Final Exam for Pathophysiology PDF

lOMoARcPSD|43964769 Final exam for PATHOPHYSIOLOG Essentials of Pathophysiology (Rasmussen University) Scan to open on Studocu Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 1. Which is the best way to prevent spinal cord injuries? A. Stabilization to prevent further trauma to the spinal cord B. Moving the client’s neck and spine to maintain mobility C. Administering antibiotics to prevent invasion of bacteria D. Having the client bear weight immediately after injury 2. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure? (select all that apply) A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea B. Crackles auscultated in the lungs C. Jugular venous distention D. Peripheral edema E. Cough with frothy sputum 3. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client with a concussion? (select all that apply.) A. Vomiting B. Emotional disturbances C. Nausea D. Increased level of consciousness E. Headache 4. Which of the following statements are true regarding syphilis? (select all that apply.) A. It can cause damage to the central nervous system and cause blindness,paresis, and mental deterioration B. It is caused by an anaerobic spirochete C. In severe cases, it can cause problems with the cardiovascular system and aortic necrosis D. It is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) E. Syphilis is only communicable during the secondary stage 5. A nurse is educating a client on how to prevent squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is an appropriate method of prevention? A. Do not use sunscreen when it is cloudy B. Do not reapply sunscreen after prolonged outdoor activities C. Avoid wearing hats at all times D. Apply sunscreen when engaging in outdoor activities 6. The nurse expects to assess which symptom in a client with atopic dermatitis? A. Polyphagia B. Leprosy C. Abdominal pain D. Pruritus Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 7. Which of the following is the cause of frequent urination associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? A. Increased volume of dilute urine B. Irritation of the bladder and urethra C. Impaired micturition reflex D. Incomplete emptying of the bladder 8. The client with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) from gonorrhea asks how this can cause sterility. Which of the following is the best response from the nurse? A. “The infection causes such damage to the cervix that it cannot contain a pregnancy inside the uterus for more than 3 months.” B. “The infection remains in your body and can infect your baby, so it is best if you don’t become pregnant.” C. “The infection damages the ovary so that less estrogen is secreted, and ovulation is not possible.” D. “If the infection is present in the fallopian tubes and can cause enough scarring to block the tubes permanently.” 9. Which of the following clients would be most at risk for an intestinal obstruction? A. An individual diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver B. An individual eating a low-fiber, high-fat diet C. An individual who smokes and consumes large amounts of caffeine D. An elderly individual on bedrest because of post-operative abdominal surgery 10. Which type of hepatitis is commonly transferred via the fecal-oral route? A. Hepatitis D B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis A (Carlos) D. Hepatitis C 11. Which of the following properties are found in clients with metastatic cancer? A. Cells that are genetically stable B. Tumors that are well encapsulated C. Tumors with slow, stable growth D. Cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells 12. Which of the following is an elderly common symptom of cancer? A. Diarrhea B. Sudden weight gain C. Fatigue D. Muscle hypertrophy 13. Anemia can be caused by all the following except which? A. A decrease in production of red blood cells B. Increased red blood cell destruction Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 C. Hereditary causes D. Increase in the clotting cascade 14. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism for individuals with anemia? A. Tachycardia B. Increased platelet production C. Peripheral vasodilation D. Decreased red blood cell production 15. Which of the following is a goal when treating anemia? A. Reduce the client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels B. Improve tissue oxygenation C. Increased carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream D. Reduce oxygen toxicity 16. Which of the following is a cancer of the plasma cells that most often affects older adults? A. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma B. Leukemia C. Multiple myeloma D. Hodgkins lymphoma 17. Which of the following conditions is characterized by malignant granulocytes that carry a unique chromosomal abnormality? A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Melanoma C. Hodgkins lymphoma D. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma 18. Which of the following explains why individuals with acute leukemia are at risk for opportunistic infections? A. Decreased appetite and nutritional intake B. Many nonfunctional immature leukocytes C. Marked elevation of white blood cells D. Severe anemia and increased risk of bleeding 19. The nurse notes that the client needs further education regarding the Epstein-Barr Virus and mononucleosis when they state which of the following? A. “I should be able to go play football in a couple of days.” B. “I will try my best to stay on top of my fluid intake.” C. “It is okay for me to take antipyretics for my fever.” D. “I should take it easy when I get home and get plenty of rest.” 20. Acute chest pain syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that causes chest pain, coughing, dyspnea and fever, is associated with which of the following disorders? Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 A. Hemophilia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Sickle cell disease D. Epstein-Barr virus 21. A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of back pain. The x-rays reveal multiple areas of reduced bone density and a compression fracture of the vertebra. His lab work revealed elevated serum calcium levels. Which of the following diseases is the most consistent with these findings? A. Sickle cell disease B. Leukemia C. Multiple myeloma D. Lymphoma 22. Valve stenosis results in which of the following alterations in blood flow through the heart? A. Blood flows backward across the valve, causing rupture of the heart chambers B. Blood flows backward across the valve because it does not close fully C. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve because it does not open fully D. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve due to a problem with the papillary muscle 23. Cardiac tamponade is a condition in which a large amount of fluid accumulates around the heart and impedes which of the following? A. Contraction of the heart during systole B. Electrical conduction through the myocardium C. Stretching and filling of the heart during diastole D. Systemic vascular resistance 24. Which of the following is a cause of cardiogenic shock? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Allergic reaction C. Spinal cord injury D. Myocardial infarction 25. A client is diagnosed with hypertension with no identifiable cause. This type of hypertension is known as which of the following? A. Primary hypertension B. Tertiary hypertension C. Secondary hypertension D. Malignant hypertension 26. Which type of cardiomyopathy causes an enlarged, floppy ventricular heart muscle? A. Hypertrophic B. Dilated C. Restrictive Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 D. Obstructive 27. Loss of sympathetic tone in the smooth muscle of arteries and veins secondary to spinal cord damage leads to massive in which type of shock? A. Septic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Neurogenic shock D. Hypovolemic shock 28. The nurse monitors for which complication in the client with large renal calculi? A. Chronic hypertension B. Hydronephrosis C. Polyuria D. Dysuria 29. Excess urea and other nitrogen wastes in the blood is referred to as which of the following? A. Dysuria B. Azotemia C. Bacteremia D. Hematuria 30. Which of the following would trigger activation of the renin-angiotensin system (RAAS)? A. Decreased blood flow to the kidneys B. Elevated serum potassium level C. An increase in blood pressure D. A decrease in urine pH 31. Which of the following is not a function of the kidney? A. Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes B. Production of albumin C. Regulation of body fluid concentrations D. Activation of vitamin D 32. Identify which clinical manifestation is common finding of all forms of heart failure? A. Pulmonary edema B. Reduce cardiac output C. Peripheral edema D. Jugular venous distention 33. Which of the following would be used to identify clients myocardial infarction (MI)? A. Performing a 12-lead ECG to determine cardiac changes B. The client's presenting symptoms when seeking care C. Ordering a complete blood cell (CBC) count D. Getting a head computerized tomography (CT) scan Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 34. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of septic shock? A. Decreased cardiac output B. Decreased capillary permeability C. Polyuria D. Increased cardiac output 35. Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension? A. The heart and kidneys B. The stomach and intestines C. The bladder and urethra D. The brain and skin 36. A pulsating mass that is noted in the mid-abdomen may indicate which of the following conditions? A. Aortic aneurysm B. Heart palpitations C. Pulmonary embolus D. Cardiac dysrhythmia 37. A client has a regular heart rate of 54 beats per minute. The nurse would recognize this rhythm as which of the following? A. Tachypnea B. Normal C. Tachycardia D. Bradycardia 38. Which of the following clinical manifestations are present in anaphylactic shock? A. Airway dilation and hypertension B. Airway obstruction and hypotension C. Tachycardia and hypertension D. Tachypnea and airway dilation 39. Which of the following is a common culprit of bacterial skin infections? A. Tinea B. Staphylococcus C. Pneumocystis carinii D. Verrucae 40. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetes insipidus C. Acromegaly D. Cushing syndrome Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 41. A nurse educator is teaching a group of student nurses about the signs and symptoms of thyroid storm. Which findings are included in the teaching? A. Hypotension, translucent skin, obesity B. Profuse sweating flushing, and constipation C. Fever, tachycardia, and systolic hypertension D. Nausea, bradycardia, and severe headache 42. Which of the following does not occur in Addison’s disease? A. Low levels of serum ACTH B. Exophthalmos C. Low levels of serum cortisol D. Increased skin pigmentation 43.Polycethemia vera is caused by an overproduction of which of the following? A. Basophils B. Erythrocytes C. Leukocytes D. Neutrophils 44. Which of the following is a life-threatening condition that can occur when tissue factor is exposed to blood? A. Pernicious anemia B. Von Willebrand disease C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D. Infectious mononucleosis 45. Deficiency of Vitamin B-12 can lead to which type of anemia? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Aplastic anemia 46. Which of the following is an inherited disorder that results in decreased coagulation? A. Hemophilia B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) C. Aplastic anemia D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) 47. Which of the following is considered a macrocytic anemia? A. Thalassemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Hemolytic anemia Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 48. Which of the following would cause a client to experience gout? A. Increased ammonia levels in the blood B. Decreased presence of serotonin receptors C. Decreased calcium intake D. Overproduction of uric acid 49. Which condition is a cause of rickets? A. Vitamin D excess B. Phosphate deficiency C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Calcium excess 50. Which of the following can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and subsequent infertility? A. Trichomoniasis B. Herpes simplex C. Genital warts D. Chlamydia 51. The client with human papillomavirus is at risk for which type of cancer? A. Stomach cancer B. Cervical cancer C. Pancreatic cancer D. Lung cancer 52. Which of the following stores electrolytes and acts as an electrolyte pool? A. Nails B. Brain C. Kidneys D. Bone 53. Which of the following describes what is occuring in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia? A. Crackles auscultated in the lungs B. Insufficient circulating blood volume C. Bounding peripheral pulses D. Increased urine retention 54. A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of lower extremities. Which of the following to describe this finding? A. Symptom B. Contraindication C. Sign Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 D. Subjective data 55. Which of the following can occur with clients who have hyponatremia? A. Increased energy and mental clarity B. Weak peripheral pulses C. Potentially fatal brain swelling D. Thirst and dry mouth 56. Which of the following conditions results from excessive immune responses? A. Type II diabetes B. Chronic renal failure C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Onychomycosis 57. An autoimmune disease can be best described by which of the following statements? A. An extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment B. Excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to a foreign antigen C. Failure of the immune system to distinguish “self” from “non-self” D. An abnormal response to ingested food and drugs 58. The nurse recognizes warmth and redness in an inflamed area of the client’s skin. What is the most likely? A. A large number of white blood cells entering the area B. Increased interstitial fluid C. Increased blood flow into the area D. Production of complement 59. Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control mechanism? A. Fever B. Joint stiffness C. Throat pain D. Positive throat culture 60. A client’s body appears to have his arms and legs held straight, toes are pointed downward, and the backward. What type of posture is this representative of? A. Disconjugate B. Decorticate C. Decerebrate D. Deranged 61. Periodic severe headaches that may be completely incapacitating are known as which of the following? A. Migraines Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 B. Neuralgia C. Peripheral neuritis D. Cephalalgia 62. Which type of seizures result in abnormal neuronal activity in both hemispheres of the brain? A. Generalized seizures B. Automatisms C. Focal seizures D. Partial seizures 63. Which of the following is true regarding myasthenia gravis? A. Myasthenia gravis results in progressive muscle weakness B. Myasthenia gravis may result in an adrenergic crisis C. Myasthenia gravis affects the nerve roots within the spinal cord D. Myasthenia gravis is caused by an acute viral infection 64. Symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are caused by a deficit in which neurotransmitter? A. Acetylcholine (ACh) B. Norepinephrine (NE) C. Dopamine D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) 65. What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury? A. Confusion, irritability, and retrograde amnesia B. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis C. Hypertension, neurogenic shock, and tachycardia D. Headache, bradycardia, and elevated blood pressure 66. An inherited disorder in which the individual displays abrupt, bizarre, involuntary, dancelike motor functions is known as which of the following? A. Parkinson’s disease B. Huntington’s chorea C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) 67. Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of the following? A. Paraplegia B. Peripheral neuritis C. Quadriplegia D. Degenerative disk disease Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 68. Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse would document this condition as which of the following? A. Hydroureter B. Cryptorchidism C. Hypospadias D. Epispadia 69. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? A. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm B. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency C. The tumor usually becomes malignant in time D. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops 70. A client presents to the emergency department with a distended abdomen, a yellowish tone to his (unknown ending) The nurse suspects which of the following is the cause of these symptoms? A. Liver disease B. Inflammatory bowel disease C. Appendicitis D. Congestive heart failure 71. Dysfunction of which organ is associated with the development of esophageal varices? A. Kidney B. Spleen C. Liver D. Pancreas 72. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracostomy and/or chest tube placement as the treatment pathophysiology of the condition? A. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural, affecting both lungs and 73. Which of the following leads to the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema? A. Bacterial infections in the the lungs B. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm C. Peripheral edema D. Air trapping in the alveoli 74. Which of the following activities is most likely to trigger exercise-induced asthma? A. Sleeping B. Bicycling C. Swimming D. Running Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 75. How does severe hypoxia develop with pneumonia? A. Infection reduces effective compensation by the heart B. Acidosis depresses respirations C. Inflammatory exudate absorbs oxygen from the alveolar air D. Oxygen diffusion is impaired by the congestion 76. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms in the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia? A. Effusion B. Inflammation C. Atelectasis D. Tracheal deviation 77. How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (Tb), transmitted infection? A. Skin to skin contact with the infected person B. Airborne droplets inhaled into the lungs C. Oral-fecal transmission from poor hygiene D. Walking barefoot outdoors 78. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Accumulation of air in the pleural space B. Inflammation leads to lungs fibrosis and loss of elasticity C. Obstruction of the trachea and larynx D. Excess fluid compresses the lung, limiting expansion 79. Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through a vascular tangle of malformed vessels? A. Arteriovenous malformation B. Cavernous angioma C. Arteriovenous angioma D. Capillary telangiectasia 80. Meningitis is deﬁned as inﬂammation of which of the following? A. Meninges B. Heart C. Kidneys D. Spinal cord 81. Which of the following describes the cause of cerebral palsy? A. Brain damage that is reversible with cognitive therapy with the infant client B. Irreversible brain damage that can occur before, during, or after birth or infancy Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 C. Brain damage that manifests as an adult after normal childhood activities D. Transient brain damage that resolves in adulthood from physical therapy 82. Which of the following describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? A. It results in an outpouching of a cerebral artery B. It is a temporary episode of cerebral ischemia C. Symptoms of transient ischemic attacks can last for several days to several weeks D. It results in signiﬁcant neurologic dysfunction and death 83. Atrial ﬁbrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and vascular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? A. Hemorrhagic B. Embolic C. Lacunar D. Thrombotic 84. How is a hemorrhagic stroke different from a thromboembolic stroke? A. There is no difference in hemorrhagic and thromboembolic stroke B. A hemorrhagic stroke is the result of bleeding in or around the brain C. A hemorrhagic stroke is the result of a clot D. A hemorrhagic stroke does not result in brain damage 85. The nurse is reviewing the difference between rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and osteoarthritis (OA). Which is incorrect regarding RA and OA? A. RA is an inﬂammatory joint disorder while OA is a degenerative joint disorder B. The disease pattern of RA is usually unilateral and affects a single joint…(unknown ending) C. The typical onset of RA is between 35 and 45 years of age, whereas the typical onset of OA..(unknown ending) D. The risk factors or causes of RA are probably autoimmune, whereas OA may be caused… (unknown ending) 86. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome? A. Hemorrhage B. Chronic kidney disease C. Pain and tissue damage D. Increased limb function 87. A client presents with a lateral curvature of the spine as shown in the image below. The nurse knows this following conditions? Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 A. Lordosis B. Osteoporosis C. Scoliosis D. Kyphosis 88. What is the function of the ribosomes within cells? A. Produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for energy B. Form lipids on the outside of the cell C. Production of proteins D. Form protective barrier around the cells 89. What is the pathophysiology of type I diabetes? A. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production B. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance C. Destruction of beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin D. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas 90. A 40-year-old female client has type 2 diabetes. The nurse is aware that type 2 diabetes is caused by which of the following? A. Inability to produce insulin by the pancreas B. Peripheral tissue insulin resistance C. Destruction of beta cells within the pancreas D. Insuﬃcient growth hormone produced during childhood 91. Which of the following explains why cystitis is more common in females? A. Females have a higher incidence of congenital anomalies compared to males B. The mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous with renal structures C. The urethra is short and adjacent to areas with resident ﬂora D. The pH of urine is more acidic in females compared to males 92. Which of the following describes the normal ﬂow of urine? A. Ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder B. Collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra C. Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder D. Renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter 93. In extrinsic asthma the immune system responds to the presence of allergens by causing which of the following symptoms? A. Bronchoconstriction Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 B. Decreased cough reﬂex C. Decreased sputum production D. bronchodilation 94. What symptom would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Normal lung sounds B. Normal arterial blood gases C. Onset of the disease during young adulthood D. Dyspnea on exertion 95. Orthopnea is deﬁned as which of the following? A. Waking up suddenly, coughing, and struggling for breath B. Very dep, rapid respirations C. Noisy breathing with stridor or rhonchi D. Diﬃculty breathing when lying down 96. A 58-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes a day has a chronic…sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following? A. Cystic ﬁbrosis B. Pneumonia C. Asthma D. Chronic bronchitis 97. What is a common ﬁnding in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A. Hypertension B. Retention of oxygen C. Severe hypoxemia (Carlos) D. Peripheral edema 98. Which of the following represents normal arterial blood gas values? A. pH 7.15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L B. pH 7.25, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, PaO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 18 mEq/L C. pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L D. pH 7.40, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 80 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L 99. Which of the following would result from hyperventilation? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 100. What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis? A. Hyperinﬂation of the chest and stridor B. Sneezing, mild cough, and fever C. Sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva( Carlos) D. Hoarse voice and barking cough 101. Which of the following causes hepatic encephalopathy? A. Untreated chronic bronchitis B. Decreased albumin blood levels C. A brain infection D. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream 102. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells B. Demyelination of the neurons C. Clotting and bleeding disorders D. Decreased production of dopamine 103. What tool is used to determine a client’s levels of consciousness? A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Central perfusion pressure (CPP) 104. A client experiences excruciating pain that radiates along the side of their face induced by shaving and while eating. What disorder does the nurse suspect? A. Migraine B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Bell’s palsy D. Peripheral neuritis 105. Nuchal rigidity, headache, and photopia are symptoms of which of the following? A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Meningitis C. Post-polio syndrome D. Hydrocephalus 106. A client had a sudden loss of muscle tone, lasting for seconds, followed by postictal confusion. The nurse understands this client is suffering from which type of seizure activity? A. Tonic-clonic seizure B. Pseudoseizure Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 C. Simple partial seizure D. Atonic seizure 107. A client who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. The client reports severe head pain and blurred vision. Which is the most likely cause for these clinical manifestations? A. Experiencing acute anxiety B. Developing spinal shock C. Experiencing parasympathetic areﬂexia D. Developing autonomic dysreﬂexia 108. The clinic nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with ﬁbromyalgia. Which of the following would the nurse expect to observe in this individual? A. Altered nutrition B. Impaired skin integrity C. Fatigue D. Bladder incontinence 109. Which term is used to identify a bone fracture that is characterized by multiple fracture lines and bone pieces? A. Complete fracture B. Open fracture C. Oblique fracture D. Comminuted fracture 110. A client is experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). What causes cardiac tissue death in a MI? A. The client hasn’t exercised in three days B. Oxygen and other vital nutrients are not being delivered to the tissue C. A broken valve has caused bleeding and loss of blood D. Elevated serum electrolyte levels 111. A client arrives in the walk-in clinic and has been identiﬁed to be a risk for hypertension. Which of the following is a modiﬁable risk factor for this individual? A. Age of 70 years B. Family history of hypertension C. Frequent intake of high-sodium meals D. African American race 112. The condition where fat-containing substances are deposited on the coronary artery lumens causing the arteries to narrow is known as which of the following? A. Ischemia Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 B. Cerebral artery disease C. Coronary artery disease D. Congestive heart failure 113. Which of the following factors is not modiﬁable for clients with hypertension? A. Obesity B. Sedentary life C. Increasing age D. Dietary intake 114. Which of the following are risk factors for hypertension (HTN)? A. Tobacco use B. High sugar, low-fat diet C. Low-fat diet D. Increased physical activity 115. Which of the following terms describes painful menstruation? A. Amenorrhea B. Polymenorrhea C. Dysmenorrhea D. Premenstrual syndrome 116. Which term describes a cystic mass, usually ﬁlled with straw-colored ﬂuid, that forms around the testis? A. Rectocele B. Varicocele C. Cystocele D. Hydrocele 117. A client is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction. Which symptoms would the individual most likely experience? A. Hematuria B. Anuria C. Pyuria D. Flank pain 118. Which of the following is a chronic, noninfectious disorder that manifests as pain and inﬂammation in the bladder? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Urolithiasis C. Cystitis D. Glomerulonephritis Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 119. Which assessment parameters will the nurse monitor in a client with chronic kidney disease to determine ﬂuid and sodium retention status? A. Weight and blood pressure B. Caloric intake and exercise C. Capillary reﬁll and pupillary light reﬂex D. Muscle strength and deep tendon reﬂexes 120. Which type of white blood cells play a role in cell-mediated immunity and the production of immunoglobulins? A. Lymphocytes B. Monocytes C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages 121. A ﬁve-year-old continues to wet-the-bed while sleeping and has even urinated during his kindergarten class in front of his peers. This condition is known as which of the following? A. Stress incontinence B. Normal micturition C. Overﬂow incontinence D. Enuresis 122. What condition can be caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone (GH) released by the pituitary gland in childhood before epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused? A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) B. Acromegaly C. Gigantism D. Dwarﬁsm 123. Which of the following is one of the earliest signs of decreased cardiac output? A. Alertness B. Capillary reﬁll less than 3 seconds C. Light yellow urine D. Oliguria 124. Which of the following is a component of the pathophysiology of shock which causes lactic acid to accumulate in the body? A. Tissue hypoxia B. Vasodilation C. Vasoconstriction D. Tissue hyperoxia Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 125. How does unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris? A. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by periods of rest B. Unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina C. Unstable angina pectoris manifests in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only D. Unstable angina pectoris can only be diagnosed by changes in cardiac biomarkers 126. The client with pale, cold, clammy skin, a rapid and weak pulse, tachypnea, and an altered level of consciousness may be experiencing which of the following conditions? A. Atherosclerosis B. Shock C. Hypertension D. Heart failure 127. A client is experiencing sickle cell crisis, which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? A. Fatigue and braycardia B. Fluid retention and weight gain C. Dyspnea and bone pain D. Fever and diarrhea 128. Clinical manifestations of all types of anemia could include all of the following except which? A. Pallor B. Chest pain C. Tachycardia D. Weakness 129. Which of the following is typically one of the ﬁrst signs of Disseminated intravascular Coagulation (DIC)? A. Petechiae on the skin and mucous membranes B. Paie conjuctivae C. Skin blanching D. Diaphoresis 130. Which of the following is not an example of a clinical manifestation of leukemia? A. Increasing age and strength B. Easy bruising C. Weight loss D. Recurrent infections Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 131. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a severe complication of which of the following conditions? A. Cystic ﬁbrosis B. Emphysema C. Sepsis D. Gastritis 132. All the following are clinical manifestations of hemophilia except which? A. Excessive blood clot formation B. Easy bruising C. Spontaneous hematuria D. Prologned mucosal bleeding 133. Clinical manifestations of the Epstein-Barr Virus include all of the following except which? A. Chills B. Nausea and vomiting C. Sore throat D. Malaise 134. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis. Which pH ﬁnding would be consistent with this diagnosis? A. 7.49 B. 7.29 C. 7.35 D. 7.45 135. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with bronchitis? A. Bradycardia B. Wheezing C. Crackles D. Thick, tenacious mucus 136. Which of the following is associated with clients who have cystic ﬁbrosis? A. Increased absorption of nutrients B. Normal breath sounds C. Excessive urination D. Excessive mucous secretion Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 137. What signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with asthma? A. Wheezing, dyspnea, and coughing B. Coughing, diarrhea, and hypoventilation C. Crackles, dyspnea, and oliguria D. Normal lung sounds, dyspnea, and hyperventilation 138. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in a client experiencing hypoventilation? A. Decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli B. Increased oxygenation in the alveoli C. Increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream D. Decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream 139. Which of the following are the most common clinical manifestations of cystitis? (select all that apply.) A. Urinary frequency B. Pain in the suprapubic area C. Hypotension D. Fever E. Dysuria 140. Which of the following factors describe the Virchow triad? (Select all that apply.) A. Venous blood hypermobility B. Endothelial injury C. Sluggish blood ﬂow D. Damage to the arterial wall E. Hypercoagulability 141. Which of the following are clinical manifestations that may be observed in a client with cellulitis? (Select all that apply.) A. A circular erythematous rash in the affected area B. Warmth in the affected area C. Honey-colored crust over lesions in the affected area D. Swelling of the affected area E. Fever Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 142. Which of the following statements are true regarding benign tumors? (Select all that apply? A. A benign tumor doe not usually have an immediate potential to kill the host B. A benign tumor causes much less damage to its host than a malignant tumor C. If the tumor has moved to another part of the body, it is likely benign D. If cells from a tumor have crossed the basement membrane, they are more likely to be benign E. Benign tumor are more likely to resemble their tissue type of origin compared to malignant tumors 143. All the following changes can occur in the skin of elderly clients except which of the following? A. Decreased elasticity of the dermis B. Increased subcutaneous fat C. Thinning of the epidermis D. Decreased vascularity of the dermis 144. What physiological reaction happens to the body with the “ﬁght or ﬂight” response? A. Dilated pupils B. Decreased blood pressure C. Decreased heart rate D. Decreased respirations 145. Which of the following patients is most at risk of developing hepatitis B? A. A 54-year-old woman who takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) daily for headaches B. A 33-year-old businessman who travels frequently C. A 24-year-old college student who has had several sexual partners D. A 23-year-old college student that binge drinks 146. A client is admitted to the healthcare facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. The nurse expects this client stool to appear like which of the following? A. Black and tarry B. Bright red C. Coffea-ground-like D. Clay-colored 147. Which statement is true concerning scabies infection? A. Fleas cause a scabies infection B. A blood-sucking, nocturnal parasite causes scabies C. Pediculus capitis and Pediculus corporis are two species that can cause scabies D. Burrows and papules are characteristics of a scabies infection Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 148. The nurse understands that administering which of the following intravenous solutions would cause ﬂuid to shift from the extracellular space to the intracellular space? A. Isotonic solution B. Hypertonic solution C. Hypotonic solution D. Isometric solution 149. Clinical manifestations of ﬂuid volume overload include which of the following? A. Bounding pulses, crackles, and hypotension B. Dyspnea, bounding pulses, and crackles C. Thirst, oliguria, and weight loss D. Dyspnea, and dry, thick mucus membranes 150. Electrolyte movement across the capillary wall occurs through which of the following processes? A. Gas exchange B. Osmosis C. Filtration D. Diffusion 151. A sprain is classiﬁed as an injury due to stretching or tearing of which of the following structures? A. Muscle B. Fascia C. Tendon D. Ligament 152. Dialysis is a necessary treatment for those in end-stage renal disease because it does which of the following? A. Adds chemicals to the bloodstream to help the kidneys B. Prepares the client for kidney transplant C. Removes excess ﬂuid and waste products D. Filters out bacteria causing infection 153. Which of the following will the nurse do to identify a client with kidney disease? A. Omit assessment of pain as the kidneys do not sense pain B. Percuss the costovertebral angle for pain C. Identify pain in the cervical dermatomes D. Evaluate for pain in the arms and legs Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 154. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production? A. Erythropoietin B. Testosterone C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone D. Insulin and glycogen 155. In pernicious anemia, intrinsic factor is not being secreted by which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa? A. Chief B. Visceral C. Parietal D. Langerhans 156. Which statement below differentiates asthma from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Asthma is characterized by a decrease in oxygen saturation whereas COPD is characterized by an increase in oxygen saturation B. Airﬂow obstruction caused by asthma is reversible whereas airﬂow obstruction in COPD is irreversible C. Smoking makes asthma worse whereas smoking has no effect on COPD D. Asthma is an obstructive disease whereas COPD is an acute disorder 157. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of exercise-induced asthma? A. Bronchoconstriction after ingesting high-allergen foods B. Increased mucus production due to a genetic mutation C. IgE-mediated inﬂammatory response to an antigen D. Bronchospasm after exercise 158. Which of the following is often the cause of pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. An increase in intracranial pressure B. An autoimmune disorder C. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity D. Hypotension 159. A collapsed lung caused by the escape of air into the pleural cavity is called which of the following? A. Bronchiectasis B. Pneumothorax C. Emphysema D. Pulmonary edema Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 160. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia? A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy B. Those who have adequate respiratory function C. Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised D. Those who exercise regularly and are not exposed to pathogens 161. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism? A. Constipation B. Weight gain C. Tachycardia D. Fatigue 162. Increased calcium levels in the blood could be due to an imbalance in which hormone? A. Calcitonin B. Melatonin C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Parathyroid hormone 163. Which disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in clients with type 1 diabetes? A. Lipidosis hyperosmolar ketosis B. Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Hyperglycemic lipid syndrome 164. Which of the following is an early common symptom of cancer? A. Diarrhea B. Fatigue C. Muscle hypertrophy D. Sudden weight gain 165. Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors display which of the following characteristics? A. They can metastasize or invade nearby tissue B. They contain mitotically active cells and atypical rapid growth C. They often have systemic effects D. They are encapsulated and slow growing 166. What is the best way to prevent trasnmission of infectious agents? A. Take antibiotics daily B. Avoid public areas as much as possible C. Call the practitioner for herbal supplements D. Wash hands Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 167. Which of the following best describes sepsis? A. It is related to poor nursing and health care provider interventions B. It is a severe inﬂammatory response to a pathogen C. It is unknown causes resulting in hypertension D. It is an overwhelming allergic reaction START MIMI 168. Signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include which of the following? A. Rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness B. Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration that is relieved with rest C. Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm, neck, or jaw D. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder 169. Which of the following is a typical manifestation of decreased cardiac output? A. Increased gas exchange B. Dehydration C. Increased blood ﬂow D. Fluid accumulation 170. What is a characteristics of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. Insuﬃcient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs B. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gall bladder C. Insuﬃcient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium D. The build-up of infectious by-products in the lymph nodes 171. A client with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which term appropriately describes this clinical manifestation? A. Paroxysmal nocturnal B. Bradycardia C. Cyanosis D. Dyspnea 172. Which of the following are backward effects of right-sided heart failure? A. Immunosuppression B. Pulmonary edema C. Peripheral edema D. Increased urination 173. Which of the following blood pressure values is classiﬁed as stage 1 hypertension? A. 145/99 mmHg B. 136/85 mmHg Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 C. 165/ 94 mmHg D. 107/64 mmHg 174. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client with thrombocytopenia? A. A decreased platelet cell count B. An increased platelet cell count C. Decreased White blood cell count D. Increased red blood cell count 175. Which type of cancer reveals the presence of reed Sternberg cells? A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Non- Hodgkin’s Lymphoma C. Leukemia D. Multiple myeloma 176. Clinical manifestations of the bleeding include all the following except which symptom? A. Neurologic charges B. Chest pain C. Petechiae D. Bruising 177. What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function? A. The lack of cerebrospinal ﬂuid production B. The ability to perform complex mathematics C. Altered level of consciousness D. Intact cranial nerve functions 178. A college student living in the local dormitory enters the urgent care center with a fever, headache confusion, and stiff neck. The headache and stiff neck get worse when the student tilts head forward. Which of the wearing a mask during this assessment? A. The subarachnoid bleed is contagious B. The student is showing symptoms of bacterial meningitis C. The epidural bleed is contagious D. The student is showing symptoms of a viral sinus infection 179. Which is an early symptom associated with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Unresponsiveness B. Inability to verbalize C. Headache D. Inability to move Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 180. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by which of the following clinical manifestation? A. Ascending paralysis that starts after a viral infection. B. “Pill”’ rolling tremor of thumb and foreﬁnger, muscular rigidity, mask like facial expression, and shuﬄing gait. C. Tongue smacking, dementia, and ceaseless, involuntary movements D. Narcolepsy, hemiparesis, muscular atrophy, and seizures 181. The client with advanced dementia would exhibit which of the following symptoms? A. Hypertension B. The inability to problem- solve C. Manic episodes D. Severe headaches 182. When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidney secrete a hormone to increase the blood pressure and peripheral resistance what is this hormone called? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Renin C. Atrial natriuretic D. Erythropoietin 183. Which of the following is an uncommon condition that is poorly understood because several weeks or elapses between exposure to the causative infectious agent responsible and the development of symptoms? A. Myocardial infarction B. Myocarditis C. Pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade 184. Infective endocarditis is an infection that affects which parts of the cardiovascular system? A. The left right ventricle B. The aorta or vena cava C. The endocardium of heart valves D. The left or right atria 185. Adults lacking in vitamin D or calcium intake can be at risk for which disorder? A. Osteomalacia B. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Rickets D. Osteoarthritis Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 186. What causes osteoporosis? A. Bone loss during aging B. Regular weight- bearing exercise C. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders D. Poor nutrition in infancy 187. With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause which of the following? A. Hypervolemia B. Encephalopathy C. Skeletal muscle twitch or spasm D. Cardiac arrhythmias 188. Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure? A. Very low glomerular ﬁltration rate (GFR) and increased serum urea B. Polyuria with urine of ﬁxed and low speciﬁc gravity C. Hypotension and increased urine output D. Development of decompensated acidosis 189. The condition in which the client experiences chest pain which exertion is known as which of the following? A. Congestive heart failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Coronary artery disease D. Angina pectoris 190. A vasospastic disease of the ﬁngers, hands, or feet resulting in pain, numbness, and sometimes discoloration is known as which of the following? A. Buerger disease B. Raynaud disease C. Varicose Veins D. Thrombophlebitis 191. Which of the following blood pressure values is classiﬁed as stage 2 hypertension? A. 138/89 mmHg B. 165/94 mmHg C. 107/64 mmHg D. 126/79 mmHg Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 192. An otherwise healthy client has pneumonia. Which of the following assessments should the nurse complete? A. Auscultate bowel sounds B. Empty the urinary catheter C. Determine the respiratory rate D. Administer the antibiotic 193. A male adult client is hospitalized for treatment of a pulmonary embolism and develops respiratory alkalosis. Which clinal ﬁndings commonly accompany respiratory alkalosis? A. Abdominal pain or diarrhea B. Lightheadedness or paresthesia C. Nausea or vomiting D. Hallucinations or tinnitus 194. Which of the following symptoms is associated acute bronchitis? A. Atelectasis B. Increased mucous production C. Dilated airway D. Accumulation of blood in pleural space 195. Which of the following describes how the body compensates for metabolic acidosis? A. Increasing respirations B. Increasing bicarbonate ion excretion through urination C. Decreasing respirations D. Hypoventilation 196. What values is consistent with acute respiratory failure? A. pH less than 7.3 B. paO2 of 100 mm Hg C. pacO2 of 30 mm Hg D. pacO2 of 40 mm Hg 197. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with bronchiolitis? A. Bradypnea B. Thick, tenacious mucous C. Crackles D. Wheezing Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 198. Which disease process is also known as “the kissing disease? A. Coxsackie B. Guilian- Barre’ syndrome C. Pityriasis rosea D. Infectious mononucleosis 199. A male client with a history of gastric esophageal reﬂux (GERD) presents to the emergency department with dysphagia. Weight loss, chest pain and bloody emesis. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate the client is expecting? A. Esophageal cancer B. Appendicitis C. Pseudomembranous colitis D. Peptic ulcer disease 200. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? A. Decreased insulin production B. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C. Increased production of insulin D. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 201. A client is brought into the emergency department with an acute infection. The healthcare provider states that the client has leukocytosis. What statement best describes leukocytosis? A. Increased concentration of ﬁbrinogen in the blood B. Increased number of immature red blood cells in the blood C. Increased number of white blood cells in the blood D. Increased size and shape of white blood cells in the blood 202. Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination? A. Artiﬁcially acquired active immunity B. Naturally acquired passive immunity C. Artiﬁcially acquired passive immunity D. Naturally acquired active immunity 203. Which of the following is a cause of edema? A. Polyuria B. Hypotension C. Dehydration D. Decreased plasma proteins Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 204. Which of the following are common early signs of acute prostatitis? A. Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia B. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria C. Hesitancy and increased urinary output D. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain 205. A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classiﬁed as which of the following? A. First- degree burn B. Full- thickness burn C. Partial- thickness burn D. Third- degree burn 206. If a tumor is characterized according to the tumor, node, metastasis (TNM) system as ‘T2, N1, M0’’, What is the correct interpretation of this ﬁnding? A. Tumor has spread to multiple distant lymph nodes B. Tumor is localized with no lymph node involvement or metastasis C. Tumor is locally invasive with regional lymph node involvement; there is no metastasis D. Tumor has metastasized to multiple distant area. 207. What is a pathologic collection of ﬂuid or pus in the pleural cavity called? A. Pleural exhibit B. Pleural effusion C. Pleural overload D. Pulmonary edema 208. Risk factors for respiratory disorders include all the following except which? Smoking A. Smoking B. Asthma C. Bedrest D. High protein diet 209. The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is which of the following microorganism? A. Histoplasmosis B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Escherichia coli D. Streptococcus pneumoniae Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 210. Which of the following pH imbalances would be seen in the client with hypercapnia? A. Decreased carbonic acid in the blood B. Decreased respirations C. Increased blood pH D. Respiratory acidosis 211. The nurse is reviewing a client’s lab results. The nurse knows the client with pH of 7.3 and pCO2 of 55 mmHg has which acid/base imbalance? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis 212. Which of the following are examples of clinical ﬁndings that would be present in clients experiencing shock? (Select all that apply.) A. Hypotension B. Altered level of consciousness C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension E. Increased mental clarity 213. Which of the following places a client at risk for neutropenia? (Select all that apply.) A. Excessive exercise B. Chemotherapy C. Congenial conditions D. Smoking E. Infection 214. Which of the following terms is used to describe the phenomenon where a portion of the bowel telescopes into another portion of the bowel? A. Hirschsprung disease B. Intussusception C. Diverticulitis D. Volvulus 215. Which of the following describes inﬂammation of the bladder lining? A. Incontinence B. Pyelonephritis C. Urinary calculi D. Cystitis Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 216. What causes the dark urine associated with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis? A. Blood and protein leaking through the capillary into the ﬁltrate B. Proteinuria and microscopic hematuria from inﬂammation C. Bleeding from ulceration in the kidney D. Pyuria inﬂammatory exudate 217. Which term describes the temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position? A. Dislocation B. Fracture C. Nonunion D. Subluxation 218. A 60-years old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infection or pain in the spine. The assessment data support a diagnosis of which of the following? A. Reiter syndrome B. Osteoarthritis C. Lyme disease D. Rheumatic fever 219. Ankylosing spondylitis can best be described as which of the following? A. An inﬂammatory disorder that causes uric acid crystals to form in a joint B. A musculoskeletal disorder that is caused by the bite of a deer tick C. A type of arthritis that causes the spine to stiffen and possibly fuse D. A froward rounding of the thoracic spine 220. Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis? A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. Thyroxine D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 221. Which of the following hormones plays a role in decreasing blood sugar glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into the cells? A. Glucocorticoids B. Insulin C. Glucagon D. Calcitonin Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 222. Diabetes insipidus is caused by which of the following? A. Too much production of insulin B. Too little antidiuretic hormone production C. Too much antidiuretic hormone production D. Too little production of insulin 223. What is a transient neurologic event of paroxysmal, abnormal, or excessive cortical discharges? A. Cancer B. A massive stroke C. A seizure D. A hypoglycemic index 224. What is the gold standard that is used to diagnose ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke? A. Computerized tomography (CT) of the head B. Drawing a blood sample for electrolytes C. Urinalysis, liver, and pancreatic enzymes D. Surgery to open the cranium and observe 225. Which of the following is the cause of severe pain during each menstrual cycle in the client with endometriosis? A. Obstruction in the fallopian tubes due to the presence of ﬁbroids B. Inﬂammation caused by trapped blood irritating the endometrial tissue C. Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions D. Uterus perforation due to the presence of bacteria 226. What is the cause of syphilis? A. A virus B. An anaerobic protozoa C. A gram- negative diplococcus D. An anaerobic spirochete Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|43964769 Downloaded by Bruce Lee ([email protected])

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