Final Mock Exam Answers with Explanation PDF

Final Exam-Mock Questions for Review 1. The medical term which means towards the foot is: a) Superior b) Dorsal c) Lateral d) Superficial e) Inferior Answer: e) Inferior Explanation: In anatomical terms, "inferior" refers to a position closer to the feet or lower part of the body, while "superior" refers to a position closer to the head. 2. Which structure is not found in the abdominal cavity? a) Liver b) Pancreas c) Spleen d) Scrotum e) Kidney Answer: d) Scrotum Explanation: The scrotum is located outside the abdominal cavity and houses the testes, whereas the liver, pancreas, spleen, and kidneys are located within the abdominal cavity. 3. Identify the false statement regarding the anatomical position. a) Eyes are forward b) Palms are forward c) Body is upright d) Arms are extended at shoulder level e) All of the above Answer: d) Arms are extended at shoulder level Explanation: In the anatomical position, the body is upright, eyes and palms face forward, but the arms are not extended at shoulder level—they are relaxed at the sides of the body. 4. Homeostasis is the automatic tendency of the body to maintain: a) Electrolyte balance b) Water balance c) Fluid balance d) Body temperature e) All of the above Answer: e) All of the above Explanation: Homeostasis refers to the body’s ability to maintain stable internal conditions, including electrolyte balance, water balance, fluid balance, and body temperature. 5. A "kg" is the unit of measurement for: a) Weight b) Volume c) Depth d) Density e) Distance Answer: a) Weight Explanation: Kilogram (kg) is a unit of mass or weight in the metric system. 6. A 2-hour pc is performed: a) After a 24-hour fast b) After a 10 to 12-hour fast c) 2 hours after a meal d) Immediately e) Within 2 hours Answer: c) 2 hours after a meal Explanation: A 2-hour postprandial (pc) test measures blood glucose levels 2 hours after eating a meal to check for diabetes or monitor glucose control. 7. The probability of a patient’s recovery from a disease is the: a) Psychosis b) Diagnosis c) Synopsis d) Prognosis e) Synthesis Answer: d) Prognosis Explanation: Prognosis is the likely outcome or course of a disease, including the chances of recovery. 8. Normal ranges are based on results obtained from __ of healthy people. a) 45% b) 65% c) 75% d) 85% e) 95% Answer: e) 95% Explanation: Normal ranges for test results are typically established based on the values of 95% of healthy individuals, meaning results outside of this range may indicate a problem. 9. A “panic value” indicates a test result that is: a) Also called “critical value” b) Incorrect, and needs to be repeated c) Severely abnormal, and must be reported to a higher authority d) Lower than is expected for that patient e) Two of the above Answer: e) Two of the above (a & c) Explanation: A "panic value," also known as a "critical value," is a test result that is severely abnormal and requires immediate reporting to a higher authority for urgent action. 10. A patient asks you for his/her test results. You would: a) Change the subject b) Lie and tell him the results are not ready yet c) Tell him only if the results are normal d) Tell him that the doctor will discuss that with him e) Say, once the doctor has called you, it means you are positive Answer: d) Tell him that the doctor will discuss that with him Explanation: It is important for the doctor to communicate the results to the patient, as they are qualified to explain the medical implications of the test results and provide guidance. 11. Which results are not phoned to the doctor? a) Positive blood culture b) Positive strep screen c) Low cholesterol d) STAT electrolyte e) Positive CSF Answer: c) Low cholesterol Explanation: Critical results like positive blood cultures, strep screens, CSF results, and urgent (STAT) electrolyte abnormalities are typically phoned to the doctor immediately due to their potential for severe patient implications. Low cholesterol is not typically considered urgent or life-threatening. 12. The term for loss of appetite is: a) Dysphasia b) Ataxia c) Apnea d) Anorexia e) Aphasia Answer: d) Anorexia Explanation: Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite or inability to eat, which can be caused by various medical conditions. Dysphasia refers to difficulty speaking, ataxia to loss of muscle coordination, apnea to the absence of breathing, and aphasia to difficulty in communication. 13. A low level of potassium in the blood is termed: a) Hyperkaliemia b) Hypoglycemia c) Hypernatremia d) Subpotassemia e) Hypokalemia Answer: e) Hypokalemia Explanation: Hypokalemia refers to low potassium levels in the blood. "Kali" refers to potassium, and "hypo" means low. Hyperkaliemia refers to high potassium, and hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar. 14. Which is not a controlled product regulated under WHMIS? a) Oxidizing materials b) Compressed gases c) Radioactive materials d) Poisonous materials e) Biohazardous materials Answer: c) Radioactive materials Explanation: WHMIS (Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System) regulates the handling and labeling of hazardous materials, but radioactive materials fall under different regulations, such as those by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission. 15. A product’s stability and its effects on other chemicals are in the MSDS: a) Product identifier section b) Toxicological data section c) Reactivity data section d) Preventative measures section e) Fire and explosion data section Answer: c) Reactivity data section Explanation: The reactivity data section of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides information on the product’s chemical stability and any dangerous reactions it may have with other substances. 16. Safety equipment to handle dangerous substances is found in the MSDS: a) Physical and chemical properties section b) Preventative measures section c) First aid measures section d) Product identifier section e) Hazardous ingredients section Answer: b) Preventative measures section Explanation: The preventative measures section of the MSDS provides information on the necessary personal protective equipment (PPE) and other safety procedures required for handling hazardous substances. 17. Picric acid is stored: a) Under ethanol b) Under water c) With strong bases d) With xylene e) In the refrigerator Answer: b) Under water Explanation: Picric acid is highly explosive when dry, so it is stored under water to prevent it from becoming a safety hazard. 18. Which chemical is a health hazard? a) Crystal violet b) Ether c) Picric acid d) Xylene e) All of the above Answer: e) All of the above Explanation: All the listed chemicals—crystal violet, ether, picric acid, and xylene—are considered health hazards due to their toxic, carcinogenic, or explosive properties. 19. Aerosols, hot loops, and centrifugation are examples of: a) Insidious hazards b) Chemical hazards c) Radiation hazards d) Electrical hazards e) Biohazards Answer: a) Insidious hazards Explanation: 20. When handling large amounts of acids you should use: a) Heavy-duty gloves b) Rubber apron c) Eye goggles d) Fume hood e) All of the above Answer: e) All of the above Explanation: When handling large amounts of acids, it's essential to use heavy-duty gloves, rubber aprons, eye protection, and a fume hood to protect against splashes, fumes, and accidental exposure. 21. To prevent the spread of infection, a lab assistant should: a) Ask the patients if they have AIDS b) Change lab coats between each patient c) Wash hands between each patient d) Apply 1% hypochlorite to every area the patient touches e) Avoid all patients that look very sick Answer: c) Wash hands between each patient Explanation: The best way to prevent the spread of infection in a clinical setting is by practicing good hand hygiene, including washing hands between each patient interaction. Changing lab coats or asking about AIDS is not practical or necessary. 22. Hypochlorite for general laboratory disinfection is: a) A 3% concentration b) Made daily c) Made weekly d) A 1% concentration e) Two of the above Answer: e) Two of the above (b & d) Explanation: For general disinfection purposes, a 1% hypochlorite solution is commonly used, and it should be made daily to ensure effectiveness. 23. Which method is acceptable to dispose of used needles? a) Discard whole needles into a puncture-proof sharps container b) Cut or bend needles before discarding c) Discard needles into regular garbage d) Sterilize needles and reuse e) Discard all used needles into biohazardous bags Answer: a) Discard whole needles into a puncture-proof sharps container Explanation: Needles should be discarded whole into designated puncture-proof sharps containers to prevent injury and cross-contamination. They should never be bent, cut, or discarded in regular trash. 24. A "TC" pipette: a) Is allowed to drain freely b) Has a double-etched ring at the mouthpiece c) Is used for toxic or corrosive substances d) Has its contents rinsed out with the diluent from the receiving container e) Has the last drop forced out using a safety bulb Answer: d) Has its contents rinsed out with the diluent from the receiving container Explanation: A "To Contain" (TC) pipette is calibrated to contain a specified amount of liquid, and after dispensing, it is rinsed out to ensure complete transfer of its contents. 25. A volumetric flask is used: a) As critical measurement glassware b) As non-critical measurement glassware c) To heat up all liquids d) To prepare accurate solutions e) Two of the above Answer: e) Two of the above (a & d) Explanation: Volumetric flasks are used for precise measurements in preparing accurate solutions and are considered critical measurement glassware. 26. A test procedure requires 3.4 grams of salt. You would need a/an: a) Periodic table b) Rough balance c) Anatomical balance d) Analytical balance e) Hotplate and magnetic stirrer Answer: b) Rough balance Explanation: An rough balance is used for approx measurements, such as weighing 3.4 grams of a substance. 27. Hot air ovens to sterilize glassware can be operated at: a) 37°C b) 121°C c) 100°C d) 90°C e) 200°C Answer: e) 200°C Explanation: Hot air ovens typically sterilize glassware at higher temperatures, often around 160°C to 200°C. 28. The most chemically pure water is: a) Spring water b) Mineral water c) Tap water d) Deionized water e) Scott's tap water Answer: d) Deionized water Explanation: Deionized water is chemically pure as it has been treated to remove all ions, making it ideal for laboratory use. 29. The pipette with a bulged-out portion in the middle is a: a) Pro-pipette b) Volumetric pipette c) Micropipette d) Mohr pipette e) Pasteur pipette Answer: b) Volumetric pipette Explanation: A volumetric pipette has a characteristic bulge in the middle and is used for precise measurements of liquids. 30. Identify the incorrect step when using a serological pipette. a) The last drop must be blown out b) The pipette tip is wiped before setting the meniscus level c) The pipette is held vertically while emptying d) Air bubbles in the liquid do not affect the final volume e) None of the above Answer: d) Air bubbles in the liquid do not affect the final volume Explanation: Air bubbles in the pipette can indeed affect the final volume and should be avoided when measuring liquids. 31. The highest purity in a chemical is indicated by which term? a) Commercial grade b) First grade c) Technical grade d) Analytical reagent grade e) Purified grade Answer: d) Analytical reagent grade Explanation: Analytical reagent grade indicates the highest purity of chemicals, suitable for use in laboratories for analytical testing. 32. A wide-mouthed jar with a pouring spout is described as a: a) Beaker b) 24-hour cylinder c) Sterile container d) Florence flask e) Graduated cylinder Answer: a) Beaker Explanation: A beaker is a wide-mouthed jar with a flat bottom and a spout for pouring, commonly used in laboratories. 33. Negatively charged particles in an atom’s nucleus are the: a) Cations b) Neutrons c) Electrons d) Protons e) Anions Answer: c) Electrons Explanation: Electrons are negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus of an atom. 34. A substance made of only one type of atom is a/an: a) Isotope b) Compound c) Mole d) Chemical e) Element Answer: e) Element Explanation: An element consists of only one type of atom, such as oxygen or hydrogen. 35. To form a covalent bond, electrons: a) Become positive b) Become neutral c) Are shared d) Are donated or accepted e) None of the above Answer: c) Are shared Explanation: In a covalent bond, atoms share electrons to achieve stability. 36. Compounds separated into positive and negative ions in water are called: a) Fats b) Salts c) Bases d) Acids e) Electrolytes Answer: e) Electrolytes Explanation: Electrolytes dissociate into positive and negative ions in water, conducting electricity. 37. Identify the false statement regarding proteins: a) Protein molecules contain peptide bonds b) Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins c) Proteins are complex inorganic compounds d) Each amino acid has an —NH₂ and a —COOH group attached e) Essential amino acids are required in the diet Answer: c) Proteins are complex inorganic compounds Explanation: Proteins are organic compounds made up of amino acids, not inorganic. 38. Identify the false statement regarding lipids: a) Lipids are easily dissolved in water b) Lipids include fats, fatty acids, waxes, and steroids c) Fatty acids and glycerol are the building blocks of lipids d) Steroids are lipids with carbon ring structures e) Lipids function to store energy and insulate the body Answer: a) Lipids are easily dissolved in water Explanation: Lipids are hydrophobic and do not dissolve easily in water. 39. Identify the false statement regarding carbohydrates: a) Glycogen, starch, and cellulose are polysaccharides b) Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle convert sugars to energy, CO₂, and H₂O c) Carbohydrates contain carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen d) Glucose and fructose are monosaccharides e) Carbohydrates are the main energy source for cells Answer: c) Carbohydrates contain carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen Explanation: Carbohydrates do not contain nitrogen; they only contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. 40. Which is not an organelle in a typical cell? a) Mitochondria b) Nucleus c) Ribosome d) Axon e) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: d) Axon Explanation: An axon is a part of a neuron (nerve cell), not an organelle found in typical cells like mitochondria, nucleus, or ribosomes. 41. The semipermeable cell membrane: a) Is made of protein only b) Has antigens on its surface to identify the cell type c) Allows only water molecules to enter the cell d) Is rigid in shape and does not contain pores e) Is covered with ribosomes Answer: b) Has antigens on its surface to identify the cell type Explanation: The semipermeable cell membrane contains proteins a 42- 47. Which prefix means "low": a) di- b) hypo- c) hyper- d) supra- e) micro- Answer: b) hypo- Explanation: The prefix "hypo-" means "low" or "below normal." For example, hypoglycemia means low blood sugar. 48. Identify the TRUE definition: a) Intravenous - in an artery b) Leukopenia - decreased number of red blood cells c) Leukocyturia - white blood cells in lymph d) Pneumonectomy - removal of a lung e) Arthritis - inflammation of the elbow Answer: d) Pneumonectomy - removal of a lung Explanation: Pneumonectomy refers to the surgical removal of a lung. The other definitions are incorrect; for example, leukopenia is a decrease in white blood cells, not red blood cells. 49. Which root means "eye": a) aden/o b) arthr/o c) ot/o d) oste/o e) ophthalm/o Answer: e) ophthalm/o Explanation: The root ophthalm/o refers to the eye, as in ophthalmologist (eye doctor). 50. The medical term "Hemigastroenterotomy" means: a) Inflammation of the stomach and liver b) Cutting into half the stomach and bone c) Removal of half the intestine and stomach d) Surgical repair below the stomach and intestine e) Making an opening above the stomach and intestine Answer: c) Removal of half the intestine and stomach Explanation: "Hemi-" means half, "gastro-" refers to the stomach, and "entero-" refers to the intestines, so this term refers to the removal of half the stomach and intestine. 51. Which prefix means "a little, scanty"? a) scantio b) little c) mega d) peri e) oligo Answer: e) oligo Explanation: The prefix oligo- means "scanty" or "few," as in oliguria (producing small amounts of urine). 52. Which root means "muscle": a) my/o b) dermis c) myco d) oro e) rhino Answer: a) my/o Explanation: The root my/o refers to muscle, as in myopathy (muscle disease). 53. Identify the true definition: a) Osteosclerosis - hardening of the skin b) Dyspnea - absence of breathing c) Centesis - puncture to aspirate d) Hematoma - tumor of lymph fluid e) Two of the above Answer: c) Centesis - puncture to aspirate Explanation: Centesis refers to a procedure where a puncture is made to aspirate fluid, such as in thoracentesis (removal of fluid from the chest cavity). Dyspnea means difficulty breathing, not absence of breathing. 54. Identify the false statement: a) A sign is an abnormality that is observed or measured b) A symptom is an abnormality that is felt c) SARS is a chronic disease d) An example of a chronic disease is arthritis e) None of the above Answer: c) SARS is a chronic disease Explanation: SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) is an acute disease, not chronic. Chronic diseases, like arthritis, last for a long time or are lifelong. 55. Which medical term means "removal of the windpipe": a) Pharyngostomy b) Laryngitis c) Thoracocarcinoma d) Gastroenterectomy e) Trachectomy Answer: e) Trachectomy Explanation: Trachectomy refers to the removal of the trachea (windpipe). Other terms refer to different parts of the body or conditions. 56. The suffix that means "painful" is: a) polio b) -dynia c) -pathy d) -cystio e) -otomy Answer: b) -dynia Explanation: The suffix -dynia means pain, as in gastrodynia (stomach pain). -pathy refers to disease, and -otomy refers to cutting or surgical incision. 57. Which is not a sign of a disease? a) Temperature b) Swelling c) Rash d) Chest pain e) Vomiting Answer: d) Chest pain Explanation: Chest pain is a symptom (something the patient feels), whereas temperature, swelling, rash, and vomiting are signs (observable or measurable abnormalities). 58. A blood pressure of 100/50 mmHg is termed: a) Hypertension b) Normal c) Hypotension d) Hypothermia e) Bradycardia Answer: c) Hypotension Explanation: A blood pressure of 100/50 mmHg is considered low and is termed hypotension. Normal blood pressure is typically around 120/80 mmHg. 59. Systolic pressure is recorded when the: a) Heart is pumping b) Blood is returning to the heart c) Heart is contracting d) Heart is relaxing e) Ventricles are filled Answer: c) Heart is contracting Explanation: The systolic pressure is the higher number in a blood pressure reading and is recorded when the heart is contracting and pumping blood into the arteries. 60. Vital signs are: a) TPR, BP, Height, Weight b) Blood pressure and respiration c) TPR d) TPR, BP e) Breathing deeply and pulse Answer: d) TPR, BP Explanation: TPR refers to Temperature, Pulse, and Respiration, and BP stands for Blood Pressure. These are the key measurements taken to assess a patient’s vital signs. 61. Which blood cell is the most numerous? a) Platelets b) Immature red cells c) RBC d) WBC e) Immature white cell Answer: c) RBC Explanation: Red Blood Cells (RBCs) are the most numerous cells in the blood, comprising about 40-45% of the blood's volume. 62. A plasma protein not involved in coagulation is: a) Calcium b) Fibrinogen c) Prothrombin d) Factor VIII e) None of the above Answer: e) None of the above Explanation: Calcium, fibrinogen, prothrombin, and Factor VIII are all involved in the coagulation process. 63. The blood cell without a nucleus is the: a) Lymphocyte b) Neutrophil c) Eosinophil d) Monocyte e) Erythrocyte Answer: e) Erythrocyte Explanation: Mature erythrocytes (red blood cells) do not have a nucleus, allowing more space for hemoglobin to carry oxygen. 64. Anemia caused by an abnormal hemoglobin “F” molecule is: a) Aplastic anemia b) Pernicious anemia c) Thalassemia d) Sickle cell anemia e) G-6 PD deficiency anemia Answer: c) Thalassemia Explanation: Thalassemia is caused by mutations affecting hemoglobin synthesis, including hemoglobin F, which is normally present in fetal development. 65. Destruction of RBC’s with release of hemoglobin is called: a) Hemolysis b) Coagulation c) Hemorrhage d) Agglutination e) Hemostasis Answer: a) Hemolysis Explanation: Hemolysis refers to the destruction of red blood cells, releasing hemoglobin into the blood plasma. 66. Leukocytes are produced in the: a) Kidneys b) Lymphatic tissue c) Bone marrow d) Appendix e) Two of the above Answer c) Bone marrow Explanation: Leukocytes (white blood cells) are produced in the bone marrow and in some cases, like lymphocytes, they mature in lymphatic tissues. 67. Which substances are required for coagulation? a) Calcium b) Fibrinogen c) Prothrombin d) Two of the above e) Three of the above Answer: e) Three of the above Explanation: Calcium, fibrinogen, and prothrombin are all required for blood coagulation. 68. Clotted blood is obtained: a) From whole blood that has been left standing b) By using a tube without an anticoagulant c) From whole blood that has been centrifuged d) By using a tube containing an anticoagulant e) By using a green top tube Answer: b) By using a tube without an anticoagulant Explanation: A tube without an anticoagulant allows the blood to clot. 69. When setting up an ESR, make sure: a) The blood is thoroughly mixed b) That fresh blood is used c) The tube is vertical in the rack d) It is set up away from vibrations e) All of the above Answer: e) All of the above Explanation: These are all critical factors in ensuring an accurate Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) test. 70. Hematocrit measures the: a) Rate at which white cells settle b) Amount of hemoglobin in the red cells c) Number of red cells per liter of blood d) Amount of red cells relative to the amount of plasma e) Number of band cells to red cells present Answer: d) Amount of red cells relative to the amount of plasma Explanation: Hematocrit measures the proportion of blood that consists of red blood cells. 71. What type of blood is collected from a fingerprick or heelprick? a) Oxygenated blood b) Hemolysed blood c) Deoxygenated blood d) Defibrinated blood e) A mixture of tissue fluid with venous, arterial, and capillary blood Answer: e) A mixture of tissue fluid with venous, arterial, and capillary blood Explanation: A fingerprick or heelprick typically yields a mixture of blood from these sources. 72. If a needle is removed before the tourniquet during venipuncture: a) The blood will be hemolyzed b) The patient will experience pain c) The vein will collapse d) Bleeding will occur around the puncture site e) The vacuum will not be completely exhausted Answer: d) Bleeding will occur around the puncture site 73. Excessive vibration from a centrifuge during operation is due to: a) An unbalanced load b) Centrifuge is too full c) The brake is left in the on position d) Faulty wiring e) The tubes are of different sizes Answer: a) An unbalanced load Explanation: Excessive vibration in a centrifuge is typically caused by an unbalanced load. 74. While separating serum from a red top tube, the clot is disturbed. You would: a) Discard the pipette and take another one b) Do nothing — a small amount of RBC is acceptable c) Shake it well and continue to separate d) Recentrifuge the red top tube and continue the separation e) Heat the specimen to remove the clot Answer: d) Recentrifuge the red top tube and continue the separation Explanation: Recentrifuging will allow you to continue separating the serum from the red cells. 75. Which factor is NOT considered when selecting a vein for venipuncture? a) Size b) Depth c) Elasticity of vein wall d) Intensity of color e) Direction of flow Answer: d) Intensity of color Explanation: The color of the vein is not relevant; factors like size, depth, and elasticity are more important. 76. Icteric serum is: a) Milky white b) Slightly opaque c) Colorless d) Dark yellow to amber e) Reddish brown Answer: d) Dark yellow to amber Explanation: Icteric serum has a yellowish color due to increased bilirubin levels. 77. Bright red blood spurts in a pulse-like pattern into a tube during venipuncture. This indicates: a) The patient has hypertension b) The needle has punctured an artery c) The patient is in acidosis d) The patient has carbon monoxide poisoning e) A natural phenomenon in some patients Answer: b) The needle has punctured an artery Explanation: Bright red blood that spurts indicates arterial blood, which is oxygen-rich. 78. Lipemic serum may indicate: a) An old specimen b) Incorrect centrifugation c) A recent fatty meal d) Dirty glassware e) Kidney dysfunction Answer: c) A recent fatty meal Explanation: Lipemic serum often occurs due to fat from a recent meal. 79. Which factor may cause a blood smear to be too thin? a) The angle of the spreader is too high b) The edge of the spreader is cracked c) The smear is spread too slowly d) The drop of blood used is 1 mm in diameter e) A dirty spreader is used Answer: d) The drop of blood used is 1 mm in diameter Explanation: 80. The test which determines the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs is: a) CBC b) Hgb c) Differential Answer: b) Hgb Explanation: Hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells. 81. For making routine blood films, the spreader slide is held at: a) 30-35° angle b) 25-30° angle c) 40-45° angle d) 60-65° angle e) 90-95° angle Answer: c) a) 30-35° angle Explanation: The ideal angle for making blood films is around 30-35°. 82. After a blood film is made, it is: a) Allowed to air dry slowly b) Blotted lightly with absorbent paper c) Sprayed with fixative spray d) Immediately stained e) Heat fixed by passing through a flame Answer: a) Allowed to air dry slowly Explanation: Blood films should air dry slowly before staining. 83. Which test is NOT performed on citrated blood? a) Albumin b) Fibrinogen c) Factor VIII Answer: a) Albumin Explanation: Albumin is not a coagulation factor, so it is not tested with citrated blood. 84. The test that determines the number of immature RBCs is: a) Osmotic Fragility b) Leukocyte Count c) Reticulocyte Count d) Fibrin Degradation Product e) RBC Count Answer: c) Reticulocyte Count Explanation: A reticulocyte count measures the number of immature red blood cells in circulation. 85. Which test does NOT measure a patient's coagulation mechanisms? a) MCHC b) APTT c) FDP d) Platelet count Answer: a) MCHC Explanation: MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) is related to red blood cells, not coagulation. 86. A CBC does NOT include: a) Hgb b) RBC indices c) WBC count d) ESR e) Hct Answer: d) ESR Explanation: A Complete Blood Count (CBC) does not include the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR). 87. The maximum depth of puncture when performing a heel stick or fingerstick is: a) 1.5 mm b) 2.0 mm c) 2.4 mm d) 3.0 mm e) 3.5 mm Answer: c) 2.4 mm Explanation: The maximum recommended depth for a heel or finger stick is typically 2.4 mm. 88. Microhematocrits are centrifuged at: a) 2,000 rpm b) 5,000 rpm c) 10,000-12,000 rpm d) 15,000 rpm e) 20,000 rpm Answer: c) 10,000-12,000 rpm Explanation: Microhematocrit tubes are typically spun at high speeds, around 10,000-12,000 rpm. 89. Romanowsky (Wright) stains are a mixture of: a) Carbol fuschin and methanol b) Hematoxylin and eosin c) Methylene blue and eosin d) Crystal violet and iodine e) Crystal violet and safranin Answer: c) Methylene blue and eosin Explanation: Wright's stain is a Romanowsky-type stain made from methylene blue and eosin. 90. A PT is performed to monitor: a) Leukemia b) Anemia c) Anticoagulant therapy d) Hemophilia e) Thrombocytopenia Answer: c) Anticoagulant therapy Explanation: Prothrombin Time (PT) is used to monitor anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin treatment. 91. The stain used for routine differential blood smears is: a) Wright stain b) Giemsa stain c) New Methylene Blue stain d) Pap stain e) May-Grünwald stain Answer: a) Wright stain Explanation: Wright stain is the most commonly used stain for preparing differential blood smears in hematology. It is part of the Romanowsky group of stains and is ideal for distinguishing the different types of blood cells. Mix and Match 92-100 100. Synovial Fluid C & S Options: a) Hematology (Including coagulation) b) Microbiology c) Chemistry (Including RIA) d) Cytology e) Histology Correct Answer: b) Microbiology Explanation: Synovial fluid culture and sensitivity tests primarily relate to microbiologicalevaluations to detect infections or inflammation. 101. If a light blue top tube is collected and it doesn’t fill to exhaustion of the tube, you should: Options: a) Fill another blue top tube halfway and mix them together. b) Pour blood from a red top into the blue top and invert. c) Repeat the venipuncture and fill another blue top tube. d) Do nothing; submit the tube for testing. Correct Answer: c) Repeat the venipuncture and fill another blue top tube. Explanation: Light blue top tubes contain anticoagulants used for coagulation tests, and they must be filled completely for accurate results. 102. After testing serum, the blood clots are generally: Options: a) Discarded. b) Stored in the refrigerator for one to two weeks. c) Stored in the freezer. d) Kept at room temperature. Correct Answer: a) Discarded. Explanation: Clots are typically discarded after the serum is separated and tested, as they are no longer needed for further analysis. 103. A patient with a recent streptococcal throat infection would have a POSITIVE: Options: a) Monospot b) ANA c) ASOT d) RA e) EBV Correct Answer: c) ASOT Explanation: The Antistreptolysin O titer (ASOT) test is used to detect recent streptococcal infections. 104. Which test would be POSITIVE in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis? Options: a) Osmotic Fragility b) RA c) ASOT d) HIV e) Blood Group and Rh Correct Answer: b) RA Explanation: The rheumatoid factor (RA) test is often positive in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. 105. The test done to detect atypical viral pneumonia is: Options: a) Monospot b) LE Cell Prep c) Cold Agglutinins d) Blood Culture e) Paul Burnett Correct Answer: c) Cold Agglutinins Explanation: Cold agglutinins are associated with atypical pneumonia, particularly from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 106. What blood components would be transfused into a patient with severe hemorrhage? Options: a) Whole blood b) Serum c) Platelets d) WBCs e) Plasma Correct Answer: a) Whole blood Explanation: Whole blood is essential after severe hemorrhage, as it contains red blood cells, plasma, and platelets. 107. The test done to detect general autoimmune disease is: Options: a) ANA b) ASOT c) AST d) ALP e) ALT Correct Answer: a) ANA Explanation: The Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) test screens for various autoimmune diseases. 108. Which test done on cord blood will detect HDN (erythroblastosis fetalis)? Options: a) Blood Group and Rh b) Heterophile Antibody Screen c) Coomb’s Direct d) HDL Cholesterol e) Crossmatch Correct Answer: c) Coomb’s Direct Explanation: The direct Coombs test detects antibodies causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. 109. What antibodies are present in a patient with O+ blood? Options: a) Ab D (Rh Factor) b) Ab A c) Ab B d) Two of the above e) Three of the above Correct Answer: d) Two of the above Explanation: A patient with O+ blood has anti-A and anti-B antibodies but does not have anti-Rh antibodies. 110. What antigens are present in a patient with AB- blood? Options: a) Ag A b) Ag B c) Ag D (Rh Factor) d) Ag A, Ag B e) Ag A, Ag B, Ag D (Rh Factor) Correct Answer: d) Ag A, Ag B Explanation: AB- blood contains A and B antigens but lacks the Rh factor. 111. Which immunohematology test does NOT require a red top tube? Options: a) Crossmatch b) Rh factor c) Coomb’s Indirect d) Blood Group and Rh e) Coomb’s Direct Correct Answer: a) Crossmatch Explanation: A crossmatch typically requires the use of a plasma sample, often collected in a different tube type such as an EDTA or pink top tube. 112. The largest lymphatic organ in an adult is the: Options: a) Stomach b) Thymus c) Spleen d) Tonsils e) Liver Correct Answer: c) Spleen Explanation: The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ, playing a key role in filtering blood and supporting the immune system. 113. Which is NOT a routine test done for complement levels? Options: a) C3 b) C4 c) C7 d) CH50 e) Two of the above Correct Answer: c) C7 Explanation: While C3 and C4 are routinely measured to assess complement activity, C7 is less commonly tested as part of routine complement evaluation. 114. The axillary lymph nodes are found in the: Options: a) Neck b) Groin c) Armpit d) Chest e) Abdominal cavity Correct Answer: c) Armpit Explanation: The axillary lymph nodes are located in the armpit area, serving as important filters for lymphatic fluid from the upper limbs and breast. 115. An increase of lymphocytes indicates: Options: a) A viral infection b) An allergic reaction c) A bacterial infection d) An asthma attack e) A parasitic infection Correct Answer: a) A viral infection Explanation: Lymphocyte levels typically rise in response to viral infections as part of the immune response. 116. Interstitial fluid is called lymph after: Options: a) Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin b) It is filtered by the spleen c) It loses its plasma proteins d) It enters the lymphatic vessels e) It enters the circulatory system Correct Answer: d) It enters the lymphatic vessels Explanation: Once interstitial fluid enters the lymphatic vessels, it is referred to as lymph. 117. What is an example of humoral immunity? Options: a) Inflammatory response b) Phagocytosis by leukocytes c) Formation of antibodies d) Reflex action e) Production of interferon Correct Answer: c) Formation of antibodies Explanation: Humoral immunity refers to the aspect of immunity that involves antibodies produced by B cells. 118. The largest artery in the body is the: Options: a) Superior vena cava b) Iliac artery c) Aorta d) Pulmonary artery e) Carotid artery Correct Answer: c) Aorta Explanation: The aorta is the largest artery in the body, distributing oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. 119. The thick muscular layer of the heart wall is the: Options: a) Epicardium b) Pericardium c) Myocardium d) Mesocardium e) Endocardium Correct Answer: c) Myocardium Explanation: The myocardium is the thick, muscular middle layer of the heart wall responsible for contraction. 120. Blood from the pulmonary vein flows to the: Options: a) Lungs b) Right atrium c) Right ventricle d) Left atrium e) Left ventricle Correct Answer: d) Left atrium Explanation: The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. 121. Blood flowing through the mitral valve would enter the: Options: a) Right ventricle b) Left ventricle c) Lungs d) Left atrium e) Right atrium Correct Answer: b) Left ventricle Explanation: The mitral valve controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. 122. Acute chest pain radiating to the left arm is a common symptom of: Options: a) Pericarditis b) Congenital heart disease c) Bradycardia d) Myocardial infarction e) Hypotension Correct Answer: d) Myocardial infarction Explanation: This symptom is often associated with a heart attack, where pain can radiate to the left arm. 123. Oxygen and nutrients pass to tissues from the blood via the: Options: a) Lymphatic vessels b) Arteries c) Arterioles d) Capillaries e) Neurons Correct Answer: d) Capillaries Explanation: Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels where the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste occurs. 124. Fatty plaque accumulation in the blood vessels is called: Options: a) Aneurysm b) Atherosclerosis c) Arteriosclerosis d) Hypertension e) Emphysema Correct Answer: b) Atherosclerosis Explanation: Atherosclerosis refers to the buildup of fatty plaques in the arteries, which can lead to cardiovascular diseases. 125. Ischemia is: Options: a) Slower than normal clotting time b) Inadequate blood supply to tissues c) Ballooning of the arterial wall d) A dead area of tissue e) Pain in the heart muscle Correct Answer: b) Inadequate blood supply to tissues Explanation: Ischemia refers to insufficient blood flow to a tissue, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients. 126. Fasting is required for all tests EXCEPT: Options: a) Total cholesterol b) FBS (Fasting Blood Sugar) c) Total protein d) Lipoprotein electrophoresis e) Triglycerides Correct Answer: c) Total protein Explanation: Total protein tests do not require fasting as they measure the total protein levels in the blood. 127. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood? Options: a) Pulmonary artery b) Pulmonary vein c) Hepatic vein d) Brachial vein e) Jugular vein Correct Answer: b) Pulmonary vein Explanation: The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. 128. Increased risk of coronary artery disease is found with low levels of: Options: a) Cholesterol b) LDL c) HDL d) Triglycerides e) Total lipids Correct Answer: c) HDL Explanation: Low levels of HDL (high-density lipoprotein) cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. 129. The LD isoenzymes which are elevated in acute myocardial infarction are: Options: a) LD1 and LD2 b) LD2 and LD3 c) LD3 and LD4 d) LD4 and LD5 e) All isoenzymes are elevated Correct Answer: a) LD1 and LD2 Explanation: In acute myocardial infarction, the isoenzymes LD1 and LD2 are typically elevated. 130. The CK isoenzyme which is elevated in acute myocardial infarction is: Options: a) CK-MB b) CK-MM c) CK-BB d) None of the above e) All isoenzymes are elevated Correct Answer: a) CK-MB Explanation: CK-MB is the isoenzyme primarily elevated in cases of acute myocardial infarction. 131. The piece of conduction tissue which sets the pace of the heart is the: Options: a) SA node b) AV node c) Bundle of His d) Bundle branches e) Purkinje fibers Correct Answer: a) SA node Explanation: The SA (sinoatrial) node is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart. 132. Impulses are conducted through the ventricular myocardium by the: Options: a) AV node b) Purkinje fibers c) SA node d) Bundle of His e) Chordae tendineae Correct Answer: b) Purkinje fibers Explanation: Purkinje fibers are specialized fibers that conduct impulses rapidly through the ventricular myocardium. 133. Normal standardization on an ECG is: Options: a) 10 mm wide b) 1 mm high c) 5 mm high d) 10 mm high e) 5 mm wide Correct Answer: d) 10 mm high Explanation: On an ECG, normal standardization is typically set at 10 mm high for a standard deflection. 134. Electrocardiograms are normally run at: Options: a) 50 mm/second b) Sensitivity 1/2 c) Standard 2 d) Temperature 150°C e) 25 mm/second Correct Answer: e) 25 mm/second Explanation: Standard practice for recording ECGs is to run them at a speed of 25 mm/second, which allows for accurate representation of heart rhythms. 135. A patient’s chest leads have very large QRS peaks, you would: Options: a) Record another standard. b) Reconnect the ground level. c) Record the lead at 2X standard. d) Record the lead at 1/2 standard. e) Recenter the baseline. Correct Answer: d) Record the lead at 1/2 standard. Explanation: Very large QRS peaks may indicate a need to decrease the gain to accurately capture the signals without distortion. 136. The horizontal axis on an ECG tracing represents: Options: a) Amplitude b) Time c) Voltage d) Distance e) Contractions Correct Answer: b) Time Explanation: The horizontal axis on an ECG represents time, typically in seconds or milliseconds. 137. Which lead is used for a rhythm strip? Options: a) I b) V2 c) Lead II d) V1 e) All chest leads Correct Answer: c) Lead II Explanation: Lead II is commonly used for rhythm strips to monitor heart rhythms effectively. 138. Which electrode is a reference electrode? Options: a) Right leg b) Right arm c) Internal electrode d) Left leg e) Left arm Correct Answer: a) Right leg Explanation: The right leg electrode serves as a reference point for other leads in an ECG setup. 139. The time from the start of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization is the: Options: a) P wave b) QRS complex c) PR interval d) QT interval e) ST segment Correct Answer: c) PR interval Explanation: The PR interval measures the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization (P wave) to the beginning of ventricular depolarization (QRS complex). 140. Which lead shows an inverted QRS complex? Options: a) I b) II c) III d) AVR e) None of the above Correct Answer: d) AVR Explanation: In certain conditions, lead AVR can show an inverted QRS complex due to the position of the heart or specific pathologies. 141. Where is chest lead V5 located? Options: a) Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum. b) Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line. c) Halfway between V2 and V4. d) Horizontal level of V2 to the right of the sternum. e) Fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. Correct Answer: b) Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line. Explanation: V5 is positioned at the fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line. 142. Which ECG artifact appears as small consistently spiked lines? Options: a) Arm lead wires reversed b) Wandering baseline c) Muscle artifact d) Alternating current e) Electrode falling off Correct Answer: d) Alternating current Explanation: Alternating current interference appears as small, consistent spikes on the ECG tracing. 143. In a 6-second strip, 8 cardiac cycles are observed. The heart rate is: Options: a) 36 bpm b) 48 bpm c) 64 bpm d) 80 bpm e) Unable to calculate Correct Answer: d) 80 bpm Explanation: Heart rate can be calculated as (number of cycles in 6 seconds) × 10. So, 8 × 10 = 80 bpm. 144. The QT interval is 9 mm long (9 small squares). The QT interval is: Options: a) 0.09 seconds b) 0.36 seconds c) 36 seconds d) 8.1 seconds e) Unable to calculate Correct Answer: b) 0.36 seconds Explanation: Each small square represents 0.04 seconds, so 9 small squares equal 0.36 seconds (9 × 0.04 = 0.36). 145. A condition commonly expected in athletes is: Options: a) Aortic stenosis b) Hypertension c) Valvular incompetence d) Bradycardia e) Heart murmur Correct Answer: d) Bradycardia Explanation: Athletes often have bradycardia due to increased vagal tone and efficient heart function. 146. Which arrhythmia is most likely to be fatal? Options: a) Sinus tachycardia b) A cardiac cycle which lasts 0.8 seconds c) A heart rate of 68 bpm d) Ventricular fibrillation e) Sinus bradycardia Correct Answer: d) Ventricular fibrillation Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening condition that can lead to cardiac arrest. 147. Which equipment is not needed to hook up a Holter monitor? Options: a) Alcohol swabs b) Electrolyte cream c) Razor d) Disposable electrodes e) Audiocassette Correct Answer: b) Electrolyte cream Explanation: 148. Which Holter monitor equipment may be reused? Options: a) Audiocassette b) 9 volt battery c) Electrodes d) Patient diary e) None of the above may be reused Correct Answer: e) None of the above may be reused Explanation: Holter monitor equipment, especially electrodes, are typically single-use to prevent infection. 149. The Holter hook-up consists of how many electrodes? Options: a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 e) 7 Correct Answer: d) 5 Explanation: A standard Holter monitor typically uses 5 electrodes for effective monitoring. 150. A patient undergoing a Holter monitor test should avoid: Options: a) Using an electric blanket b) Strenuous physical exercise c) Emotional stress d) Walking up stairs e) All of the above Correct Answer: a) Using an electric blanket Explanation: 151. EDTA prevents blood clotting by binding: Options: a) Albumin b) Prothrombin c) Fibrinogen d) Calcium ions e) Potassium ions Correct Answer: d) Calcium ions Explanation: EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) acts as an anticoagulant by chelating calcium ions, which are essential for the coagulation cascade. 152. The anticoagulant in a green top vacutainer is: Options: a) Sodium citrate b) Heparin c) Sodium fluoride d) Potassium oxalate e) EDTA Correct Answer: b) Heparin Explanation: Green top vacutainers contain heparin, which inhibits thrombin and prevents blood from clotting. 153. A gray top microtainer must be filled: Options: a) To the top b) To the 500 µL mark c) Between 250 µL and 500 µL d) To the 250 µL mark e) Until the patient clots Correct Answer: c) Between 250 µL and 500 µL Explanation: Gray top microtainers are used for glucose testing and must be filled to the 250 µL 500 µL to mark to ensure accurate results. 154. Diseases of the Digestive System include: Options: a) Emphysema, hepatitis A b) Rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn’s disease c) Colorectal cancer, pneumonia d) Gastroenteritis, duodenal ulcers e) Cholecystitis, tonsillitis Correct Answer: d) Gastroenteritis, duodenal ulcers Explanation: Gastroenteritis and duodenal ulcers are direct diseases of the digestive system, while the others listed involve different systems. 155. The liver does NOT: Options: a) Break down old and damaged RBCs b) Store bile c) Store certain fat-soluble vitamins d) Detoxify drugs and poisons e) Store iron in the form of ferritin Correct Answer: b) Store bile Explanation: The liver produces bile, but it is stored in the gallbladder, not directly within the liver itself. 156. The structure between the appendix and the ascending colon is the: Options: a) Descending colon b) Cecum c) Ileum d) Rectum e) Duodenum Correct Answer: b) Cecum Explanation: The cecum is the first part of the large intestine and connects to the appendix. 157. The end products of carbohydrate digestion are: Options: a) Cholesterol b) Glycerol c) Monosaccharides d) Amino acids e) Triglycerides Correct Answer: c) Monosaccharides Explanation: Carbohydrate digestion breaks down polysaccharides into monosaccharides (like glucose) for absorption. 158. Which enzyme does not digest carbohydrates? Options: a) Maltase b) Amylase c) Peptidase d) Lactase e) Sucrase Correct Answer: c) Peptidase Explanation: Peptidase is an enzyme that digests proteins, not carbohydrates. 159. Protein digestion begins in the: Options: a) Mouth b) Esophagus c) Stomach d) Liver e) Duodenum Correct Answer: c) Stomach Explanation: Protein digestion begins in the stomach with the action of gastric juices and pepsin. 160. Lipid digestion begins in the: Options: a) Mouth b) Esophagus c) Stomach d) Liver e) Duodenum Correct Answer: e) Duodenum Explanation: Lipid digestion begins in the duodenum and ends in duodenum 161. Which is NOT a liver function test? Options: a) Albumin b) ALP c) CK d) Bilirubin Correct Answer: c) CK Explanation: Creatine kinase (CK) is a muscle enzyme, not specific to liver function. 162. Which test needs to be protected from light? Options: a) AST b) Lipase c) Bilirubin d) Amylase e) Glucose Correct Answer: c) Bilirubin Explanation: Bilirubin is photosensitive and must be protected from light to prevent degradation. 163. A high amylase and lipase result may indicate: Options: a) Stroke b) Myocardial infarction c) Heartburn d) Acute pancreatitis e) Dysentery Correct Answer: d) Acute pancreatitis Explanation: Elevated levels of amylase and lipase are indicative of pancreatitis. 164. Testing to detect a bleeding gastric ulcer would include: Options: a) Fecal fats b) Barium swallow c) Occult blood d) Barium enema e) Two of the above Correct Answer: e) Two of the above Explanation: Occult blood tests detect hidden blood in the stool, which can indicate bleeding from a gastric ulcer and can be confirmed with Barium swallow test. Mix and Match 165-168 169. A transport medium functions to: Options: a) Keep the organisms at a proper temperature b) Preserve the organisms and prevent drying out c) Provide nutrients so the organisms grow d) Absorb any toxins present e) Prevent the growth of normal flora Correct Answer: b) Preserve the organisms and prevent drying out Explanation: A transport medium is designed to preserve specimens during transport while preventing desiccation (drying out) and maintaining viability. 170. Activated charcoal in transport media will: a) Keep the organisms at a proper temperature b) Preserve the organisms and prevent drying out c) Provide nutrients so the organisms grow d) Absorb any toxins present e) Prevent the growth of normal flora Correct Answer: d) Absorb any toxins present Explanation: Activated charcoal in transport media helps absorb toxins that could inhibit the growth of pathogens during transport. 171. This microorganism causes boils, TSS, and wound infections: a) Salmonella species b) Strep. species c) Staph. aureus d) Clostridium botulinum Correct Answer: c) Staph. aureus Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of skin infections such as boils and is also linked to toxic shock syndrome (TSS) and wound infections. 172. Which culture medium is enriched? a) Blood agar b) Chocolate agar c) Thayer Martin agar d) S/S agar e) MacConkey agar Correct Answer: b) Chocolate agar Explanation: Chocolate agar is an enriched medium used to grow fastidious organisms, especially Haemophilus and Neisseria species. 173. An organism which is Gram-negative will appear: a) Orange/yellow b) Pink/red c) Lavender/violet d) Purple/blue e) Green/yellow Correct Answer: b) Pink/red Explanation: Gram-negative bacteria appear pink or red after a Gram stain due to their thinner peptidoglycan layer, which does not retain the crystal violet stain. 174. Petri plates are incubated upside down to prevent: a) An overgrowth of motile pathogens b) Moisture from condensing on the medium c) Drying of the medium d) Contamination by other Petri plates e) Gas bubbles from escaping Correct Answer: b) Moisture from condensing on the medium Explanation: Incubating Petri plates upside down prevents condensation from forming on the agar surface, which could disrupt the growth of microorganisms. 175. Throat swabs are collected to diagnose: a) Herpes b) Oral gangrene c) Streptococcal infection d) Typhoid fever e) Gastroenteritis Correct Answer: c) Streptococcal infection Explanation: Throat swabs are commonly used to test for Streptococcus bacteria, which cause strep throat and other related infections. 176. Identify the FALSE statement when collecting blood cultures: a) This is done to detect septicemia. b) The specimens are collected before any other tubes. c) The site is cleansed as for a normal venipuncture. d) Collect two tubes and label "aerobic" and “anaerobic". e) The tubes are not refrigerated. Correct Answer: c) The site is cleansed as for a normal venipuncture. Explanation: Blood culture collection requires more stringent cleaning procedures to avoid contamination, such as using alcohol and iodine, not just the normal venipuncture prep. 177. When collecting specimens for C & S, the patient should: a) Fast for 12-14 hours b) Be off antibiotics for several days prior to collection c) Have all x-rays done prior to collection d) Come to the laboratory first thing in the morning e) Follow any necessary dietary restrictions Correct Answer: b) Be off antibiotics for several days prior to collection Explanation: To get accurate culture results, the patient should be off antibiotics for several days before the specimen is collected, as antibiotics could inhibit bacterial growth. 178. Which piece of equipment would NOT create anaerobiasis or increased CO₂ tension? a) Candle jar b) Fume hood c) CO₂ incubator d) Gas pack e) Glove box Correct Answer: b) Fume hood Explanation: A fume hood does not create anaerobic conditions or increase CO₂ tension; it is used to vent hazardous fumes from the laboratory environment. 179. When heat-fixing a bacterial smear, it is necessary to: a) Fix before the smear is dry b) Avoid overheating, which will cause cell distortion c) Hold the slide in the flame for several seconds d) Spray the slide with Cytospray prior to heating e) Mix the smear with hypochlorite to kill pathogens Correct Answer: b) Avoid overheating, which will cause cell distortion Explanation: Heat fixing a bacterial smear should be done carefully to avoid overheating, which can distort the shape of the bacterial cells. 180. When an agar plate is streaked correctly, the final result is: a) A pure culture b) Individual colonies c) No growth of pathogens d) Dense growth which covers the plate e) A contaminated specimen Correct Answer: b) Individual colonies Explanation: Proper streaking of an agar plate results in the separation of bacteria into individual colonies, which helps identify pure cultures for testing. 181. Bacterial cultures are incubated at: a) 4°C b) 8°C c) 21°C d) 37°C e) 45°C Correct Answer: d) 37°C Explanation: Most bacterial cultures, including those of human pathogens, are incubated at 37°C, which is the normal body temperature, as it supports optimal growth for these organisms. 182. Stains acid-fast bacilli: a) Inoculation b) Lugol's Iodine c) Anaerobic incubation d) Skin scraping e) Ziehl-Neelsen Correct Answer: e) Ziehl-Neelsen Explanation: The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to identify acid-fast bacilli, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, by staining the cells bright red against a blue background. 183. Stains fecal ova & parasites: a) Inoculation b) Lugol’s Iodine c) Anaerobic incubation d) Skin scraping e) Ziehl-Neelsen Correct Answer: b) Lugol's Iodine Explanation: Lugol’s Iodine is used as a staining reagent to visualize the internal structures of parasites and ova in fecal samples. 184. Collects cutaneous mycoses: a) Inoculation b) Lugol’s Iodine c) Anaerobic incubation d) Skin scraping e) Ziehl-Neelsen Correct Answer: d) Skin scraping Explanation: Skin scrapings are collected to diagnose cutaneous mycoses, such as fungal infections like ringworm. These are examined under the microscope or cultured. 185. Which body fluid is prepared manually for cytology? (i.e., not by Cytospin): a) Breast fluid b) Synovial fluid c) Urine d) Pleural fluid e) Gastric fluid Correct Answer: b) Synovial fluid Explanation: Synovial fluid specimens for cytology are prepared manually as it is thick fluid 186. How are breast fluids preserved? a) Breast fluids are not preserved; they are done STAT. b) Freeze overnight. c) Keep at room temperature. d) Add an equal volume of alcohol and refrigerate. e) Add Cytospray to the container. Correct Answer: d) Add an equal volume of alcohol and refrigerate Explanation: The preservative for cytology fluids is 95% ethanol. 187. Smears for cytology are fixed with: a) 10% formalin b) Toluene c) Xylene d) 95% ethanol/Cytospray e) 100% formalin Correct Answer: d) 95% ethanol/Cytospray Explanation: Cytology smears are typically fixed using 95% ethanol or Cytospray to preserve the cellular structure for microscopic evaluation. 188. The stain used for routine cytology specimens is: a) Gram stain b) H & E stain c) Wright stain d) Methylene Blue stain e) Pap stain Correct Answer: e) Pap stain Explanation: The Papanicolaou (Pap) stain is the standard stain used for cytological evaluation, especially for detecting abnormal cells in Pap smears. 189. Harris hematoxylin stains a cell’s: a) Centrioles b) Nucleus c) Membrane d) WBCs e) Ribosomes Correct Answer: b) Nucleus Explanation: Harris hematoxylin is used in histology to stain the nuclei of cells a deep blue/purple, allowing for the observation of nuclear detail. 190. Dehydration in tissue processing is the: a) Addition of calcium b) Removal of calcium c) Addition of water d) Removal of water e) Storage of water Correct Answer: d) Removal of water Explanation: During tissue processing, dehydration is the removal of water from the tissue by passing it through increasing concentrations of alcohol, preparing it for embedding in paraffin. 191. What is the purpose of fixing a specimen for histology? a) To cause the cells to shrink and harden. b) To prevent the cells from being washed off the slide. c) To make them visible for microscope viewing. d) To remove any water present in the cells. e) To prevent autolysis and putrefaction. Correct Answer: e) To prevent autolysis and putrefaction. Explanation: Fixation halts autolysis (self-digestion) and putrefaction (decay by bacteria), preserving the structure of the cells for microscopic examination. 192. Which statement is FALSE regarding the routine fixative used in histology? a) The universal fixative is 10% formalin. b) Formalin can be made by dissolving formaldehyde gas in water. c) The pH is kept constant by using a phosphate buffer. d) The solution is only harmful if swallowed. e) All work should be done in a well-ventilated area. Correct Answer: d) The solution is only harmful if swallowed. Explanation: Formalin is harmful not only if swallowed but also by inhalation or skin contact. Proper safety measures should always be observed. 193. Which factor would increase tissue processing time? a) Gentle heat b) Dense tissue c) Gentle agitation d) Vacuum apparatus e) Porous tissue Correct Answer: b) Dense tissue Explanation: Dense tissues take longer to process because the reagents (such as fixatives and dehydrants) penetrate them more slowly. 194. During dehydration of tissue, the reagent used after 85% alcohol is: a) 70% alcohol b) Xylene c) 95% alcohol d) Distilled water e) 80% alcohol Correct Answer: c) 95% alcohol Explanation: After 85% alcohol, tissues are usually passed through 95% alcohol during dehydration to continue the process of removing water from the tissue. 195. The piece of equipment which cuts thin slices of tissue from the tissue block is: a) Scalpel b) Rotary microtome c) Automatic tissue processor d) Cassette e) Metal base mold Correct Answer: b) Rotary microtome Explanation: A rotary microtome is used to cut thin sections of tissue embedded in paraffin for examination under the microscope. 196. Which specimen would NOT be sent to the histology department? a) Placenta b) Breast biopsy c) Buccal scraping d) Ruptured appendix e) Cervical tumor Correct Answer: c) Buccal scraping Explanation: Buccal scrapings are typically sent to cytology, not histology, as they are examined for cellular detail rather than tissue architecture. 197. Which reagent is NOT used as a fixative in histology? a) Zenker’s fluid b) EDTA c) Formalin d) Two of the above Correct Answer: b) EDTA Explanation: EDTA is not a fixative; it is used as an anticoagulant in blood collection tubes. Zenker’s fluid and formalin are common fixatives in histology. For questions 198-202, match the reagent used for the specific histology proces 202. Embeds tissue samples after processing: a) Permount b) Paraffin c) Xylene d) H & E e) Ethanol Answer: b) Paraffin Explanation: Paraffin is commonly used to embed tissue samples after processing in histology. It helps create a solid block from which thin tissue sections can be sliced for microscopic analysis. 203. Which structure is NOT part of the respiratory system? a) Epiglottis b) Larynx c) Alveoli d) Esophagus e) Pharynx Answer: d) Esophagus Explanation: The esophagus is part of the digestive system, not the respiratory system. It is a tube that carries food from the throat to the stomach. 204. Which is NOT a disease of the respiratory system? a) Emphysema b) Tuberculosis c) Asthma d) Angina pectoralis e) Epistaxis Answer: d) Angina pectoralis Explanation: Angina pectoralis is related to the heart and involves chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscles. It is not a respiratory disease. 205. The volume of air exhaled forcefully after maximum inhalation is: a) VC b) FVC c) TLC d) VT e) FEV1 Answer: b) FVC (Forced Vital Capacity) Explanation: FVC is the total volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after taking the deepest breath possible. It’s an important measure in lung function tests. 206. The volume of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing is: a) VC b) FVC c) TLC d) VT e) FEV1 Answer: d) VT (Tidal Volume) Explanation: Tidal volume (VT) is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a regular breathing cycle. It represents the normal, quiet breathing pattern. 207. One respiration is: a) A contraction b) A relaxation c) One inhalation and one exhalation d) Exhaling as fast and as hard as possible e) Total lung capacity Answer: c) One inhalation and one exhalation Explanation: Respiration is the process of one complete breath, including one inhalation and one exhalation. This is a standard cycle of breathing. 208. During inhalation, air leaving the bronchi will next enter the: a) Trachea b) Pharynx c) Alveoli d) Bronchioles Answer: d) Bronchioles Explanation: After passing through the bronchi, the air moves into smaller airways called bronchioles, which then lead to the alveoli for gas exchange. 209. Which is important when performing spirometry? a) Height of the patient b) Age of the patient c) Sex of the patient d) Weight of the patient e) All of the above Answer: e) All of the above Explanation: Spirometry results can be affected by several patient factors, including height, age, sex, and weight. These factors are essential in predicting normal lung volumes. 210. Which factor will cause inaccurate spirometry results? a) Patient sits with legs crossed b) Spirometer is not calibrated correctly c) Patient allows air to escape from nose during the process d) Not blowing out as hard and as long as possible e) All of the above Answer: e) All of the above Explanation: All these factors can affect the accuracy of spirometry results. Proper technique and calibration are critical to ensure reliable lung function measurements. 211. A routine GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test): a) Uses 50g load of glucose b) Is four hours long c) Consists of six blood and urine samples d) Is two hours long e) Will diagnose hypoglycemia Answer: d) Is two hours long Explanation: A routine glucose tolerance test typically lasts two hours, during which blood glucose levels are measured at specific intervals after administering a glucose solution. 212. A GTT on a pregnant female is done: a) as a routine GTT b) with 100g load glucose c) with 50g load glucose d) with 75g load glucose e) with 1.75g per kg of body weight Answer: c) with 50g load glucose Explanation: The glucose tolerance test (GTT) for pregnant women typically uses a 50g glucose load, especially during screening for gestational diabetes. 213. Lactose tolerance test is done to diagnose: a) malabsorption b) diabetes c) high blood pressure d) intolerance to milk sugar e) two of the above Answer: d) intolerance to milk sugar Explanation: The lactose tolerance test primarily diagnoses lactose intolerance (milk sugar intolerance) 214. What test determines a patient’s glucose level in preceding months: a) GTT b) Hgb A1C c) 2hr. pc d) random glucose e) none of the above Answer: b) Hgb A1C Explanation: The Hemoglobin A1C test reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2 to 3 months. 215. Creatinine Clearance is a test to assess: a) liver function b) bowel function c) kidney function d) brain function e) total fluid content of the body Answer: c) kidney function Explanation: Creatinine clearance tests evaluate kidney function by measuring the rate at which creatinine is removed from the blood by the kidneys. 216. Electrolytes do not regulate: a) muscle function b) protein balance c) acid-base balance d) nerve function e) cardiac function Answer: b) protein balance Explanation: While electrolytes play a crucial role in many bodily functions, they do not directly regulate protein balance. 217. Which test requires the serum to be acidified after separation? a) acid phosphatase b) uric acid c) bilirubin d) amylase e) blood gases Answer: a) acid phosphatase Explanation: Acid phosphatase levels are affected by pH, so the serum must be acidified after separation for accurate results. 218. Multiply 1.85 x 2.674. Report the answer to the correct significance: a) 5 b) 4.9 c) 4.95 d) 4.9469 e) 5.0000 Answer: c) 4.95 Explanation: The answer should be reported to three significant figures, which is 4.95. 219. A control solution reads differently every time it is being repeated. What kind of a problem is this? a) an accuracy problem b) a precision problem c) a control value problem d) no problem e) a & b Answer: b) a precision problem Explanation: If the readings vary each time, it indicates a precision problem, suggesting inconsistencies in the measurement process. 220. A serum is diluted 1/4 and then tested for electrolytes. The result is 7.2 mmol/L. What result will you report to the doctor? a) 28.8 mmol/L b) 7.2 mmol/L c) 288 mmol/L d) 1.8 mmol/L e) 11.2 mmol/L Answer: a) 28.8 mmol/L Explanation: Since the serum is diluted 1/4, the reported value should be multiplied by 4 (7.2 mmol/L x 4 = 28.8 mmol/L). 221. A pH of 1 is than a pH of: a) 3 times more acidic b) 30 times more acidic c) 30 times less acidic d) 1000 times more acidic e) 100 times less alkaline Answer: d) 1000 times more acidic Explanation: pH is logarithmic; each whole number change represents a tenfold change in acidity or alkalinity. A pH of 1 is 10^3 (or 1000) times more acidic than a pH of 4. 222. Express 0.02345 in scientific notation: a) 0.02345 x 10^4 b) 2.345 x 10^-2 c) 2.3 x 10^2 d) 2.35 x 10^3 e) 234.5 x 10^-5 Answer: b) 2.345 x 10^-2 Explanation: In scientific notation, 0.02345 is expressed as 2.345×10−22.345 \times 10^{-2}2.345×10−2. 223. 0.37 µL is equal to: a) 37 x b) 3.7 x c) 3.70 x 10^-1 d) 3.7 x 10^-1 e) 3.7 x 10^-2 Answer: d) 3.7 x 10^-1 Explanation: 0.37 µL can be expressed as 3.7×10−13.7 \times 10^{-1}3.7×10−1 µL. 224. A patient weighs 65.7 kg. This is equal to: a) 144.54 lbs b) 61.9 lbs c) 29.86 lbs d) 29.9 lbs e) 131.4 lbs Answer: a) 144.54 lbs Explanation: To convert kilograms to pounds, multiply by 2.20462 (65.7 kg x 2.20462 ≈ 144.54 lbs). 225. To prepare 600 ml of a 5% solution from a 20% stock, you will use: a) 140 ml b) 150 ml c) 160 ml d) 240 ml e) 250 ml Answer: c) 150 ml Explanation: To find the volume of 20% solution needed, use the dilution formula: C1V1=C2V2C_1V_1 = C_2V_2C1V1=C2V2. Here, C1=20%C_1 = 20\%C1=20%, C2=5%C_2 = 5\%C2=5%, V2=600V_2 = 600V2=600 ml. Solving gives V1=150V_1 = 150V1=150 ml. 226. Which is not an organ of the urinary system? a) kidneys b) ureters c) urinary bladder d) prostate e) urethra Answer: d) prostate Explanation: The prostate is not part of the urinary system; it is part of the male reproductive system. 227. The functional unit of the kidney is the: a) glomerulus b) nephron c) bladder d) cortex e) neuron Answer: b) nephron Explanation: The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and forming urine. 228. Tubular secretion primarily occurs in the: a) loop of Henle b) Bowman’s capsule c) glomerulus d) proximal convoluted tubule e) distal convoluted tubule Answer: e) distal convoluted tubule Explanation: Tubular secretion mainly occurs in the distal convoluted tubule, where substances are secreted into the filtrate. 229. The hormone which is produced by the adrenal cortex is: a) ACTH b) PTH c) ADH d) TSH e) Cortisol Answer: e) Cortisol Explanation: Cortisol is a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex and is involved in metabolism and stress response. 230. Which part of the physical examination of urine is not normally reported? a) color b) odor c) turbidity d) specific gravity e) pH Answer: b) odor Explanation: While color, turbidity, specific gravity, and pH are standard measures, odor may not always be routinely reported unless abnormal. 231. A dark yellow urine indicates: a) bile pigments or bilirubin b) bleeding in the urinary tract c) methylene drugs d) large amounts of glucose e) bacteria Answer: a) bile pigments or bilirubin Explanation: Dark yellow urine often suggests the presence of bile pigments or bilirubin, indicating possible liver or biliary issues. 232. Specific gravity compares the weight of urine to an equal volume of: a) normal urine b) physiological saline c) serum d) distilled water e) plasma Answer: d) distilled water Explanation: Specific gravity is a measure of urine's density compared to that of distilled water. 233. Urine from a patient with Diabetes Insipidus will have a: a) very low SG b) very high SG c) normal SG d) dark yellow color e) green color Answer: a) very low SG Explanation: Diabetes Insipidus leads to dilute urine, resulting in a very low specific gravity (SG). 234. How are commercial urinalysis reagent strips stored? a) Refrigerated at 4 °C. b) In a cabinet near the autoclave. c) On the window ledge near the urinalysis bench. d) In a cabinet near the urinalysis bench. e) Near the sink where urinalysis is done. Answer: d) In a cabinet near the urinalysis bench. Explanation: Urinalysis reagent strips should be stored in a cool, dry place, usually near the testing area to avoid moisture and temperature fluctuations. 235. Which statement is true regarding the use of a urinalysis reagent strip? a) Use urine that is right out of the refrigerator. b) After dipping strip, run the edge against the rim of the specimen container. c) Hold the strip vertically when reading. d) Wait the maximum amount of time specified before reading the strip. e) Urine should be allowed to settle before testing. Answer: b) After dipping strip, run the edge against the rim of the specimen container. Explanation: This prevents excess urine from running down the strip and affecting the results. 236. Which is the most important indicator of renal disease? a) Proteinuria b) Glycosuria c) Ketones d) Bilirubinuria e) Hematuria Answer: a) Proteinuria Explanation: Proteinuria is a key indicator of renal disease and kidney dysfunction. 237. The 'pass through' phenomenon is associated with: a) Acetest b) Clinitest c) Ictotest d) SSA test e) TCA test Answer: b) Clinitest Explanation: The "pass through" phenomenon in the Clinitest can occur with high concentrations of glucose. 238. Acetest is a back-up test which detects: a) nitrites b) bilirubin c) protein d) ketones e) glucose, lactose, galactose, pentose Answer: d) ketones Explanation: Acetest specifically detects ketones in urine. 239. Ictotest is a back-up test which detects: a) glucose b) bilirubin c) ketones d) nitrites Answer: b) bilirubin Explanation: Ictotest is used to confirm the presence of bilirubin in urine. 240. Clinitest is a back-up test which detects: a) glucose b) bilirubin c) protein d) ketones e) glucose, lactose, galactose, pentose Answer: e) glucose, lactose, galactose, pentose Explanation: Clinitest can detect various reducing sugars, including glucose, lactose, and galactose. 241. In urine standing at room temperature for long periods of time, leukocytes: a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same d) are converted to erythrocytes e) are converted to casts Answer: b) decrease Explanation: Leukocytes can break down or become inactive over time if urine is left standing. 242. A daily output of 400 ml of urine is: a) anuria b) hematuria c) polyuria d) oliguria e) normal Answer: d) oliguria Explanation: Oliguria is defined as urine output of less than 500 ml per day. 243. Which chemical is decreased in urine because of exposure to light? a) leukocytes b) bilirubin c) ketones d) urobilinogen e) two of the above Answer: b) bilirubin Explanation: Bilirubin degrades when exposed to light. 244. A urine is positive for leukocytes, nitrites, and blood. You would NOT see under the microscope: a) erythrocytes b) bacteria c) hyaline casts d) mucus e) white blood cells Answer: c) hyaline casts Explanation: Hyaline casts are not typically associated with the presence of leukocytes, nitrites, or blood in urine. 245. Which structure is NOT part of the Central Nervous System? a) spinal cord b) brainstem c) spinal nerves d) brain e) cerebellum Answer: c) spinal nerves Explanation: Spinal nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system, not the central nervous system. 246. The part of the nervous system that is made of the spinal and cranial nerves is the: a) central nervous system b) peripheral nervous system c) autonomic nervous system d) sympathetic nervous system e) parasympathetic nervous system Answer: b) peripheral nervous system Explanation: The peripheral nervous system includes all nerves outside the central nervous system (CNS). 247. Which hormone is NOT secreted from the pituitary gland? a) FSH b) Oxytocin c) Insulin d) ADH e) GH Answer: c) Insulin Explanation: Insulin is secreted by the pancreas, not the pituitary gland. 248. The target tissue for prolactin is the: a) testes b) mammary glands c) corpus luteum d) adrenal cortex e) anterior pituitary gland Answer: b) mammary glands Explanation: Prolactin primarily targets the mammary glands, stimulating milk production. 249. The hormone which stimulates the adrenal cortex is: a) cortisol b) ADH c) ACTH d) aldosterone e) FSH Answer: c) ACTH Explanation: Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol and other hormones. 250. The thyroid gland secretes: a) thymosin b) T3 c) TSH d) T4 e) Two of the above Answer: e) Two of the above Explanation: The thyroid gland secretes T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine). 251. Diabetes mellitus is caused by hyposecretion of: a) ADH b) aldosterone c) ANH d) insulin Answer: d) insulin Explanation: Diabetes mellitus is primarily caused by inadequate insulin secretion or action. 252. _________ is necessary to make thyroid hormones: a) Vitamin D b) iron c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin B12 e) Iodine Answer: e) Iodine Explanation: Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. 253. Epinephrine: a) slows down metabolism b) speeds up metabolism c) is secreted by the adrenal cortex d) decreases blood pressure e) constricts the pupils of the eye Answer: b) speeds up metabolism Explanation: Epinephrine increases metabolism and energy availability during stress. 254. Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): a) increases blood calcium b) decreases metabolism c) increases metabolism d) decreases glucose e) increases glucose Answer: a) increases blood calcium Explanation: PTH increases blood calcium levels by promoting calcium release from bones and increasing absorption in the intestines and kidneys. 255. Hypersecretion of GH in adults causes: a) Gigantism b)Acromegaly c) Cretinism d) Cushings Syndrome e) Diabetes Inspidus Answer: b) Acromegaly Explanation: Hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults leads to acromegaly, characterized by abnormal growth of bones and tissues, particularly in the hands, feet, and face. In contrast, gigantism occurs in children before the growth plates have closed. 256. Blood hormones are tested in: a) Cytology b) Immunology c) Chemistry/RIA d) Immunohematology e) Public Health Lab Answer: c) Chemistry/RIA Explanation: Blood hormones are commonly tested using Radioimmunoassay (RIA) or in chemistry labs, which specialize in hormone and other biochemical analyses. 257. Urine hormones are tested in: a) Chemistry/RIA b) Immunology c) Cytology d) Immunohematology e) Public Health Lab Answer: a) Chemistry/RIA Explanation: Similar to blood hormones, urine hormones are typically tested using techniques like RIA in chemistry labs. 258. The target tissue of insulin is: a) Adrenal cortex b) Liver c) Kidneys d) Thyroid e) Gonads Answer: b) Liver Explanation: Insulin primarily targets the liver, muscle, and fat tissues to regulate glucose metabolism by facilitating glucose uptake. 259. Which is NOT a urine test for adrenal cortex function? a) 17-KS b) VMA c) 17-OH d) Cortisol e) Aldosterone Answer: b) VMA Explanation: VMA (Vanillylmandelic Acid) is a test for catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline) and is associated with pheochromocytoma, not directly with adrenal cortex function. 260. The adrenal glands are located: a) At the base of the brain b) On top of the kidneys c) In the neck d) Within the thyroid gland e) In the mediastinum Answer: b) On top of the kidneys Explanation: The adrenal glands sit atop each kidney and are responsible for producing hormones like cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenaline. 261. Testosterone is produced in the: a) Seminiferous tubules b) Epididymis c) Prostate gland d) Interstitial cells e) Seminal vesicles Answer: d) Interstitial cells Explanation: Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells (interstitial cells) in the testes. 262. Sperm cells are produced in the: a) Seminiferous tubules b) Epididymis c) Prostate gland d) Interstitial cells e) Seminal vesicles Answer: a) Seminiferous tubules Explanation: Sperm production (spermatogenesis) takes place in the seminiferous tubules within the testes. 263. The target tissue of FSH is the: a) Breasts b) Uterus c) Ovaries d) Testes e) Two of the above Answer: e) Two of the above (Ovaries and Testes) Explanation: FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) acts on both the ovaries (in females) to stimulate follicle development and the testes (in males) to stimulate spermatogenesis. 264. Which part of the sperm cell contains the genetic material? a) Acrosome b) Head c) Body d) Midpiece e) Tail Answer: b) Head Explanation: The head of the sperm cell contains the nucleus, which holds the genetic material (DNA). 265. Which test is elevated in prostatic cancer? a) Acid Phosphatase b) Uric Acid c) Creatine d) Testosterone e) Alkaline Phosphatase Answer: a) Acid Phosphatase Explanation: Prostatic acid phosphatase levels are often elevated in cases of prostate cancer. 266. Syphilis is caused by: a) Neisseria sp. b) Mycobacterium sp. c) Trichomonas sp. d) Treponema pallidum e) Candida albicans Answer: d) Treponema pallidum Explanation: Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. 267. Gonorrhea is caused by: a) Neisseria sp. b) Mycobacterium sp. c) Trichomonas sp. d) Treponema pallidum e) Candida albicans Answer: a) Neisseria sp. Explanation: Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a Gram-negative bacterium. 268. The ovum and surrounding cells in the ovary is called the: a) Corpus luteum b) Zygote c) Follicle d) Placenta e) Endometrium Answer: c) Follicle Explanation: The ovarian follicle contains the ovum and its surrounding cells, which provide nourishment and support. 269. The hormone which maintains the thickened uterus during pregnancy is: a) Insulin b) Calcitonin c) Progesterone d) IGF e) GH Answer: c) Progesterone Explanation: Progesterone is critical for maintaining the endometrial lining, which supports early pregnancy. 270. The hormone which increases sharply at ovulation is: a) FSH b) LH c) Progesterone d) Estrogen e) HCG Answer: b) LH (Luteinizing Hormone) Explanation: A surge in LH triggers ovulation, the release of the mature egg from the ovary. 271. The lining of the uterus is shed on Day of the menstrual cycle. a) 1 b) 5 c) 14 d) 21 e) 28 Answer: a) 1 Explanation: The menstrual cycle begins on Day 1, when the uterine lining is shed, leading to menstruation. 272. HCG is secreted by the a) placenta b) corpus luteum c) ovary d) pituitary e) amnion Answer: a) placenta Explanation: Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is produced by the placenta to support the pregnancy in its early stages. 273. How many chromosomes are in a human body cell? a) 46 b) 23 c) 12 d) 92 e) 27 Answer: a) 46 Explanation: Human body cells contain 46 chromosomes, arranged in 23 pairs. 274. How many chromosomes are in an egg or sperm cell? a) 46 b) 23 c) 12 d) 92 e) 27 Answer: b) 23 Explanation: Gametes (egg or sperm cells) contain 23 chromosomes, which combine during fertilization to form 46 chromosomes. 275. Which term describes the physical characteristics of a patient? a) karyotype b) genotype c) phenotype d) heterozygous e) homozygous Answer: c) phenotype Explanation: The phenotype refers to the observable physical characteristics of an individual, while genotype refers to the genetic makeup. 276. Sex-linked characteristics are found a) in women only b) on the Y chromosome c) on the 7th chromosome d) on mutated chromosomes e) on the X chromosome Answer: e) on the X chromosome Explanation: Sex-linked traits are typically associated with genes found on the X chromosome. 277. Which statement is true about amniocentesis? a) Cells from the placenta are aspirated. b) Cells from the fluid surrounding the fetus are aspirated. c) Blood cells from the fetus are aspirated. d) It is routinely done to determine the sex of the fetus. e) It is done at the 6th week of pregnancy. Answer: b) Cells from the fluid surrounding the fetus are aspirated. Explanation: Amniocentesis involves the removal of a small amount of amniotic fluid for genetic testing or other diagnostic purposes. 278. A PSA test detects: a) Down's syndrome b) Breast Cancer c) Hemophilia d) Turner's Syndrome e) Prostatic Cancer Answer: e) Prostatic Cancer Explanation: The PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) test is used to detect prostate cancer in men. 279. Which is NOT tested in semen analysis for fertility? a) motility of sperm b) morphology of sperm c) color of ejaculate d) number of sperm e) volume of ejaculate Answer: c) color of ejaculate Explanation: The color of the ejaculate is not typically analyzed for fertility; semen analysis usually focuses on motility, morphology, number, and volume of sperm. 280. A Pap smear detects: a) Down’s syndrome b) Breast Cancer c) Hemophilia d) Turner’s Syndrome e) Cervical Cancer Answer: e) Cervical Cancer Explanation: A Pap smear is a screening procedure for cervical cancer, detecting abnormal cells in the cervix. 281. PKU testing is routinely done on: a) new employees b) mentally retarded patients c) newborn infants d) cancer patients e) elderly patients Answer: c) newborn infants Explanation: PKU (Phenylketonuria) testing is a standard screening test done on newborns to detect this hereditary metabolic disorder. 282. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a: a) hereditary metabolic condition b) chronic viral infection c) severe bacterial infection d) kidney disease e) defect in the production of urea Answer: a) hereditary metabolic condition Explanation: PKU is a genetic disorder in which the body cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine, leading to its accumulation. 283. Blood for chromosome analysis is collected in a: a) serum separator tube b) fluoridated tube c) oxalated tube d) formalin solution e) heparinized tube Answer: e) heparinized tube Explanation: Heparinized tubes are used to prevent blood clotting, preserving the integrity of the chromosomes for analysis. 284. Blood collected for arterial or venous blood gases is: a) kept at body temperature until testing b) collected in an SST tube c) collected from a fasting patient d) put on ice immediately and performed STAT e) immediately centrifuged and serum is transferred to an acid-washed tube Answer: d) put on ice immediately and performed STAT Explanation: Blood gases must be tested as soon as possible after collection and are typically stored on ice to prevent gas diffusion. 285. Which specimen container is given to a patient for fecal occult blood? a) large metal can b) white plastic jug c) sterile C & S jar d) commercial cardboard slide card e) C & S jar with SAF Answer: d) commercial cardboard slide card Explanation: Fecal occult blood tests are often done using small stool samples collected on a special slide card. 286. Throat swabs are collected using a: a) wooden scraper b) swab with clear transport media c) special aspiration tube d) swab with activated charcoal e) sticky paddle and plastic container Answer: b) swab with clear transport media Explanation: Throat swabs are collected with a swab that is transported in clear media to maintain the viability of any bacteria present. 287. 288. Which is NOT a preservative for 24-hour urine? a) Hydrochloric acid b) Trichloroacetic acid c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Glacial acetic acid e) Boric acid Answer: b) Trichloroacetic acid Explanation: Trichloroacetic acid is not used as a preservative in 24-hour urine collections. Common preservatives include hydrochloric acid and boric acid, and glacial acetic acid can also be used 289. Identify the TRUE statement regarding sputum collection. a) Sputum for C & S is collected in a clean container. b) The best time to collect is after brushing your teeth. c) The specimen is kept refrigerated if testing is delayed. d) Sputum for malignant cells is tested in histology. e) Saliva in the sample is acceptable. Answer: c) The specimen is kept refrigerated if testing is delayed. Explanation: If there is a delay in testing, sputum samples should be kept refrigerated to preserve the sample quality. It is best to collect sputum in the morning before eating or brushing teeth. 290. Identify the FALSE statement to collect semen for fertility studies. a) The patient should not have intercourse for 3-4 days. b) The best method of collection is by masturbation. c) A sterile container must be used. d) The specimen is kept at body temperature if possible. e) The specimen is tested within 2 hours after collection. Answer: d) The specimen is kept at body temperature if possible. Explanation: While it is ideal to keep the specimen at body temperature during transport, it is not always feasible. The important factor is to keep the specimen as close to body temperature as possible but not necessarily at that temperature. 291. Which specimen is required to detect fecal lipids? a) Clean-catch urine b) 72-hour stool c) Synovial fluid d) Serum e) Sputum Answer: b) 72-hour stool Explanation: A 72-hour stool specimen is typically collected to assess fecal lipids for conditions like steatorrhea, where excess fat is excreted in the stool. 292. Physiological saline is prepared by mixing: a) distilled water and seawater b) distilled water and hypochlorite c) tap water and hypochlorite d) distilled water and sodium chloride e) distilled water and HCl Answer: d) distilled water and sodium chloride Explanation: Physiological saline is a solution of 0.9% sodium chloride in distilled water, commonly used for medical and laboratory purposes. 293. The preferred specimen to test drugs of abuse is: a) feces b) serum c) plasma d) urine e) whole blood Answer: d) urine Explanation: Urine is the preferred specimen for drug testing due to its non-invasive collection, long detection window, and ease of analysis. 294. Which test is NOT collected on a royal blue heparinized vacutainer? a) lithium b) lead c) mercury d) manganese e) thallium Answer: a) lithium Explanation: Lithium testing is typically done in a serum separator tube, not in a royal blue heparinized tube. Royal blue tubes are used for trace elements like lead, mercury, manganese, and thallium. 295. Which drug is NOT monitored for therapeutic levels? a) theophylline b) gentamicin c) digoxin d) arsenic e) phenytoin Answer: d) arsenic Explanation: Arsenic is a toxic substance but is not typically monitored for therapeutic levels in the same way as drugs like theophylline, gentamicin, digoxin, and phenytoin, which have established therapeutic ranges that are critical for patient safety and efficacy. 296. Peak and trough times must be included when labeling specimens for: a) medicolegal testing b) ABO, Rh, and Crossmatch c) therapeutic drug monitoring d) industrial toxicology testing e) drug abuse testing Answer: c) therapeutic drug monitoring Explanation: Peak and trough levels are crucial in therapeutic drug monitoring to ensure that drug levels remain within the therapeutic range, maximizing efficacy while minimizing toxicity. 297. Which drug is commonly used to treat arrhythmias? a) Ethosuximide b) Digoxin c) Barbiturates d) Demerol e) Quaalude Answer: b) Digoxin Explanation: Digoxin is commonly used to treat certain types of arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation and heart failure, by increasing the force of cardiac contractions and slowing down the heart rate. 298. Which drug is commonly used to treat asthma? a) Coumadin b) Lithium c) Penicillin d) Theophylline e) Digitalis Answer: d) Theophylline Explanation: Theophylline is a bronchodilator used in the treatment of asthma. It helps to open the airways and improve breathing by relaxing the muscles around the airways. 299. Industrial toxicological tests require blood collected in: a) SST b) grey tubes c) royal blue tubes d) amber microcontainers e) light blue tubes Answer: c) royal blue tubes Explanation: Royal blue tubes are designed for trace element analysis and are often used in industrial toxicology to avoid contamination from other substances. 300. Blood alcohol testing for medicolegal purposes requires: a) a signed consent form b) a witnessed collection c) cleansing with iodine d) accurate documentation e) all of the above Answer: e) all of the above Explanation: Blood alcohol testing for medicolegal purposes must adhere to strict protocols, including obtaining a signed consent form, ensuring a witnessed collection, using appropriate cleansing techniques, and maintaining accurate documentation to ensure the integrity of the test results.

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