Final Exam Histology PDF

1. In preparing tissue for routine light microscopic study, which procedure immediately precedes cleating the specimen with an organic solvent? Dehydration. 2. The basic living unit of all plants and animals? Cell. 3. The study of tissues is called? Histology. 4. The vital product of mitochond...

1. In preparing tissue for routine light microscopic study, which procedure immediately precedes cleating the specimen with an organic solvent? Dehydration. 2. The basic living unit of all plants and animals? Cell. 3. The study of tissues is called? Histology. 4. The vital product of mitochondria is? ATP (adenosine triphosphate). 5. Structure that connects the eyepiece to the objective lens? Body tube. 6. Microscope which does not depend on visible light? Electron microscope. 7. Step which occurs after the tissue is embedded in paraffin? Sectioning. 8. What color does hematoxylin stain structures? Blue (or purple, as it binds to nucleic acids). 9. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle? Ribosome. 10. Organelle which contains digestive enzymes? Lysosome. 11. Organelle which sorts and packages proteins within a cell is called? Golgi apparatus. 12. Folds on the inner mitochondrial membrane are called? Cristae. 13. Organelle which is considered the powerhouse of the cell? Mitochondrion. 14. Which of the following is NOT an inclusion? Membranous organelle. 15. Organelle which is involved in lipid metabolism? Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 16. The fluid inside the cell is called? Cytoplasm. 17. Limiting membrane of the cell is called? Plasma membrane. 18. General process which brings things into the cell is called? Endocytosis. 19. Organelle which produces protein for export? Rough endoplasmic reticulum. 20. Ribosomes are assembled in? Nucleolus. 21. Transport of solid particles is called? Phagocytosis. 22. Plasma membrane consists of all components except for? Cell wall (in animal cells). 23. Golgi complex performs all enumerated functions except for? Energy production. 24. Organelle which contains detoxifying enzymes? Peroxisome. 25. Biosynthesis of lipids takes place in? Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 26. Site of protein synthesis? Ribosome. 27. Polysaccharide that can be found on the outer surface of the cell membranes? Glycocalyx. 28. What structure contributes to the cell's cytoskeleton? Microtubules. 29. Cytoplasm basophilia is inherent in the cells that? Synthesize a lot of proteins. 30. Calcium ions storage takes place in? Sarcoplasmic reticulum (or smooth endoplasmic reticulum in general). 31. In a cell, subunits of ribosomes are formed in? Nucleolus. 32. Membranous organelles are all enumerated except for? Ribosomes. 33. In a light microscope used for histology, resolution and magnification of cells are largely dependent on which component? Objective lens. 34. Cytoplasm often stains poorly because its lipid content is removed by the organic solvents used in the clearing step in routine histological preparations. This problem is most likely to occur with? Lipid-rich tissues. 35. Oval and round organelles with double walls are seen at the electron micrograph. The outer membrane is smooth, the inner membrane folded into cristae containing enzyme ATPase synthesize. These are? Mitochondria. 36. A tissue sample of a benign tumor was studied under the electron microscope. A lot of small (15-20 nm) spherical bodies, consisting of 2 unequal subunits were detected. These are? Ribosomes. 37. The organisms to be identified have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Genetic material is concentrated predominantly in the chromosomes that consist of DNA strands and protein molecules. These cells divide mitotically. Identify these organisms? Eukaryotes. 38. Cells of a healthy liver actively synthesize glycogen and proteins. What organelles are the most developed in them? Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. 39. Which organelle contains detoxifying enzymes? Peroxisome. 40. Which organelle contains digestive enzymes? Lysosome. 41. What are the folds on the inner mitochondrial membrane called? Cristae. 42. Organelle involved in lipid metabolism? Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 43. In transmission EM preparations of cells, the cell membrane often appears as a trilaminar structure having two parallel dark-staining components on either side of an unstained middle layer. This central poorly stained region of the membrane is primarily responsible for which functions? Selective permeability and communication. 1. Cytoplasm often stains poorly because its lipid content is removed by the organic solvents used in the clearing step in routine histological preparations. This problem is most likely to occur in regions rich in which organelles? Adipocytes (fat cells). 2. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell? Anaphase. 3. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell? Metaphase. 4. The two main stages of the cell cycle are called? Interphase and mitotic phase (M phase). 5. DNA in a cell is copied during? S phase of interphase. 6. Cells spend most of their time in what phase? Interphase. 7. Last phase of mitosis, chromosomes are in two new cells and nuclear membranes start to reform? Telophase. 8. Organelle that contains enzymes that break down molecules? Lysosome. 9. Structures within the cells that carry out a job - most are membrane-bound? Organelles. 10. Organelle where sorting and packaging into vesicles takes place? Golgi apparatus. 11. Which of the following stains is used for routine histological examination? Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E stain). 12. Which of the following stains blue with H&E stain? Nuclei (due to hematoxylin). 13. Analysis of amniotic fluid that was obtained as a result of amniocentesis revealed cells with nuclei that contain sex chromatin (Barr's body). What can it be evidence of? Female fetus (indicating XX chromosomes). 14. An infant has been diagnosed with microcephaly. Doctors suspect that this brain disorder developed due to the fact that the mother had been taking actinomycin D during her pregnancy. What germinal layers have been affected by this teratogen? Ectoderm (as it affects neural development). 15. A histological specimen shows a significant amount of mucous connective tissue (Wharton's jelly), vessels, as well as residual yolk and allantois. Name this organ? Umbilical cord. 16. Nutrition of the embryo in the early stages of embryogenesis? Yolk sac. 17. Gastrulation occurs within the following days? Days 15-21 of development. 18. Large brown blastomeres form? During cleavage (particularly in the early stages). 19. Of these organelles in the ovum, the next is lacking? Centrioles. 20. Contains enzymes that digest a path for the sperm? Acrosome (of the sperm). 21. Human blastula is called? Blastocyst. 22. The connecting link between the mother's body and fetus? Placenta. 23. Large brown blastomeres form? During cleavage, particularly in the early stages. 24. In the neck of the spermatozoon are placed? Centrioles. 25. "Dark" and "light" blastomeres are formed in the process of? Cleavage. 26. In human fertilization and cleavage takes place in? Fallopian tube. 27. In the formation of the human placenta involved extraembryonic organ? Chorion. 28. Implantation of the human embryo takes place on? Approximately 6-10 days post-fertilization. 29. The human embryo, formed as a result of cleavage is called? Morula. 30. The implementation process of the embryo in the uterine wall is called? Implantation. 31. The human embryo development begins by the end of? The second week of gestation. 32. Which process in the third week of development converts the embryonic disc into the trilaminar embryo? Gastrulation. 33. Placenta accreta is a medical condition in which the placenta attaches abnormally to the myometrium. What is the earliest embryonic stage that this could occur, which cells are responsible for this attachment? The implantation stage; trophoblast cells. 34. Malformation of the peripheral nervous system is linked to specific groups of cells formed during neurulation, and these cells are derived from one of the three embryonic germ layers. What is this specific group of cells, and which embryonic layers are they derived from? Neural crest cells; derived from ectoderm. 35. A radioactive marker was applied to the mesoderm of a mammalian embryo. Which tissues or organs would have this marker in the adult? Muscles, bones, circulatory system, and connective tissues. 36. During which phase does the nuclear envelope begin to disappear? Prophase. 37. What exact cells are localized to the neural plate of the embryo during the third week of prenatal development? Neuroectoderm cells. 1. What is the prenatal structure that joins the pregnant woman and the developing embryo during the second week of prenatal development? Chorion. 2. From which of the following tissues listed will develop during prenatal development? Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. 3. Which of the following tissues listed will develop from the ectoderm layer of the embryo during prenatal development? Nervous tissue, epidermis of the skin, and parts of the eye. 4. Found in early prenatal development, the neural tube will form in the future which of the following structures? Central nervous system (CNS). 5. What type of tissue lines the urinary bladder? Transitional epithelium. 6. What type of epithelial cells are as tall as they are wide? Cuboidal epithelium. 7. What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels? Endothelium. 8. What type of gland secretes its product through a duct or tube? Exocrine gland. 9. What type of tissue lines the esophagus? Stratified squamous epithelium. 10. What type of epithelial cells are taller than they are wide? Columnar epithelium. 11. Which of the following is a unicellular gland? Goblet cell. 12. What is another term for an acinar gland? Alveolar gland. 13. What is a characteristic of the cells in the epidermis of the skin? They are keratinized. 14. An intermediate filament protein found in the cytoplasm of most epithelial cells is which of the following? Keratin. 15. An 11-month-old girl is referred to a pediatric gastroenterology clinic due to a history of generalized weakness, slow growth, and refractory diarrhea. Examination of the epithelium lining her small intestine confirms that the failure to absorb nutrients is most likely due to a significant decrease in which of the following? Microvilli (or brush border enzymes). 16. With a 5-year history of chronic respiratory infections, a 23-year-old, non-smoking man is referred to an otolaryngologist. A bronchial biopsy indicates altered structures in the epithelial cells. Which of the following, if altered to reduce function, is most likely involved in this patient's condition? Cilia. 17. What is a feature of a simple exocrine gland? It has a single duct that does not branch. 18. What is a feature of a compound exocrine gland? It has a branched duct system. 19. During holocrine secretion, what takes place? Entire cells disintegrate to release their contents. 20. During apocrine secretion, what takes place? A portion of the cell membrane buds off, containing the secretion. 21. During merocrine secretion, what takes place? Secretions are released via exocytosis without any loss of cellular material. 22. Anchoring junctions of epithelial cells include everything except for one? Tight junctions (these are not anchoring but sealing junctions). 23. The release of lipid droplets from cells is which type of secretion? Apocrine secretion. 24. Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland? Mucous glands. 25. A histological specimen presents an artery. One of the membranes of its wall has flat cells lying on the basal membrane. What type of cells is it? Endothelial cells. 26. A microslide contains the specimen of a gland composed of several secretory saccule-shaped parts that open into a common excretory duct. What gland is it? Compound acinar gland. 27. Gland that has an unbranched duct is called? Simple gland. 28. Type of epithelium that forms the epidermis? Stratified squamous epithelium. 29. What type of epithelium mostly covers the gastrointestinal tract? Simple columnar epithelium. 30. What type of epithelium composes the kidney tubules? Simple cuboidal epithelium. 31. On the basal membrane are located? Basal cells (and other components of the basement membrane). 32. Border tissue is? Connective tissue that interfaces with other tissue types, often found in organ boundaries. 33. Which of the following can be classified as "embryonic connective tissue"? Mesenchyme. 34. What type of tissue is Wharton's jelly? Mucous connective tissue. 35. Which connective tissue cell is a tissue macrophage? Histiocyte. 36. Which connective tissue cell type produces the ground substance in connective tissue? Fibroblast. 37. Which connective tissue cell type secretes histamine? Mast cell. 38. A microslide presents a tissue with spherical cells, each of them containing a large fat drop covered with a thin cytoplasm layer in its center. The nucleus is compressed and situated at the cell periphery. What tissue is it? Adipose tissue. 39. Which of the following can be classified as "specialized connective tissue"? Cartilage, bone, and blood. 40. There is mucous connective tissue in? The umbilical cord (Wharton's jelly). 41. The main cells of loose connective tissue for allergic reaction development are? Mast cells. 1. In newborns, the process of thermoregulation is provided by? Brown adipose tissue. 2. Blood monocytes give rise to? Macrophages and dendritic cells. 3. Loose connective tissue cells originating from neural crests are? Fibroblasts and adipocytes. 4. Connective tissues are developed from? Mesoderm. 5. What type of tissue is a tendon composed of? Dense regular connective tissue. 6. Which of the following formed elements do not contain a nucleus? Platelets and erythrocytes. 7. During granulopoiesis, the first specific granules are synthesized in the cytoplasm of? Myeloblasts. 8. During granulopoiesis, the primary (azurophilic) granules are synthesized in the cytoplasm of? Myeloblasts. 9. Effector cell of humoral immunity is? Plasma cell (derived from B cells). 10. Platelets are small cytoplasmic fragments of bone marrow cells called? Megakaryocytes. 11. Lifespan of erythrocytes is? Approximately 120 days. 12. What comes from a megakaryocyte? Platelets. 13. Which leukocyte is the most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood? Neutrophils. 14. Which of the following is a granulocyte? Neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils. 15. Which leukocyte has a multi-lobed (3-5 lobes) nucleus? Neutrophil. 16. Which cell has large blue granules, often obscuring the nucleus? Basophil. 17. Which leukocyte usually has a bi-lobed nucleus? Eosinophil. 18. What is another term for a platelet? Thrombocyte. 19. Punctata hemorrhage was found in the patient after application of a tourniquet. With dysfunction of what blood cells is it connected? Platelets (thrombocytes). 20. At the laboratory experiment, the leukocyte culture was mixed with staphylococci. Neutrophil leukocytes engulfed and digested bacterial cells. This process is termed? Phagocytosis. 21. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an increase in the circulating numbers of which cell type? Eosinophils. 22. A 35-year-old woman's physician orders laboratory blood tests. Her fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of the following? Plasma, buffy coat (white blood cells), red blood cells. 23. Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type (e.g., the A-B-O system)? Glycoproteins (specifically, A and B antigens). 24. Which area in cartilage is relatively collagen-poor and proteoglycan-rich? The matrix (particularly in the territorial matrix). 25. How does articular cartilage differ from most other hyaline cartilage? It has a thicker, more hydrated matrix and lacks a perichondrium. 26. What do you call the space where a chondrocyte sits in? Lacuna. 27. Classification of cartilage tissue into three types depends on? The composition of the extracellular matrix (type of fibers present). 28. Which type of cartilage is found in the walls of the eustachian tube? Elastic cartilage. 29. Which type of cartilage forms the skeleton of the fetus? Hyaline cartilage. 30. Which type of cartilage is characterized by the presence of elastic fibers? Elastic cartilage. 31. The process of intramembranous ossification begins with the formation of? Ossification centers in mesenchymal tissue. 32. Mesenchymal stem cells give rise to all cells of skeletal tissues except for one? Osteoclasts. 33. The structural unit of the mature compact bone is? Osteon (or Haversian system). 34. Bone growth in length is provided by? Epiphyseal plate (growth plate). 35. The process of endochondral ossification begins with? The formation of a hyaline cartilage model. 36. What cell is involved in bone resorption? Osteoclast. 37. What is the cylindrical structure in compact bone? Haversian canal. 38. What is the space that an osteocyte rests in? Lacuna. 39. What cell is an immature bone cell? Osteoblast. 40. What is the covering of a bone? Periosteum. 41. In healthy bone, canaliculi are likely to contain which one of the following? Extensions of osteocyte cytoplasm. 42. Which component of bone impedes the distribution of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes? Mineralized matrix. 43. Which of the following most accurately describes compact bone? Dense and forms the outer layer of bone. 44. In the diaphysis of a typical long bone, which of the following structures is in closest proximity to the trabeculae of cancellous bone? Medullary cavity (or marrow cavity). 1. During the histological study of the cortical shaft, basophilic cells with developed synthesis organelles can be seen on the bone surface under the layer of fibers. These cells take part in bone tissue regeneration. What shaft layer are they located in? Periosteum. 2. Which of the following is characteristic of the chromatophilic material called Nissl substance in neural tissue? Presence of rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes. 3. Which of the following events occurs immediately after an action potential reaches a synapse at an axon terminal? Release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. 4. In the choroid plexus, water from capillaries is transported directly into the cerebrospinal fluid by what structures? Ependymal cells. 5. What term applies to collections of neuronal cell bodies (somata) in the central nervous system? Nuclei. 6. Which structure contains trabeculae around which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows? Arachnoid trabeculae. 7. Which of the following is a characteristic of the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual fascicles in large peripheral nerves? Perineurium, which is composed of concentric layers of flattened fibroblasts. 8. Myelinated nervous fibers are characterized by the presence of all morphological features except for one? Continuous axon surface; myelinated fibers have nodes of Ranvier. 9. Neuroglial cells lining the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord are called? Ependymal cells. 10. Neurons whose axons form the motor endings on the surfaces of smooth muscle tissue are found in? Autonomic ganglia. 11. The organ belonging to the organs of the central nervous system is? Brain and spinal cord. 12. Neurotransmitter of the motor end plate is? Acetylcholine. 13. What are most neurons in the body? Interneurons. 14. What is the cell body of a neuron called? Perikaryon or soma. 15. Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system? Microglia. 16. What is the tissue that surrounds a nerve fascicle? Perineurium. 17. What are interneurons? Neurons that connect other neurons within the central nervous system. 18. What are the basophilic clusters of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum seen in neurons called? Nissl bodies. 19. A sensitive neural ganglion consists of roundish neurocytes with one extension that divides into axon and dendrite at some distance from the perikaryon. What are these cells called? Pseudounipolar neurons. 20. As a result of a mechanical injury, an over 10 cm long portion of a peripheral nerve was damaged. This caused an impairment of the upper limb activity. The patient was offered nerve transplantation. What glial cells will participate in regeneration and provide the trophism of the injured limb? Schwann cells. 21. As a result of an injury, the integrity of the anterior spinal cord root was broken. Specify the processes that had been damaged? The axons of motor neurons. 22. The basal lamina of a muscle fiber is part of which structure? Sarcolemma. 23. In structures called triads, what do the two lateral components of a triad represent? Terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 24. With the transmission electron microscope, skeletal muscle fibers can be seen to contain? Myofibrils. 25. Which characteristic is unique to cardiac muscle? Intercalated discs. 26. Smooth muscle tissue is characterized by all morphological features except for one? Striations (smooth muscle is non-striated). 27. Sarcomere is a segment of myofibril between? Two Z lines (Z discs). 28. White skeletal muscle fibers are characterized by all morphological and functional features EXCEPT for one? High myoglobin content (they have low myoglobin content). 29. Skeletal muscle fiber is characterized by all morphological features except for one? Involuntary contraction (skeletal muscle is voluntary). 30. Cardiac muscle fiber is characterized by all morphological features, except for one? Multinucleated fibers (cardiac muscle fibers are typically uninucleated). 31. In smooth muscle, calcium released by the smooth ER initiates contraction by binding to what protein? Calmodulin. 32. Which feature typifies T-tubules? They are invaginations of the sarcolemma. 33. Which characteristic is unique to smooth muscle? The presence of dense bodies. 34. In one type of muscle, numerous gap junctions, desmosomes, and adherens junctions are specifically localized in which structures? Intercalated discs (in cardiac muscle). 35. What is the connective tissue covering of a muscle fascicle? Perimysium. 36. What is actin? A globular protein that polymerizes to form thin filaments in muscle fibers, essential for muscle contraction. 1. What is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell? Sarcoplasm. 2. What region is made of thin filaments? I band. 3. What is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell called? Sarcolemma. 4. What is the covering of an individual muscle fiber? Endomysium. 5. When using a compound microscope, objective lenses can be found to have a magnification of all of the following, EXCEPT? Typically, they are 4x, 10x, 40x, and 100x; exceptions depend on the specific model. 6. What is a "compound microscope"? A microscope with two or more lenses that provides a higher magnification. 7. On a microscope, what structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens? Body tube or drawtube. 8. What is the role of the condenser lens? To focus light onto the specimen. 9. Which type of microscope has only one lens? Simple microscope. 10. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle? Ribosome. 11. Which organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell? Mitochondria. 12. Which of the following is NOT considered an inclusion? Organelle. 13. Collectively, what is the cytoplasm and nucleus called? Protoplasm. 14. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle? Ribosome (again). 15. What are developing gametes called? Gametocytes. 16. What is the female organ called where gametogenesis occurs? Ovary. 17. What are the follicular cells? Cells surrounding the oocyte in the ovarian follicle. 18. In the female, what is the correct term for the production of gametes called? Oogenesis. 19. What is the acidophilic glycoprotein coat which surrounds the oocyte? Zona pellucida. 20. What is the cavity within a secondary follicle? Antrum (or follicular cavity). 21. Which stage of the follicle is marked by the surrounding of flattened (squamous) follicular cells becoming cuboidal? Primary follicle. 22. Which one of the following are the earliest cells of spermatogenesis? Spermatogonia. 23. What is the "cap" at the anterior portion of a spermatozoon? Acrosome. 24. What is the mature sperm cell? Spermatozoon. 25. What type of tissue lines most ducts? Stratified cuboidal epithelium. 26. What type of epithelium is associated with goblet cells? Simple columnar epithelium. 27. Which of the following is lined by a serosa? Abdominal organs (such as the stomach). 28. What is a gland called if the secretory portion is flask-shaped? Acinar gland. 29. What forms the brush border? Microvilli. 30. What type of epithelium is more than one layer thick? Stratified epithelium. 31. What type of epithelium appears stratified but is not? Pseudostratified epithelium. 32. What type of epithelium is composed of cells which all touch the basement membrane and is only one cell layer thick? Simple epithelium. 33. What type of tissue forms the alveoli in the lung? Simple squamous epithelium. 34. What type of epithelium is composed of flat cells? Simple squamous epithelium. 35. Which of the following is NOT a fiber found in connective tissue? Elastic fiber (if you are referring to all fiber types in general). 36. Which connective tissue cell type contains properties of smooth muscle cells? Myofibroblasts. 37. Which one of these cells is NOT a cell type routinely found in loose connective tissue? Osteocytes. 38. Which of the following can be classified as "connective tissue proper"? Adipose tissue. 39. What does connective tissue develop from? Mesoderm. 40. Which connective tissue cell is derived from B lymphocytes? Plasma cells. 41. What type of connective tissue is an undifferentiated tissue found in the embryo? Mesenchyme. 42. What type of tissue is a ligament composed of? Dense regular connective tissue. 43. What is areolar tissue? A loose connective tissue that contains collagen and elastin fibers. 44. Which of the four basic tissue types does blood belong to? Connective tissue. 45. Which of the following is not considered a "formed element"? Plasma. 46. Approximately what percentage of the volume of blood do the formed elements comprise? About 45%. 47. Which leukocyte is the least abundant in a peripheral smear of blood? Basophils. 48. Which of the following is a granulocyte? Neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils. 49. Which is the largest leukocyte? Monocyte. 1. Which of the following is described as a "biconcave disc"? Red blood cell (erythrocyte). 2. What is another term for a red blood cell? Erythrocyte. 3. Which leukocyte has orange-pink granules? Eosinophils. 4. Which leukocyte is the second most abundant in a peripheral smear of blood? Lymphocytes. 5. How many types of cartilage are there? Three (hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage). 6. Which type of cartilage forms the intervertebral disc? Fibrocartilage. 7. What cell produces the cartilaginous matrix? Chondrocytes. 8. Which type of cartilage is characterized by a glassy matrix? Hyaline cartilage. 9. Which type of cartilage forms the articular surface on bones? Hyaline cartilage. 10. What is woven bone? A type of bone that is formed during development and repair, characterized by a disorganized structure. 11. What forms the epiphyseal growth plate? Hyaline cartilage. 12. What are the mineral crystals in bone called? Hydroxyapatite. 13. What is bone formation called when the bone is formed from a cartilage template? Endochondral ossification. 14. Which of the following is involved in the blood-brain barrier? Astrocytes. 15. Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system? Schwann cells. 16. Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system? Brain or spinal cord. 17. What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called? Ganglion. 18. Which of the following is the most abundant neuroglia cell? Astrocytes. 19. What is the end of an axon called? Axon terminal. 20. Which of the following forms myelin in the central nervous system? Oligodendrocytes. 21. What is the primary component of myelin? Lipid. 22. What are neurons in the retina? Photoreceptors (rods and cones). 23. What is another term for the cell body of a neuron? Soma or perikaryon. 24. Which of the following is composed of smooth muscle? Walls of blood vessels. 25. Which fiber type has more myoglobin? Slow-twitch muscle fibers (Type I). 26. What is the line that bisects the dark band in muscle? Z line (or Z disc). 27. What is the outer connective tissue covering of a muscle? Epimysium. 28. What is myosin? A protein that interacts with actin to cause muscle contraction. 29. Which of the following is composed of skeletal muscle? Biceps brachii (or any skeletal muscle). 30. What type of muscle is always multinucleated? Skeletal muscle. 31. What is another term for muscle cells? Myocytes. 32. Which of the following contains a substantial amount of smooth muscle? Digestive tract. 33. Which one of the following is a correct statement concerning Haversian systems (osteons)? They are the structural units of compact bone. 34. The formation of bone in the absence of a pre-existing cartilage framework is called? Intramembranous ossification. 35. Demineralized bone consists chiefly of? Organic matrix (primarily collagen). 36. In a slide showing spongy bone formed solely by intramembranous ossification, all of the following features may be found upon microscopic examination except? Haversian systems (osteons). 37. The oldest lamella of a Haversian system (osteon) is? The central (haversian) canal lamella. 38. Long bone grows in length as a result of? Endochondral ossification at the growth plates. 39. The largest cell typically present in bone marrow is the? Megakaryocyte. 40. Myelopoiesis refers to the formation of? Myeloid blood cells (including granulocytes and monocytes). 41. The circulating white blood cells which are fewest in number are the? Basophils. 42. Osteoclasts arise from? Monocyte/macrophage lineage. 43. Osteocytes arise most directly from? Osteoblasts. 44. Fibrocartilage is characterized at the light microscopic level by? Abundant collagen fibers and chondrocytes arranged in rows. 45. It is believed that worn out red cells are normally destroyed in the spleen by? Macrophages. 46. Blood platelets are products of? Megakaryocytes. 47. Bacteria are frequently ingested by? Neutrophils or macrophages. 48. The microscopic structure of certain parts of the temporomandibular joint differs from corresponding parts of most other articulations of the human body. One such difference is that the articulating surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are? Covered by a fibrocartilaginous disc. 49. The periodontal ligament is composed chiefly of? Dense connective tissue (primarily collagen fibers). 1. All of the following are associated with cartilage tissue except- Blood vessels. 2. Chondrocytes receive their nutrition via- Diffusion from surrounding matrix. 3. The most common cell in connective tissue proper is the- Fibroblast. 4. The presence of which one of the following characteristics is of least value in distinguishing bone from hyaline cartilage- Presence of collagen fibers. 5. Which one of the following cells would be best for the study of lysosomes- Macrophages. 6. Heparin is produced by- Mast cells. 7. The most common amino acid of collagen(ic) fibers is- Glycine. 8. All of the following have ribosomes attached to them except- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 9. Which one of the following parts of a cell lacks a bounding membrane- Ribosome. 10. Intracellular digestion is a chief function of the- Lysosome. 11. Which one of the following structures is visible in the light microscope- Nucleus. 12. The basal body of a cilium has a tubular filament arrangement which is identical to the pattern found in- Centrioles. 13. The electron dense layers of cell membranes are biochemically identified as- Phospholipid bilayer. 14. Which one of the following junctions is characterized by the fusion of the outer leaflets of the cell membranes of adjacent cells- Tight junctions (zonula occludens). 15. Cytoplasmic basophilia is characteristic of cells that- Are actively synthesizing proteins (e.g., plasma cells). 16. The epithelium of the gallbladder is composed of- Simple columnar epithelium. 17. In humans, the lining epithelium of the esophagus is- Stratified squamous epithelium. 18. Endothelium and mesothelium form cellular membranes which have the same histologic- Structure. 19. Which one of the following epithelia is least common- Transitional epithelium. 20. The broadest basis for classifying epithelium into subgroups is- Number of cell layers and cell shape. 21. Regarding simple columnar epithelium which statement is least descriptive- It is always ciliated. 22. Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of epithelium- Vascularization. 23. Glands are classified based on- Mode of secretion and structure. 24. The most prominent component of a skeletal muscle cell is- Myofibrils. 25. Caveolae in smooth muscle cells are thought to be analogous to- T-tubules in striated muscle. 26. The thick filaments of skeletal muscle fibers- Are primarily composed of myosin. 27. The exocrine cells secrete all of the following except- Hormones. 28. The contractile element (component) of skeletal muscle is in the- Myofibrils. 29. A node of Ranvier is- A gap in the myelin sheath of a nerve fiber. 30. Most of the nuclei seen in a cross section of a peripheral nerve belong to- Schwann cells. 31. Pacinian corpuscles usually are considered to be most responsive to- Vibration and pressure. 32. The cells that are responsible for forming myelin in the central nervous system are the- Oligodendrocytes. 33. Nissl substance in nerve cell bodies is associated with- Rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes. 34. A myelinated nerve has how many Schwann cells between two adjacent nodes of Ranvier- One Schwann cell. 35. The connective tissue investment seen with the light microscope around an individual muscle fiber of skeletal muscle is- Endomysium. 36. Fiber type which makes up fast-twitch muscle- Type II fibers. 37. This cell is associated with osteoid secretion- Osteoblast. 38. This cell is responsible for the majority of bone resorption/remodeling- Osteoclast. 39. Which microscope would be particularly useful for looking at living cells- Phase contrast microscope. 40. Synkaryon is- A cell with two or more nuclei fused together. 41. Normally most of the circulating white blood cells are- Neutrophils. 42. The glandular epithelium carries out the function- Secretion. 43. Epithelial tissues are mainly composed of- Cells with minimal extracellular matrix. 44. Type of connective tissue cell which contains properties of smooth muscle cells- Myofibroblast. 45. Macrophage of connective tissue- Is derived from monocytes. 46. Epithelial tissues receive a nutrition mainly from- Underlying connective tissue (via diffusion). 47. Type of epithelial cells which are as tall as they are wide- Cuboidal epithelium. 48. In embryogenesis, all types of connective tissue is developed on- Mesoderm. 49. The smooth muscle is found in- Walls of hollow organs (e.g., intestines, blood vessels). 50. Fiber type which has more myoglobin- Slow-twitch muscle fibers (Type I). Here are the answers to your questions: 1. Fiber type which gets its energy primarily from glycogen- Fast-twitch fibers (Type II). 2. Line that divides the dark band in the muscles- Z line (or Z disc). 3. Fiber type which is more resistant to fatigue- Slow-twitch fibers (Type I). 4. Region which is made of thin filaments- I band. 5. The thin filaments is- Primarily composed of actin. 6. Fiber type which is small in diameter- Slow-twitch fibers (Type I). 7. Fiber type which gets tired more- Fast-twitch fibers (Type II). 8. Fiber type which makes up slow-twitch muscle- Type I fibers. 9. The dark band in muscle is- A band (where thick filaments are present). 10. Regeneration of skeletal muscle tissue is dependent on- Satellite cells. 11. The development of smooth muscle tissue- Arises from the mesoderm. 12. Cambial element (skeletal) muscle tissue is- Myoblasts. 13. The structural element of the smooth muscle tissue is- Actin and myosin filaments. 14. The structural element of the cardiac muscle tissue is- Cardiac myocytes (muscle fibers). 15. The glial cell that helps to form cerebrospinal fluid is- Ependymal cells. 16. The most abundant glial cell in CNS is- Astrocytes. 17. The glial cell that helps to form the blood-brain barrier is- Astrocytes. 18. The glial cells arising from blood monocytes are- Microglia. 19. The glial cells lining the brain ventricles and the spinal canal are- Ependymal cells. 20. A site of communication between neurons is called- Synapse. 21. The principal region of the neuron for receiving information is- Dendrites. 22. Information is carried away from the neuron cell body by- Axon. 23. Glial cells provide protection and support for- Neurons. 24. The main function of the nervous tissue is- Communication and control of bodily functions. 25. The composition of nervous tissue is- Neurons and glial cells. 26. The main function of dendrites is- Receiving signals from other neurons. 27. Special organelles of neurons are- Nissl bodies (rough endoplasmic reticulum). 28. According to the functional value of processes, neurons are divided into- Afferent (sensory), efferent (motor), and interneurons. 29. Axial cylinders of nerve fibers consist of- Axoplasm surrounded by myelin sheath. 30. Which kind of neurons are sensitive- Sensory neurons (afferent). 31. The source of development of the microglia is- Mesodermal origin (from yolk sac progenitors). 32. The myelin sheath is formed by- Schwann cells (in PNS) and oligodendrocytes (in CNS). 33. Neuron, which process T-figuratively divided is called- Pseudounipolar neuron. 34. In a cell, the hydrolase vesicles are- Lysosomes. 35. Chemically the surface membrane receptors are- Proteins (often glycoproteins). 36. The reactions of humoral immunity are provided by- B lymphocytes (plasma cells). 37. Antigen-independent differentiation of T-lymphocytes takes place in- Thymus. 38. Large granular lymphocytes are- Natural killer (NK) cells. 39. Dense irregular connective tissue is found in- Dermis of the skin. 40. Main intercellular junctions between smooth muscle cells are- Gap junctions.