilation or decreased perfusion (Correct) C) Effective chest compressions D) High cardiac output **124. Which device is best for non-invasive ventilation in a patient with pulmonary edema?** A) CPAP (Correct) B) BVM C) Venturi mask D) Nasal cannula **125. Which of the following is the most common cause of sudden airway obstruction in unconscious patients?** A) Vomitus B) Blood C) Tongue (Correct) D) Foreign body **126. Which paralytic is ideal for long-term paralysis in ventilated patients?** A) Succinylcholine B) Rocuronium (Correct) C) Ketamine D) Etomidate **127. The inspiratory-to-expiratory (I:E) ratio in normal ventilation is:** A) 2:1 B) 1:2 (Correct) C) 1:1 D) 1:3 **128. Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?** A) Restlessness B) Cyanosis (Correct) C) Increased heart rate D) Tachypnea **129. Which airway device can be inserted without manipulating the head or neck?** A) Endotracheal tube B) Nasopharyngeal airway (Correct) C) Oropharyngeal airway D) Laryngeal mask airway **130. The presence of gastric distension during ventilation is most likely caused by:** A) High oxygen flow rates B) Excessive ventilation pressure (Correct) C) Low ventilation volumes D) Proper airway positioning **131. Which airway adjunct is contraindicated in patients with nasal fractures?** A) Oropharyngeal airway B) Nasopharyngeal airway (Correct) C) Endotracheal tube D) Supraglottic airway **132. Which of the following is an appropriate response to increased airway resistance in a ventilated patient?** A) Increase the respiratory rate B) Decrease tidal volume (Correct) C) Add suction to the airway D) Increase FiO₂ **133. Which medication is commonly used to treat bradycardia and excess secretions?** A) Atropine (Correct) B) Albuterol C) Epinephrine D) Succinylcholine **134. What is the target oxygen saturation level for a COPD patient?** A) \>94% B) 88-92% (Correct) C) 85-88% D) 75-80% **135. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for RSI?** A) Hyperkalemia B) Total airway obstruction (Correct) C) Respiratory distress D) COPD **136. Which of the following airway management strategies is least likely to prevent aspiration?** A) Endotracheal tube B) LMA (Correct) C) King LT airway D) Combitube **137. Which ventilator setting directly controls tidal volume?** A) FiO₂ B) Volume control (Correct) C) Respiratory rate D) PEEP **138. During BVM ventilation, the most critical factor is:** A) Oxygen flow rate B) Visible chest rise (Correct) C) High respiratory rate D) Tight mask seal **139. Which of the following complications is most associated with prolonged endotracheal intubation?** A) Hypoxia B) Mucosal necrosis (Correct) C) Barotrauma D) Aspiration **140. Which airway technique is indicated for an unresponsive patient with severe facial trauma?** A) Nasopharyngeal airway B) Oropharyngeal airway C) Surgical cricothyrotomy (Correct) D) LMA **141. Which of the following is the best indicator of adequate oxygenation during ventilation?** A) Oxygen flow rate B) Visible chest rise C) SpO₂ \>94% (Correct) D) Respiratory rate **142. The most effective method to avoid barotrauma during mechanical ventilation is to:** A) Limit PEEP and tidal volume (Correct) B) Increase FiO₂ C) Decrease the respiratory rate D) Monitor SpO₂ continuously **143. A contraindication for using an i-gel airway is:** A) Obesity B) Intact gag reflex (Correct) C) Apnea D) Pulmonary edema **144. Which of the following is a key advantage of waveform capnography during CPR?** A) Detects airway obstruction B) Confirms ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) (Correct) C) Improves SpO₂ readings D) Guides tidal volume adjustments **145. The presence of wheezing during auscultation is most commonly associated with:** A) Pulmonary embolism B) Bronchospasm (Correct) C) Pneumonia D) Pleural effusion **146. Which of the following medications is an anticholinergic bronchodilator?** A) Albuterol B) Ipratropium (Correct) C) Epinephrine D) Atropine **147. A patient with severe pulmonary edema is most likely to benefit from:** A) Intubation and mechanical ventilation B) CPAP (Correct) C) High-flow nasal cannula D) BVM ventilation **148. The most common cause of false-positive SpO₂ readings is:** A) Poor perfusion B) Carbon monoxide poisoning (Correct) C) Cyanosis D) Excessive motion **149. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in a "shark-fin" waveform on capnography?** A) Normal ventilation B) Bronchospasm (Correct) C) Hypoventilation D) Hyperventilation **150. When inserting a King LT airway, the appropriate inflation volume for the cuffs is determined by:** A) The patient's weight (Correct) B) The patient's respiratory effort C) The tidal volume being delivered D) The size of the airway device