Final Histology Answers-Muscle Tissue PDF

- - MULTIPLE CHOICE Q & A MMu Muscle Tissue ↑ Muscle tissue 1. Which fiber type gets its energy primarily from glycogen? A. slow oxidative fibers B. fast glycolytic fibers C. Postural muscles of back D....

- - MULTIPLE CHOICE Q & A MMu Muscle Tissue ↑ Muscle tissue 1. Which fiber type gets its energy primarily from glycogen? A. slow oxidative fibers B. fast glycolytic fibers C. Postural muscles of back D. fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers E. non of them 2. Which portion corresponds to a region with only the rodlike portions of the myosin molecule and no thin filaments? A. H zone B. Z disc C. B zone D. A band E. I band 3. Which of the following is composed of smooth muscle? A. Heart B. Tongue C. Biceps muscle D. Walls of the visceral organs E. Upper esophagus 4. What kind of organelle is responsible for the sequestration of Ca2+ ions? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum B. proteosomes and peroxisomes C. mitochondria D. smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. Golgi apparatus 5. What is a receptor in muscle? A. Motor neuron B. Motor end plate C. Neuromuscular spindle D. Motor unit E. Neurotransmitter 6. Identify thick filaments. A. keratin B. actin C. desmin D. myosin E. tubulin 7. Dyads usually seen in : A. uterine muscles B. visceral organs C. smooth muscles D. skeletal muscles E. cardiac muscles 8. What is called the distance from Z disc to another Z disc? A. sarcolemma B. sarcomere C. triad D. sarcoplasmic reticulum E. dyads 9. What is actin? A. mycrotubules B. intermediate filament C. microfilament  D. myosin E. inclusions 10. Which characteristic is unique to cardiac muscle? A. Lack T-tubules B. Contain centrally located nuclei C. Multinucleated D. Striated E. Often branched 11. Which structure is equal to Z disc in smooth muscles? A. myosin and actin B. non of them C. dense body D. calmodulin E. caveolae 12. What is triad? A. complex of a T-tubule with two terminal cisternae B. complex of three terminal cisternae C. the complex of a rough, smooth endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus D. nucleus, cell membrane and cyplasm E. complex of a three T-tubules 13. What is line that bisects the dark band in muscle? A. B line B. M line C. A band D. Z disc E. I band 14. Identify thin filaments.  A. actin B. myosin C. desmin D. tubulin E. keratin 15. Which muscles belong to fast glycolytic fibers? A. all of them B. muscles of visceral organs C. Postural muscles of back D. Extraocular muscles E. Major muscles of legs 16. Triads found in: A. heart tissue B. visceral organs C. smooth muscles D. skeletal muscles E. cardiac muscles 17. Triads found in: A. uterine muscles B. intestinal muscles C. gastric muscles D. cardiac muscles E. hand muscles 18. The skeletal muscle fibers contain all of the following except: A. M line B. I band C. A band D. B band  E. H zone 19. Which protein supports the thick myofilaments and connects them to the Z disc? A. troponin B. myomesin C. titin D. M line E. tropomyosin 20. The slow oxidative muscle fibers are characterized by : A. rich in glycogen B. rich in mitochondria C. contain cilia D. absence of myoglobin E. fast contaction 21. A 66-year-old man who lives alone has a severe myocardial infarction and dies during the night. The medical examiner’s office is called the following morning and describes the man’s body as being in rigor mortis. This state of rigor mortis is due to which one of the following? A. Inhibition of Ca2+ leakage from the extracellular fluid and sarcoplasmic B. Increased lactic acid production C. Failure to disengage tropomyosin and troponin from the myosin active sites D. Absence of ATP preventing detachment of the myosin heads from actin E. Enhanced retrieval of Ca2+ 22. What kind of microfilaments forms I band? A. troponin  B. keratin and actin C. tropomyosin and myosin D. actin E. actin and myosin 23. Identify the part of cardiac muscle tissue that is responsible for myocardial cells joining. A. perimysium B. endomysium C. triad D. dyads E. intercalated discs 24. In smooth muscle calcium released by the smooth ER initiates contraction binding to what protein? A. Calmodulin B. Desmin C. Actin D. myosin light chain kinase E. Tropomyosin 25. A 5-year-old boy sustains a small tear in his gastrocnemius muscle when he is involved in a bicycle accident. Regeneration of the muscle will occur through which of the following mechanisms? A. Fusion of damaged myofibers to form new myotubes B. Hyperplasia of existing muscle fibers C. Dedifferentiation of muscle cells into myoblasts D. Differentiation of fibroblasts to form myoblasts E. Differentiation of muscle satellite cells 26. In one type of muscle, numerous gap junctions, desmosomes, and adherens junctions are specifically localized in which structures? A. Intercalated discs B. Neuromuscular spindles C. Sarcomeres D. Myofilaments E. Dense bodies 27. What kind of connective tissue surrounds a collection of fascicles that constitutes the muscle? A. perimysium B. perineurium C. epimysium D. endomysium E. epineurium 28. What is the repetitive functional subunit of the contractile apparatus? A. triad B. sarcolemma C. dyads D. sarcomere E. sarcoplasmic reticulum 29. Which muscles belong to fast oxidative-glycolitic fibers? A. Postural muscles of back B. muscles of visceral organs C. all of them D. Major muscles of legs E. Extraocular muscles 30. Identify oxygen-binding protein of muscle tissue. A. immunoglobulin B. hemoglobin C. a globin D. myoglobin E. b globin 31. According to color what kind of muscle fibers are present? A. red, blue and intermediate B. blue , white and intermediate C. pinkish, purple and intermediate D. white, red and intermediate E. white, black and intemediate 32. Which muscles belong to slow oxidative muscle fibers? A. Postural muscles of back B. muscles of visceral organs C. all of them D. Extraocular muscles E. Major muscles of legs 33. Which protein forms complex of three subunits: TnT, which TnC, and TnI, ? A. myomesin B. tropomyosin C. M line D. troponin E. titin 34. What kind of connective tissue surrounds individual muscle fibers? A. epineurium B. epimysium  C. perineurium D. perimysium E. endomysium 35. What kind of structures compose intercalated discs? A. gap junctions and desmosomes B. hemidesmosomes, gap junctions, desmosomes C. desmosomes, fascia adherens, gap junctions D. fascia adherens, hemidesmosomes, gap junctions E. occluding junction, fascia adherens 36. What kind of connective tissue surrounds group or bundle of muscle fibers? A. endomysium B. perimysium C. epimysium D. epineurium E. perineurium 37. Which of the following is not essential for muscle contaction? A. troponin B. ATP C. Ca2+ D. tubulin E. actin and myosin 38. Which protein forms a coil of two polypeptides chains located in the groove between the two twisted actin strands? A. titin B. M line C. tropomyosin  D. troponin E. myomesin 39. What kind of microfilaments forms A band? A. actin and myosin B. troponin C. actin D. keratin and actin E. tropomyosin and myosin 40. What is myosin? A. intermediate filament B. microtubules C. microfilament D. inclusions E. actin  MULTIPLE CHOICE Q & A MMu Epithelium. 1. Which tissue belongs to avascular tissue? A. mucoid tissue B. connective tissue C. nervous tissue D. epithelial tissue E. muscular tissue 2. Which type of epithelium lines trachea, nasal cavity, bronchi? A. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium B. transitional epithelium C. psedostratified epithelim D. startified squamous keratinized epithelium E. simple cuboidal epithelium 3. What kind of cell projection forms brush border or striated border? A. dendrite B. cilia C. flagella D. microvilli E. stereocilia 4. Which type of junctional complexes connects epithelial cells to the underlying basal lamina? A. gap junctions B. hemidesmosomes C. desmosomes D. tight junctions E. adherent junction 5. Which organ contains stereocilia on the top of epithelial surface? A. respiratory system: bronchi B. nervous system: brain C. male reproductive system: epididymis D. female reproductive system: ovaries E. urinary system : Bowman capsule 6. Which type of epithelium lines intestine and gallbladder? A. simple squamous B. simple columnar epithelium C. stratified suamous keratinized epithelium D. simple cuboidal epithelium E. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium 7. Which type of cell projections have the function of increasing the cell's surface area? A. microvilli and cilia B. cilia and stereocilia C. stereocilia and axon D. microvilli and stereocilia E. axon and dendrite 8. What is the function of stereocilia? A. detects movement of viruses and bacteria B. secretion and digestion C. moveing fliud and particles aling epithelial surface D. increase the cell's surface area E. absorprion 9. Which type of epithelium lines vascular system and lymphatic vessels?  A. mesothelium B. pseudostratified epithelium C. endothelium D. transitional epithelium E. simple cuboidal epithelium 10. What kind of disease forms due to immotile cilia? A. Kartagener syndrome B. Acute gastritis C. AIDS D. Parkinson syndrome E. Diabetus mellitus 11. Which type of epithelium lines pericardium, pleura and peritonium? A. pseudostratified epithelium B. stratified squamous epithelium C. mesothelim D. simple cuboidal epithelium E. endothelium 12. Which type of cytoskeleton facilitates formation of microvilli? A. intermediate filaments B. microtubules C. microfilaments D. keratin E. tubulin 13. Identify main functions of basement membrane. A. provide movement of cells B. provide changing of shape C. physical support and provide nourishment  D. provide mitotic division E. signal transduction to neurons 14. What is the function of stereocilia? A. provide estethic beauty B. detects movement of viruses and bacteria C. facilitate movement od inhaled dust D. facilitate movement of spermatozoa E. increase the cell's surface area 15. Which type of junctional complexes allows the direct transfer of small molecules and ions from one cell to another? A. desmosomes B. pgap junction C. hemidesmosomes D. tight junction E. adherent junction 16. Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia? A. presence of a basal lamina B. nature of cell junction that are present C. shape of cells in the basal layer D. size of the nuclei E. number of cell layers 17. Which organ contains microvilli on the top of epithelial surface? A. small intestine  B. stomach C. follopian tubes D. bronchi E. epididymis 18. Which type of gland has excretory duct? A. adrenal gland B. parathyroid gland C. endocrine glands D. exocrine glands E. thyroid gland 19. Which type of epithelium covers epidermis? A. psedostratified epithelim B. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium C. transitional epithelium D. stratified suamous keratinized epithelium E. simple squamous 20. What is the differnce between simple and compound glands? A. one of them belongs to endocrine glands B. simple glands' ducts not branched;compound glands' have branched ducts C. simple glands always branched alveolar; compund glands always branched tubular D. both haven't got ducts E. simple glands release the secret into the blood; compound release the secret into th secretory duct 21. Which gland has a compound acinar structure? A. thyroid gland  B. mucous glands of colon C. exocrine pancreas D. sebaceous glands E. sweat glands 22. What type of collagen is present in reticular lamina? A. type II collagen B. type III collagen C. type V collagen D. type IV collagen E. type I collagen 23. Identify the mechanism of secretion of glands that happens with releasing the product together with small amounts of cytoplasm and cell membrane. A. merocrine secretion B. holocrine secretion C. paracrine secretion D. apocrine secretion E. endocrine secretion 24. Which type of junctional complexes forms a continuous band (belt) around the cell? A. tight and adherent junctions B. tight junction and desmosomes C. gap and tight junctions D. desmosomes and hemidesmosomes E. hemidesmosomes and adherent junctions 25. Identify the mechanism of secretion of glands that happens with typical exocytosis from membrane-bound vesicles or secretory granules. A. apocrine secretion  B. holocrine secretion C. endocrine secretion D. merocrine secretion E. paracrine secretion 26. What type of epithelium covers the epidermis? A. pseudostratified epithelium B. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium C. transitional epithelium D. urothelium E. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium 27. What type of collagen is present in basal lamina? A. type IV collagen B. type VII collagen C. type V collagen D. type VIII collagen E. type VI collagen 28. Which type of epithelium lines conjunctiva? A. startified squamous keratinized epithelium B. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium C. stratified columnar epithelium D. simple cuboidal epithelium E. startified cuboidal epithelim 29. What is the function of microvilli? A. provide estethic beauty B. greatly increase the free surface area C. facilitate movement of spermatozoa D. detects movement of viruses and bacteria E. facilitate movement od inhaled dust 30. Identify the process where one type of epithelial tissue may undergo transformation into another type. A. inflammation B. necrosis C. metaplasia D. neoplasia E. displasia 31. Which epithelium provides protection function? A. simple squamous B. simple cuboidal C. endothelim D. mesothelium E. stratified squamous epithelium 32. Which type of epithelium lines renal calyces, ureters and bladder ? A. stratified columnar epithelium B. transitional epithelium C. startified squamous keratinized epithelium D. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium E. simple cuboidal epithelium 33. What type of epithelium lines urinary bladder? A. simple squamous epithelium B. respiratory epithelium C. mesothelium D. urothelium E. endothelium 34. Which organ contains cilia on the top of epithelial surface? A. non of them B. respiratory tract  C. endocrine system D. urinary system E. digestive system 35. Which type of cytoskeleton facilitates formation of stereocilia? A. microfilaments B. tubulin C. intermediate filaments D. microtubules E. keratin 36. Identify epithelial tissue which has more than one layer. A. respiretory epithelium B. simple C. pseudostratified D. transitional epithelium E. stratified 37. What kind of cell projection has a motion-detecting function present in inner ear sensory cells? A. axons B. stereocilia C. microcilia D. cilia E. microvilli 38. Which type of epithelium lines oral cavity, esophagus,anal canal and vagina? A. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium B. transitional epithelium  C. stratified suamous keratinized epithelium D. psedostratified epithelim E. simple squamous 39. Identify the mechanism of secretion of glands that happens with cell disruption and releasing the product into the glands' lumen. A. paracrine secretion B. merocrine secretion C. holocrine secretion D. endocrine secretion E. apocrine secretion 40. Which type of cytoskeleton facilitates formation of stereocilia? A. microfilaments B. actin and myosin C. keratin D. intermediate filaments E. microtubules  MULTIPLE CHOICE Q & A MMu Cartilage and bone 1. Identify tissue that has mineralized extracellular matrix. A. adipose and loose connective tissue B. cartilage C. dense irregular connective tissue D. bone E. dense regular connective tissue 2. What kind of substance provides diffusion of metabolites between osteocytes and blood vessels? A. periosteum B. osteocalcin and osteonectin C. interstitial fluid D. endosteum E. matrix vesicles 3. What kind of disease formed due to lack of ruffled border on the cell surface of osteoclasts and is characterized by dense, heavy bones? A. Gout B. osteogenesis imperfecta C. osteomalacia D. osteopetrosis E. scurvy 4. Which area of the cartilage is relatively rich in collagen ? A. perichondrium B. interterritorial matrix C. territorial matrix D. epiphysieal plate  E. peripheral areas 5. Identify location of osteoblasts. A. perichondrium B. Howship lacunae C. periosteum and endostium D. cementum and dentin E. interstitial fluid 6. Which type of noncollagenous protein binds Ca2+ ions and concentrates this mineral locally? A. osteophosphin B. osteocalcin C. chondronection D. fibronectin E. osteonectin 7. What kind of cartilage forms inervertebral discs? A. elastic cartilage B. hyaline cartilage C. hyaline and elastic cartilage D. fibrocartilage E. all of them 8. What kind of cartilage forms trachea? A. hyaline and elastic cartilage B. non of them C. hyaline cartilage D. fibrocartilage E. elastic cartilage 9. Identify cells that synthesize and secrete the organic components of the matrix.  A. Osteocytes B. Mesenchymal cells C. Osteoblasts D. Osteoclasts E. Adipocytes 10. What type of glycoprotein is present in chartilage? A. chondronectin B. GAG C. fibronectin D. osteonectin E. laminin 11. Identify the cells that are found in cavities (lacunae) between bone matrix layers (lamellae), with cytoplasmic processes in small canaliculi that extend into the matrix. A. Mesenchymal cells B. Osteoclasts C. Osteocytes D. Adipocytes E. Osteoblasts 12. What kind of structure binds the periosteum to the bone? A. periodontal ligaments B. tendon fibers C. perforating or Sharpey fibers D. elastic fibers E. reticular fibers 13. Identify the location of the primary ossification center. A. intervertebral discs B. elastic and fibrocartilage C. epiphyses  D. diaphysis E. methaphysis 14. What kind of tissue provides nutrients to the cartilage? A. areolar connective tissue B. reticular tissue C. endosteum D. periosteum E. perichondrium 15. What kind of cartilage forms the temporary skeleton that is gradually replaced by bone? A. hyaline and elastic cartilage B. hyaline cartilage C. non of them D. fibrocartilage E. elastic cartilage 16. What is intamembranous ossification? A. mitotic division of preexisting chondrocytes B. mitotic division of preexisting neural crest cells C. a preexisting matrix of hyaline cartilage is eroded and invaded by osteoblasts, which then begin osteoid production D. chondroblast differentiation from progenitor cells in the perichondrium E. osteoblasts differentiate directly from mesenchyme and begin secreting osteoid 17. Identify the location of osteoclasts. A. resorption lacunae or Howship lacunae B. osteocytic lacunae  C. sinusoids D. interstitial tissue E. perichondrium 18. What kind of substance provides basophilic stain and forms a territorial matrix around isogenous aggregates? A. glycoprotein B. elastic fibers C. collagen type II D. GAG E. collagen type I 19. What is osteoid? A. non of them B. matrix that undergo mineralization C. functional unit of bone D. newly formed bone matrix E. newly formed cartilage matrix 20. Which hormone regulates hyaline cartilage growth ? A. Aldosterone and cortisol B. somatotropin C. ADH and oxytocin D. FSH and LH E. calcitonin and T3 21. Identify the cartilage that has not perichondrium. A. trachea B. upper respiratory tract C. Intervertebral discs, articular cartilage of joints D. external ear and epiglottis E. all of them 22. Which area of the cartilage is relatively poor in collagen and rich in proteoglycan? A. interterritorial matrix B. territorial matrix - C. perichondrium D. peripheral areas E. epiphysieal plate 23. Which type of cartilage formed by the mingling of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue? A. elastic cartilage B. hyaline cartilage C. hyaline and elastic cartilage D. fibrocartilage E. all of them 24. Identify location of chondroblast A. perichondrium B. endosteum C. endochondrium D. isogenous aggregates E. periosteum 25. What is interstitial growth in cartilage? A. chondroblast differentiation from progenitor cells in the perichondrium B. mitotic division of preexisting endoderm C. mitotic division of preexisting neural crest cells D. mitotic division of preexisting chondrocytes E. mitotic division of nephrotome 26. What is endochondrial ossification? A. osteoblasts differentiate directly from mesenchyme and begin secreting osteoid B. a preexisting matrix of hyaline cartilage is eroded and invaded by osteoblasts, which then begin osteoid production C. mitotic division of preexisting chondrocytes D. chondroblast differentiation from progenitor cells in the perichondrium E. mitotic division of preexisting neural crest cells 27. Which of the following is found in Howship's lacunae: A. osteclasts B. chondroclasts C. osteoblasts D. chondroblasts E. octeocytes 28. What do matrix vesicles produced by osteoblasts contain? A. lysozyme and defensins B. osteonectin and osteocalsin C. alkaline phosphotase and enzymes D. aggrecan and perlecan E. myeloperoxidase 29. What kind of microenvironment occurs between the osteoclast and matrix in which bone resorption happens? A. isotonic B. acidic C. alkaline D. all of them E. hyperosmolar 30. The cells that erode the bone matrix are : -  A. chondroblasts B. chondroclasts C. osteclasts D. octeocytes E. osteoblasts 31. Which type of cells has a giant, multinucleated appearance and is involved in removing calcified bone matrix and remodeling bone tissue? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoblasts C. Adipocytes D. Mesenchymal cells E. Osteoclasts 32. Identify the cells that maintain calcified matrix and their death is followed by rapid matrix resorption. A. Adipocytes B. Osteocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Osteoblasts E. Mesenchymal cells 33. Identify the location of the primary ossification center. A. elastic and fibrocartilage B. intervertebral discs C. methaphysis D. diaphysis E. epiphyses 34. What kind of cartilage forms the epiglottis? A. non of them B. elastic cartilage  C. hyaline and elastic cartilage D. fibrocartilage E. hyaline cartilage 35. What kind of cartilage forms the external ear? A. elastic cartilage B. non of them C. fibrocartilage D. hyaline cartilage E. hyaline and elastic cartilage 36. Which type of collagen is a major structural component in bone ECM? A. Type IV collagen B. Type II collagen C. Type III collagen D. Type VI collagen E. Type I collagen 37. What kind of cartilage forms pubic symphysis? A. all of them B. fibrocartilage C. hyaline and elastic cartilage D. elastic cartilage E. hyaline cartilage 38. Identify glycoprotein of bone tissue. A. Osteonectin B. Laminin C. Chondronectin D. Aggrecan E. Fibronectin 39. What kind of cartilage forms an epiphyseal plate? A. hyaline and elastic cartilage B. fibrocartilage C. hyaline cartilage D. non of them E. elastic cartilage 40. What kind of cartilage forms the articular cartilage of joints? A. fibrocartilage B. non of them C. hyaline and elastic cartilage D. elastic cartilage E. hyaline cartilage  MULTIPLE CHOICE Q & A MMu Connective tissue. 1. What kind of cells derived from monocytes and specialized in turnover of protein fibers and removal of apoptotic cells, tissue debris, or other particulate material, being especially abundant at sites of inflammation. A. macrophages B. fibroblasts C. mast cells D. adipocytes E. plasma cells 2. What type of tissue locates beneath the epithelial lining of many organs and filling the spaces between fibers of muscle and nerve? A. dense irregular connective tissue B. adipose tissue C. cartilage D. loose connective tissue E. dense regular connective tissue 3. What type of fibers are present in the stroma of hemopoietic tissue (bone marrow), the spleen, and lymph nodes where they support rapidly changing populations of proliferating cells and phagocytic cells.? A. reticular fibers B. artificial fibers C. collagen fibers D. elastic fibers E. muscular fibers 4. What kind of tissue consists mostly of type I collagen bundles and fibroblasts aligned in parallel for great resistance to prolonged or repeated stresses from the same direction? A. cartilage B. dense irregular connective tissue C. dense regular connective tissue D. adipose tissue E. loose connective tissue 5. Identify the cell that lymphocte-derived, antibody-producing cells. A. plasma cells B. T lymphocytes C. B lymphocytes D. M lymphocytes E. alfa lymphoctyes 6. What type of fibers serves as supportive stroma for the parenchymal secretory cells and rich microvasculature of the liver and endocrine glands? A. artificial fibers B. reticular fibers C. muscular fibers D. collagen fibers E. elastic fibers 7. identify examples for dense irregular connective tissue. A. cartilage and bones B. tendons and ligaments C. the epithelial lining of many organs and filling the spaces between fibers of muscle and nerve D. the deep dermis layer of skin and capsules surrounding most organs. E. non of them 8. What kind of structures do comprise ECM? A. fibroblasts and ground substance B. adipose tissue and ground substance C. plasma cells and fibers D. fibers, ground substance E. macrophages and fibroblasts 9. What kind of substance allows the adhesion of cells to their substrate? A. GAG+lipids B. microtubules C. glycoproteins D. intermidiate filaments E. preoteoglycans 10. What substance, released from the adrenal gland and some autonomic neurons, increases lipolytic activity in white adipocytes? A. glycogen B. growth hormone C. leptin D. norepinephrine E. insulin 11. What kind of cell cointains histamin, heparin, serine proteases, cytokines and promotes allergic reactions known as immediate hypersensitivity reaction? A. adipocytes - B. fibroblasts C. plasma cells  D. macrophages E. mast cell 12. What is the difference between reticular and collagen fibers? A. reticular fibers contain more lipids compare to collagen fibers B. reticular fibers contain more carbohydrates compare to collagen fibers C. reticular fibers contain more vitamin C compare to collagen fibers D. reticular fibers contain more Fe+ compare to collagen fibers E. there is no difference between them 13. The reticular fibers are made up of A. type I collagen B. type I collagen C. type III collagen D. type VIII collagen E. type VI collagen 14. identify examples for dense regular connective tissue. A. cartilage and bones B. the epithelial lining of many organs and filling the spaces between fibers of muscle and nerve C. non of them D. the deep dermis layer of skin and capsules surrounding most organs. E. tendons and ligaments 15. What kind of tissue is an abundant with a ground substance composed chiefly of hyaluronan, gelatinous, with sparse collagen fibers and scattered fibroblasts? A. dense irregular connective tissue  B. reticular tissue C. mucoid tissue D. loose connective tissue E. dense regular connective tissue 16. What kind of cells do synthesize and secrete collagen, elastic fibers and GAGs, glycoproteins, multiadhesive glycoproteins? A. fibroblasts B. plasma cells C. mast cells D. adipocytes E. macrophages 17. What kind of disease is characterized by a lack of resistance in tissues rich in elastic fibers? A. Scurvy B. Marfan syndrom C. Kartagener syndrome D. Ehler-Danlos type IV E. Osteogenesis imperfecta 18. What kind of tissue provides resistance to stress from all directions? A. dense irregular connective tissue B. dense regular connective tissue C. cartilage D. loose connective tissue E. adipose tissue 19. Identify the structure of proteoglycan. A. sugar+sugar B. glycoproteins+GAGs C. GAGs+carbohydrates  D. protein+GAGs E. GAG+lipids 20. Identify multiadhesive glycoprotein that attaches epithelial integrins to collagen type IV and specific proteoglycan. A. non of them B. chondronectin C. osteonectin D. laminin E. fibronectin 21. What kind of pressure draws water back into the capillaries? A. hydrostatic pressure B. vacuum pressure C. atmospheric pressure D. absolute pressure E. osmotic pressure 22. Identify protein that serves as scaffolds for elastin during formation of elastic fibers. A. laminin B. chondroitin sulfate C. collagen D. fibrillin E. heparan sulfate 23. What kind of tissue contains cells with multiple lipid droplets interspersed among abundant mitochondria, which helps give this tissue a darker appearance. A. White adipose tissue B. loose connective tissue C. Brown adipose tissue  D. dense irregular connective tissue E. dense regular connective tissue 24. Which type of Vitamin is necessary for collagen formation? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin PP D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin B 25. Which type of proteoglycan is present in cartilage? A. decorin B. perlecan C. chondroitin sulfate 6D. aggrecan E. syndecan 26. What kind of tissue provides a framework with specialized microenvironments for cells in hemopoietic tissue and some lymphoid organs (bonemarrow, lymph nodes, and spleen)? A. reticular tissue B. dense regular connective tissue C. dense irregular connective tissue D. reticular tissue E. loose connective tissue 27. What kind of pressure forces water out across the capillary wall? A. atmospheric pressure B. vacuum pressure C. osmotic pressure D. absolute pressure E. hydrostatic pressure 28. A 33-year-old homeless woman has been living in an abandoned building and eating dried meat and bread from the dumpster behind a delicatessen. She smokes cigarettes “bummed” from others. She presents at a free clinic with bleeding under the skin, particularly around hair follicles, and bruises on her arms and legs. She is irritable, clinically depressed, and fatigued with general muscle weakness. Her gums are bleeding, swollen, purple, and spongy, with several loose teeth. She has an infected toe, which may be broken. She is afebrile, a glucose finger-stick is normal, and the urine dipstick shows no sugar, protein, or ketones. You suspect a vitamin deficiency. What might be the underlying mechanism for this patient’s symptoms? A. formation unstable collagen helices B. excessive callus formation in healing fractures C. stimulation of prolyl hydroxylase D. organ fibrosis E. decreased degradation of collagen 29. What kind of cells do have receptors for IgE on their cell surface? A. macrophages B. fibroblasts C. plasma cells D. adipocytes E. mast cells 30. What kind of hormone serves as a "satiety factor" which helps regulate the appetite under normal conditions and participates in regulating the formation of new adipose tissue? A. leptin B. growth hormone  C. insulin D. T3 and T4 E. norepinephrine 31. What type of protein do collagen and reticular fibers compose? A. collagen protein B. proteoglycans C. elastic protein D. bilirubin E. hemoglobin 32. What type of preotein is most abundant in the human body? A. proteoglycans B. elastic protein C. hemoglobin D. collagen protein E. bilirubin 33. Which type of fibers belongs to argyrophilic fibers? tained A. elastic fibers ↓ B. artificial fibers C. proteoglycans silve OD. reticular fibers E. collagen II 34. Identify the most ubiquitous GAG. A. dermatan sulfate B. chondroitin sulfate C. keratan sultafe D. hyaluronic acid E. heparan sulfate 35. Identify Linking/anchoring collagen. A. I B. VI C. III D. VII E. II 36. Identify fibrillar collagen. A. I, II, III B. IV and VII C. IV and III D. VII and IX E. IV and X 37. Identify fibers that have rubberlike properties that allow - tissue containing these fibers, such as the stroma of the lungs, to be stretched or distended and return to their original shape. A. reticular fibers B. collagen fibers C. muscular fibers D. elastic fibers E. artificial fibers 38. What kind of substances due to their high negative charge - can sequester - cations as well as water? A. laminin B. glycoprotein C. osteonectin D. Fibronectin E. GAGs -ve 39. What type of collagen composes reticular fibers? A. collagen I  B. collagen IV C. collagen III D. collagen VII E. collagen II 40. Leptin acts on the hypothalamus, decreases the appetite, ultimately resulting in A. maintains calcium in the body B. weight gain C. weight loss D. non of them E. maintains ugar in the body  MULTIPLE CHOICE Q & A MMu Blood. 1. Which type of leukocyte has bilobed nucleus? A. T lymphocytes B. eosinophils C. basophils D. platelets E. neutrophils 2. How do platelets adhere to collagen in the vascular wall during the bleeding? A. bind through synapses B. by pseudopods C. by glycocalyx D. release phospholipids to adhere E. by using tight and adherent junctions 3. What is the difference between plasma and serum? A. serum is a synonym for plasma B. serum is artificial plasma C. plasma is abundant with nutrients D. serum is abundunt with nutrient E. serum does not contain clotting factors 4. Approximately what percentage of the volume of blood do the hematocrit comprise? A. 5 B. 90 C. 25  D. 45 E. 75 5. Which type of platelet granules contains ADP, ATP and seratonin? A. sigma granules B. beta granules C. gamma granules D. alpha granules E. delta granules 6. Which of the cells is also responsible for removing antigen- antibody complexes from interstitial fluid by phagocytosis? A. Neutrophil B. Erythrocytes C. Eosinophil D. Basophils E. Lymphocytes 7. What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to microglia and most antigen-presenting cells? A. eosinophils B. monoctes C. lymphocytes D. basophils E. neutrophils 8. What kind of cells comprise "buffy coat"? A. WBC and RBCs B. only WBCs C. RBCs, WBCs and platelets D. plasma and serum  E. WBCs and platelets 9. Identify anucleated cell. A. platelets B. RBCs C. basophils D. neutrophils E. macrophages 10. Which type of cells have lobulated nuclei? A. basophils, RBCs and monocytes B. monocytes, lymphocytes and eosinophils C. neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils D. eosinophils and lymphocytes E. lymphocytes and monocytes 11. What is primary or azurophilic granules? A. microtubules B. lysosomes C. mitochondria D. peroxisomes E. proteosomes 12. Which of the following possesses specific and azurophilic granules? A. Lymphocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Monocytes D. platelets E. Neutrophil 13. What is another term for a platelet? A. lymphocyes B. Thrombocyte C. neutrophils D. Basophils E. Monocyte 14. which of the following blood cells differentiate outside of the bone marrow? A. eosinophils and lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes C. neutrophils D. RBCs and platelets E. basophils 15. Which of the following is not considered a "formed element"? A. Neutrophil B. Plasma C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes E. Erythrocytes 16. What kind of substance increases vascular wall permeability that leads to edema? A. heparine B. phospholipase A C. myeloperoxidase D. histamine E. platelet-activating factor 17. What we call the substance consisting from apoptotic neutrophils, bacteria, semidigested material and tissue fluid?  A. cancer B. necrotic tissue C. pus D. tumor substance E. secret 18. Which of the following is the most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood? A. lymphocyes B. neutrophils C. Erythrocytes D. Eosinophils E. Basophils 19. Identify cells that belongs to granulocytes? A. monocytes and eosinophils B. lymphocytes and monocytes C. basophils and monocytes D. neutrophils and basophils E. eosinophils and lymphocytes 20. Which kind of cell does have surface receptors for immunoglobulin E (IgE)? A. Neutrophil B. lymphocytes C. basophils D. platelets E. basophils 21. Which type of cells hasn't got lobulated nuclei? A. basophils, RBCs and monocytes  B. neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils C. eosinophils and lymphocytes D. monoctes and lymphocytes E. monocytes, lymphocytes and eosinophils 22. What kind of cells are formed by the fragmentation of megakaryocytes? A. RBCs B. monocytes and lymphocyes C. granulocytes and agranulocytes D. basophils and monocytes E. platelets 23. What type of cells haven't got nuclei? A. eosinophils and lymphocytes B. monoctes C. RBCs D. lymphocytes E. platelets 24. Which cell has large blue granules, often obscuring the nucleus? A. Monocytes B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophil E. Neutrophil 25. Identify the extracellular material of blood. A. glycosaminoglycans B. elastic fibers C. collagen fibers D. proteoglycans  E. plasma 26. Identify fluid connective tissue. A. loose connective tissue B. dense irregular connective tissue C. blood D. dense regular connective tissue E. mucoid tissue 27. What kind of cell releases enzyme histaminase to decrease amount of histamine during allergic reactions? A. eosinophils B. RBCs, WBCs and platelets C. monoctes D. basophils E. lymphocytes and neutrophils 28. What is the reason for sickle cell anemia? A. containing nucleus in RBCs B. malaria C. damaging of spectrin D. containing specific granules in RBCs E. an amino acid substitution in hemoglobin 29. Which leukocyte is the most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood? A. neutrophils B. lymphocytes C. monoctes D. basophils E. eosinophils and lymphocytes 30. What kind of cells comprise hematocrit? A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. plasma and serum D. neutrophils E. RBCs 31. Identify the correct answer according to the next definition: very small nonnucleated, membrane-bound cell fragments. A. basophils and monocytes B. RBCs C. platelets D. granulocytes and agranulocytes E. monocytes and lymphocyes 32. Which of the following cells is accociated with antibody production? A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. monocytes D. basophils E. lymphocytes 33. What is hematocrit? A. volume of packed platelets in a sample of blood B. volume of packed macrophages in a sample of blood C. volume of packed plasma in a sample of blood D. volume of packed WBCs in a sample of blood E. volume of packed RBCs in a sample of blood 34. What is the approximate lifespan of circulating erythrocytes? A. 20 days B. 5 weeks C. 4 months D. 8 days E. 1 year 35. What is the function of albumin? A. maintains blood pressure B. maintains normal pH C. maintains physical pressure D. maintains thermoregulatory system E. maintain osmotic pressure 36. What kind os cells contain specific granules? A. eosinophils and lymphocytes B. monocytes, lymphocytes and eosinophils C. basophils, RBCs and monocytes D. lymphocytes and monocytes E. neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils 37. Identify cells that belongs to granulocytes? A. monocytes and eosinophils B. eosinophils and lymphocytes C. basophils and monocytes D. neutrophils and basophils E. lymphocytes and monocytes 38. Which leukocyte usually has a bi-lobed nucleus? A. Neutrophil & oB. Eosinophil C. lymphocytes D. Monocytes E. Basophils 39. Identify the cell that increases during the allergic reactions and helminthic diseases. A. monoctes B. eosinophils C. lymphocytes D. basophils E. neutrophils 40. What kind of cell contain histamin and heparin responsible for allergic reactions? A. basophils B. lymphocytes C. neutrophils D. eosinophils E. monoctes Immune system 1. Identify immunity which is evolutionarily older and provide nonspecific response. A. vaccine immunity B. adaptive immunity C. passive immunity D. innate immunity E. acquired immunity 2. Which type of antibody crosses placental barrier into the fetal circulation? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE E. IgD 3. Which type of antibody acts as antigen receptors in triggering B-cell activation? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgD E. IgF 4. What kind of structure present in the lymph node cortex? A. medullary sinuses B. lymphoid nodules C. red pulp D. white pulp  E. high endothelial venules 5. What kind of cells do contain on their surfaces MHC class II? A. just B and T lymphocyes B. all nucleated cells C. macrophages, dendritic cells, B lymphocytes D. all anucleated cells E. non of them 6. Which part of antigen usually recognaized by immune cells? A. enzymes B. epitopes C. toxins D. hormones E. nucleus 7. Which type of T lymphocytes contains CD8+ surface proteins? A. T helper B. T suppressor C. Nk cells D. T killer E. B lymphocytes 8. What kind of cells do form primary and secondary lymphoid nodule? A. Nk cells B. dendritic cells and T killer cells C. B lymphocytes and plasma cells D. T killer and T helper E. macrophages and T lymphocytes 9. Identify a major parts of innate immunity.  A. T and B lymphocytes B. antibodies C. skin, HCl, defensins D. spleen and MALT E. T helpers and T killers 10. What kind of cell provides humoral immunity? A. B lymphocyte B. RBC and paltelets C. viruses and toxins D. T lymphocyte E. complement protein 11. Identify secondary lymphoid organs. A. thymus, bone marrow B. MALT, thymus C. lymph nodes, spleen, MALT D. bone marrow, lymphoid nodules E. bone marrow, MALT 12. What kind of cells do contain on their surfaces MHC class I? A. all anucleated cells B. just macrophages, dendritic cells C. all nucleated cells D. just B and T lymphocyes E. non of them 13. Which of the following is responsible for humoral immunity? A. neutrophils B. Macrophages C. B lymphocytes D. T lymphocytes  E. Basophils 14. Identify antigen-presenting cells? A. just B and T lymphocyes B. non of them C. all nucleated cells D. all anucleated cells E. macrophages, dendritic cells, B lymphocytes 15. Which structure is partly encapsulated and covered by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium? A. Peyer’s patch B. Palatine tonsil C. Thymic (Hassal’s) corpuscle D. Appendix E. Lymph node 16. Recycling of iron and heme, the major complex containing iron, occurs most actively in which lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s)? A. Appendix B. Thymic (Hassal’s) corpuscle C. Lymph node D. Palatine tonsil E. Spleen 17. Which type of antibody produced in body as an initial response to an antigen? A. IgM B. IgE C. IgD D. IgG E. IgA 18. Which organ acts as a induction of central tolerance? A. spleen B. lymph node and lymphatic nodules C. bone marrow D. thymus E. MALT 19. What kind of substances are responsible for stimulation or suppressions of lymphocytes activities in adaptive immunity? A. enzymes B. neurotransmitters C. lysozyme D. interleukins E. interferons 20. What kind of cells form cytoreticulum? A. B lymphocytes OB. thymic epithelial cells C. T lymphocytes D. reticular cells E. dendritic cells and T killer cells 21. What kind of structures do comprise The MALT? A. spleen and thymus B. bone marrow and spleen OC. lymphocytes, IgA-secreting plasma cells, APCs, lymphoid nodules D. skin, HCl, defensins E. lymph node and spleen 22. What kind of cell covers the lymphoid nodules of Peyer patches? A. G cells  B. M cells C. F cells D. Z cells E. D cells 23. Which part of the thymus is responsible for positive selection? A. medulla B. capsule C. cytoreticulum D. cortex E. primary lobules 24. What is the term for the entire lymphatic region of the spleen? A. white pulp B. medullary sinuses C. red pulp D. cords of Billroth E. trabeculae 25. Which part of the thymus is responsible for negative selection? A. cortex B. capsule C. primary lobules D. medulla E. cytoreticulum 26. Many immune-related cellular activities are often impaired in aged patients. Which lymphoid organ(s) normally develop less functionality and increasing amounts of adipose tissue with age?  A. Splenic white pulp B. Thymus C. Splenic red pulp D. Palatine tonsil E. Peyer’s patch 27. What kind os structure belongs to MALT? A. tonsils, Peyer patches, appendix B. lymph nodes and lymphoid nodules C. spleen and tonsils D. spleen and thymus E. thymus, lymph nodes 28. What kind of cells produces antibody? A. T lymphocytes B. neutrophils C. plasma cells D. basophils E. macrophages 29. Which type antibody produced against allergens? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgM D. IgA E. IgG 30. How many % cells do survive selection process in thymus? A. 15% B. 6% C. 2 % D. 20% E. 10 % 31. Identify a major parts of adaptive immunity. A. skin, HCl, defensins B. lysozyme, Interferons C. lysozyme, HCl D. defensins, complement E. T and B lymphocytes 32. What kind of antibody usually presents in mucosae of digestive, respiratory and reproductive tracts? A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG E. IgD 33. Identify organ that belongs to MALT. A. adrenal gland B. lymph nodes and lymphoid nodules C. spleen D. Palatine tonsil E. Thymus 34. Which type of T lymphocytes binds with MHC class I proteins? A. B lymphocytes B. T killer C. Nk cells D. T helper E. T suppressor 35. Which type of T lymphocytes binds with MHC class II proteins?  A. T helper B. B lymphocytes C. T killer killer T D. T suppressor MAC-15 helpe E. Nk cells - 2 Tr 36. Identify primary lymphoid organs. A. Spleen, MALT CD4 B. bone marrow, MALT C. MALT, thymus D. lymph node and lymphatic nodules E. thymus, bone marrow 37. Which type of T lymphocytes contains CD4 surface proteins? A. non of them B. T helper C. Nk cells D. T killer E. T suppressor 38. How do cells in the immune system communicate with each - other? A. via cytokines B. via HCl C. via neurotransmitters D. they do not communicate with each other E. via action potential 39. What kind of structure releases cytokines that promote the development of regulatory T cells for peripheral tolerence? A. DA Vinci corpuscle B. Pacinian corpuscle  C. Hassal corpuscle D. non of them E. Meissner corpuscle 40. What kind of cell provides cell-mediated immunity? A. B lymphocyte B. RBC and platelets C. viruses and toxins D. complement protein E. T lymphocyte 1 - variant. 1. Which type of neuron is characterized by having a single, short process extending directly from the cell body? A. Bipolar neuron B. Unipolar neuron C. anaxonic D. Multipolar neuron E. Pseudounipolar neuron 2. Which of the following structures is responsible for conducting electrical signals away from the neuronal cell body? A. Axon B. Myelin sheath C. terminal bouton D. Dendrite E. Synapse 3. Which of the following types of synapses involve the connection between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendritic spine of another neuron? A. Axoglial synapse B. Axoaxonic synapse C. Axosomatic synapse D. Axodendritic synapse E. Dendrodendritic synapse 4. Which part of the neuron is responsible for the generation of action potential? A. axon terminal B. soma  C. terminal bouton D. axon hillock E. dendritic spines 5. Which of the following neurotransmitters are associated with the inhibitory functions of the nervous system? A. Dopamine B. a and b C. GABA and glycine D. Glutamate E. Serotonin 6. What kind of glial cells take a part in formation of blood brain barrier? A. oligodendrocytes B. ependimal cells C. Schwan cells D. astrocytes E. microglial cells 7. The process by which an action potential in the presynaptic neuron leads to the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft is known as: A. depolarization B. Reuptake C. Repolarization D. Excitation E. Exocytosis 8. Which type of neuron's process is the principal signal reception? A. axon B. dendrite  C. axon terminal D. axon hillock E. Nissel body 9. Which of the following types of synapses involve the connection between the axon terminal of one neuron and the cell body (soma) of another neuron? A. Axodendritic synapse B. Axoaxonic synapse C. Axosomatic synapse D. Dendrodendritic synapse E. Axoglial synapse 10. Which of the following structures are responsible for generating and propagating electrical signals in a neuronal cell? A. Dendrites B. soma C. Synaptic terminals D. cell body E. Axon 11. What kind of structure has the next characteristic: dynamic membrane protrusions along the small dendritic branches? A. axon terminal B. Nissel body C. dendritic spines D. dendritic pseudopods E. axon hillock 12. Which of the following describes a collection of neuronal cell bodies outside the central nervous system (CNS)? A. Ganglion B. Nucleus  C. Axon D. nerve fibers E. Tract 13. Which type of neuron is found in the olfactory system and is involved in the sense of smell? A. Pseudounipolar neuron B. Sensory neurons C. Motor neurons D. Projection neurons E. Interneurons 14. What kind of glial cell lines ventricles of brain? A. ependimal cells B. astrocytes C. Schwan cells D. microglial cells E. oligodendrocytes 15. The type of neuronal processes that receive signals from other neurons and transmit them toward the neuronal cell body are called: A. Ganglion B. Myelin sheaths C. Axons D. Dendrites E. Synapses 16. Which type of neuron is responsible for transmitting signals from sensory receptors to the central nervous system? A. all of them B. Projection neurons C. interneurons  D. Sensory neurons E. Motor neurons 17. Which type of neuron is responsible for transmitting signals from the central nervous system to muscles or glands? - A. Sensory neurons B. Projection neurons C. anaxonic D. interneurons E. Motor neurons 18. Which type of neuron has a single process that divides into two branches, functioning as both an axon and a dendrite? A. anaxonic B. bipolar neuron C. unipolar neuron D. Pseudounipolar neuron E. multipolar neuron 19. Which of the following cells are responsible for the phagocytosis - of cellular debris and pathogens in the nervous system? A. Oligodendrocytes B. Schwann cells C. Microglia D. Astrocytes E. ependimal cells 20. Which type of neuron is responsible for connecting and transmitting signals between other neurons within the central nervous system? - A. Sensory neurons B. Interneurons  C. non of them D. Motor neurons E. Projection neurons 21. Which of the following molecular motors are involved in axonal transport? - A. keratins B. Myosins C. Actins D. Kinesins and Dyneins E. Cadherins 22. What kind of neuron has one axon and one dendrite? A. pseudounipolar neuron B. unipolar neuron C. anaxonic neuron D. bipolar neuron E. multipolar neuron 23. The small gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes is called the: A. Myelin sheaths B. Synaptic vesicle C. Neurotransmitter D. Synaptic terminal E. Synaptic cleft 24. Which of the following types of transport - involve movement of cellular components ⑳away from the cell - body? A. Anterograde transport B. all of them C. Retrograde transport D. Dendritic transport  E. Exocytosis 25. Which of the following types of transport involve movement of cellular components towards the cell body? A. Exocytosis B. Dendritic transport C. Anterograde transport D. non of them E. Retrograde transport 26. Which of the following molecular motors are primarily involved in anterograde transport? A. Kinesins B. Dyneins C. Actins D. keratins E. Myosins 27. What kind of glial cells produce CSF? A. ependimal cells B. astrocytes C. oligodendrocytes D. microglial cells E. Schwan cells 28. What is Nissle bodies? A. Golgi apparatus + mitochondria B. RER + SER C. nucleus + cell membrane D. RER + polyribosomes E. proteosomes + peroxisomes 29. The specialized junction between two neurons where electrical or chemical signals are transmitted is called a: A. Node of Ranvier B. Neurotransmitter C. Ganglion D. Synapse E. Axon hillock 30. What kind of glial cells are derived from monocytes and provide defense for CNS? A. Satellite cells B. oligodendrocytes C. astrocytes D. microglial cells E. Schwan cells 31. What kind of glial cells covers each large neuronal cell body in the ganglia of the PNS? A. microglial cells B. Schwan cells C. astrocytes D. Satellite cells E. oligodendrocytes 32. Which of the following is responsible for the transmission of signals across the synapse to another neuron or target cell? A. Axon terminal B. Node of Ranvier C. Axon hillock D. Dendrite E. Myelin sheath 33. Which of the following cells in the nervous system is responsible for supporting and nourishing neurons?  A. Microglia B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells D. Astrocytes E. ependimal cells 34. What kind of glial cells form myelin sheat in CNS? A. ependimal cells B. microglial cells C. astrocytes D. Schwan cells E. oligodendrocytes 35. The neurotransmitters are stored within synaptic vesicles in the: A. Postsynaptic membrane B. Axon hillock C. Presynaptic membrane D. Myelin sheaths E. Synaptic cleft 36. What kind of glial cells form myelin sheat in PNS? A. microglial cells B. oligodendrocytes C. Schwan cells D. ependimal cells E. astrocytes 37. Which type of neuron is found in the retina of the eye and is involved in visual signal processing? A. anaxonic B. pseudounipolar neuron C. multipolar neuron  D. bipolar neuron E. unipolar neuron 38. The myelin sheath is primarily composed of: A. ependimal cells B. microglial cells C. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells D. Astrocytes E. Neuronal cell bodies 39. What kind of neuron has one axon and multiple dendrites? A. multipolar neuron B. pseudounipolar neuron C. multipolar neuron D. unipolar neuron E. anaxonic neuron 40. Which of the following molecular motors are primarily involved in retrograde transport? A. Actins B. Kinesins C. Dyneins D. keratins E. Myosins Cardiovascular system. 1. Identify the organ that propels blood through the system. A. lymphatic vessels B. kidney C. thymus D. veins eE. heart 2. What kind of cells forms impulse conducting system of the heart? A. contractile cardiac muscle fibers B. Purkinje fibers C. mesothelium D. endothelium aE. modified cardiac muscle cells 3. What kind of substances released by endothelium maintains nontrombogenic surface? A. gastrin, motilin, VIP B. renin, bradykinin, prostacyclin -C. heparin, tissue plasminogen activator, and von Willebrand factor D. somatostatin, serotonin, glucagon E. angiotensin-converting enzyme, nitric oxide 4. Which process identifies the formation of the vascular system from small existing vessels? A. vasculogenesis B. gluconeogenesis C. embryogenesis D. thrombogenesis E. angiogenesis - 5. Which organ contains venous portal system? A. eye B. uterus C. kidney D. spinal cord E. liver 6. Which type of vessel contains valves? A. venous portal system and arteriovenous shunts B. large and medium veins C. collecting and postcapillary venules D. continuous and discontinuous capillaries E. muscular and elastic arteries 7. What kind of substances are released by endothelium responsible for vasocontriction? A. gastrin, motilin, VIP B. renin, bradykinin, prostacyclin C. heparin, tissue plasminogen activator, and von Willebrand factor D. nitric oxide and prostacyclin E. endothelin-1, angiotensin-converting enzyme 8. Vasa vasorum serve a function analogous to that of which of -> - the following? A. Valves Venels of Vessel B. Basal lamina C. Coronary arteries D. Arterioles I E. Endothelial diaphragms 9. What kind of cells generate and conduct waves of depolirization which stimulate rhytmic contarctions A. contractile cardiac muscle fibers B. endothelium C. mesothelium D. modified cardiac muscle cells E. Purkinje fibers 10. What kind of sensory structure monitors arterial blood pressure? A. nasal sinuses B. adrenal sinuses C. Pacinian corpuscle D. chemoreseptors E. carotid sinuses 11. Which organs contain discontinuous capillaries? A. muscle, connective tissue, lungs B. nervous tissue, lungs, exocrine glands C. connective tissue and nervous tissue D. liver, bone marrow, spleen E. kidney, intestinal wall, choroid plexus 12. What kind of vessels constitute microvasculature? A. arterioles, capillaries, venules B. heart, arteries and veins C. only capillary bed D. arteries and veins E. only lymphatics 13. Which vessel layer consists chiefly of concentric layers of helically arranged smooth muscle cells?  A. tunica serosa B. tunica media C. tunica intima D. tunica adventitia E. tunica mucosae 14. Which organ contains venous portal system? A. uterus B. kidney C. eye D. hypothalamus-hypophyseal tract E. spinal cord 15. What kind of capillary is present in the liver? A. fenestrated B. sinusoidal C. obligated D. continuous E. obturated 16. Which organs contain fenestrated capillaries? A. muscle, connective tissue, lungs B. connective tissue and nervous tissue C. nervous tissue, lungs, exocrine glands D. kidney, intestinal wall, choroid plexus E. liver, bone marrow, spleen 17. Identify the cells that surround continuous capillaries and postcapillary venules and help regulate blood flow. A. endothelial cells B. glomus cells C. Herring bodies D. microglial cells  E. pericytes 18. Which organ is abundant with arteriovenous shunts? A. kidney B. skin C. liver D. brain E. heart 19. What kind of capillary is present in the kidney? A. fenestrated B. continuous C. obturated D. sinusoidal E. obligated 20. What kind of structure helps to coordinate the heartbeat by acting as electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles? A. endocardium B. myocardium C. subendocardium D. lymphatics E. cardiac skeleton 21. Identify the part of the cardiovascular system where arterioles can bypass the capillary networks and connect directly to venules. A. continuous capillaries B. arteriovenous shunts C. collecting venules D. postcapillary venules E. muscular venules 22. What kind of epithelium forms endothelim? A. simple squamos epithelium B. stratified squamous keratinized C. stratified squamous nonkeratinized D. simple cuboidal epithelium E. simple columnar epithelium 23. Which heart layer comprises the heart's impulse-conducting system? A. endocardium B. pericardium C. all of them D. epicardium E. sunendocardium and myocardium 24. Which organ contains arterial portal system? A. liver B. spinal cord C. hypothalamus-hypophyseal tract D. kidney E. uterus 25. Which process identifies the formation of the vascular system from embryonic mesenchyme? A. thrombogenesis B. angiogenesis C. gluconeogenesis D. embryogenesis E. vasculogenesis 26. What kind of capillary is present in connective tissue? A. obturated B. obligated  C. sinusoidal D. continuous E. fenestrated 27. Which organs contain fenestrated capillaries? A. kidney, intestinal wall, choroid plexus B. liver, bone marrow, spleen C. muscle, connective tissue, lungs D. non of them E. kidney, spleen 28. Which vessel layer contains vasa vasorum? A. tunica serosa B. tunica intima C. tunica mucosae D. tunica media E. tunica adventitia 29. Which type of vessel regulates blood flow into the capillaries, by precapillary sphincters? A. arteriole B. adrenal sinuses C. metarteriole D. E. 30. what kind of vessels efferent from the heart becomes smaller as they branch into the various organs, and carry blood to the tissue? A. veins B. lymphatics C. postcapillary venule D. arteries  E. capillaries 31. Which heart layer corresponds to the visceral layer of the pericardium? A. cardiac skeleton B. endocardium C. myocardium D. subendocardium E. epicardium 32. What kind of structure separates the musculature of the atria from the ventricles, forming part of interventricular and interatrial septa, extending into the valve cusps and the chordae tendinae to which they are attached? A. endocardium B. myocardium C. subendocardium D. cardiac skeleton E. lymphatics 33. Identify part of the cardiovascular system where happens diapedesis. A. postcapillary venules B. muscular venules C. arteriovenous shunts D. collecting venules E. continuous capillaries 34. What kind of vessels might be damaged by atherosclerosis? A. cardicac muscle tissue B. large and medium veins C. all type capillaries D. elastic arteries and large muscular arteries  E. lymphatic vessels 35. What kind of fiber provides the resiliency required for the vascular wall to expand under pressure? A. collagen fibers B. reticular fibers C. elastic fibers D. mixed fibers E. artificial fibers 36. What kind of sensory structure monitors blood CO2, O2, and as well as its pH? A. Pacinian corpuscle B. adrenal sinuses C. carotid bodies D. chemoreseptors E. carotid sinuses 37. What kind of vessels contains liquid with lightly staining proteins, leukocytes but does not normally contain red blood cells? A. veins B. capillaries C. arteriovenous shunts D. arteries E. lymph vessels 38. What kind of substances released by endothelium are responsible for vasodilatation? A. nitric oxide and prostacyclin B. gastrin, motilin, VIP C. heparin, tissue plasminogen activator, and von Willebrand factor  D. angiotensin-converting enzyme, nitric oxide E. renin, bradykinin, prostacyclin 39. What kind of structure surrounds, anchors, and supports all heart valves? A. lymphatics B. myocardium C. endocardium D. subendocardium E. cardiac skeleton 40. Identify vessels that are responsible for O2, CO2, nutrient, and waste product exchange between blood- and tissue. - A. capillaries B. postcapillary venule C. veins blood D. arteries E. lymphatic vessels Spelli tissue