Environmental Monitoring PDF - Uka Tarsadia University

Uka Tarsadia University (Diwaliba Polytechnic) Diploma in Environmental Engineering Objective Type Questions (Environmental Monitoring) Unit 1 1) Environmental monitoring involves the of one or more measurements tha...

Uka Tarsadia University (Diwaliba Polytechnic) Diploma in Environmental Engineering Objective Type Questions (Environmental Monitoring) Unit 1 1) Environmental monitoring involves the of one or more measurements that are used to assess the status of an environment. (a) Collection (b) Segregation (c) Disposal (d) analysis 2) Risk assessment is a process that has been formalized to estimate the risk of adverse health effects caused by exposure to and microorganism. (a) Hazardous fumes (b) Harmful chemicals (c) colours (d) vapours 3) Determining the level of contaminants in an airshed to compare with and guidelines. (a) regulatory (b) toxic (C) standard (d) resource 4) A monitor is a type of ____________ (a) semaphore (b) low level synchronization construct (c) high level synchronization construct (d) none of the above 5) A monitor is characterized by ____________ (a) a set of programmers defined operators (b) an identifier (c) the number of variables in it (d) all of the above 6) A procedure defined within a ________ can access only those variables declared locally within the _______ and its formal parameters. a) process, semaphore  b) process, monitor c) semaphore, semaphore d) monitor 7) The monitor construct ensures that ____________ a) only one process can be active at a time within the monitor b) n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor c) the queue has only one process in it at a time d) all of the mentioned 8) Results based management includes: a) Planning, implementing and monitoring b) Planning and monitoring and evaluation c) The monitoring and evaluation phase only d) The planning phase only 9) The different steps of project or program cycle are: a) Plan, implement, monitor, evaluate b) Initial assessment, planning, implementation, evaluate c) Initial assessment, planning, implement, monitor, evaluate d) Planning, implement, monitor, evaluate 10) What does a monitoring and evaluation framework include? a) Objectives, assumptions, indicators and a summary of activities b) Objectives and indicators c) Goal and objectives d) Goal, objectives and indicators 11) What are the types of environmental monitoring? a) Soil erosion monitoring b) Biological c) Disposal d) a and b both 12) Environmental monitoring is designed to help us understand the natural environment and ……….. a) protect it from any negative outcomes of human activity b) understand ecological and parameter observation c) carbon and nitrogen cycle d) none of above 13) Environmental impact assessments and results can determine  whether or not projects are given the all clear. a) Indirect b) Directly c) Reverse d) None of above 14) What are the major causes of environmental problems? a) Ozone Depletion, Greenhouse Effect b) Construction c) Sewer waste d) None of above 15) Environmental Evaluation is a process to facilitate management decisions regarding an organization. a) contribution b) performance c) data d) area 16) Monitor air quality and evaluate air emissions to protect and the environment from air pollution. a) Public health b) Public area c) Working area d) Working notice 17) _______ is designed to help us understand the natural environment. a) Environmental monitoring b) Environmental hearing c) Environmental notice d) None of above 18) ________is the regular observation and recording of activities taking place in a project or programme. a) Working b) Area c) Monitoring d) Notice 19) What are types of monitoring? a) Technical monitoring b) Financial Monitoring c) Advance monitoring d) a and b both 20) Environmental monitoring involves the assessment of the of the environment in order to control the risk of pollution. a) Quality b) Quantity c) Area d) Size 21) Monitoring is use for satellites to track changes in the landscape over time. a) Chemical b) Physical c) Biological d) Aromatic 22) Environmental Monitoring tracks changes in , temperature and weather patterns. a) Climate b) Area c) Work d) Size 23) Conditions which directly affect individual fish are calling variables. a) Secondary b) Primary c) Tertiary d) Advance 24) Environmentally-related changes in the natural mortality rate of post-recruits obviously cannot be excluded as having great potential to affect _____ size. a) Area b) Work c) Population d) All 0f above 25) Primary productivity depends on such factors as insolation, nutrients temperature, circulation and processes. a) mixing b) working c) standard d) quality 26) _______ and dispersal of physical microstructure is related to various processes including solar insolation, tidal currents and wind-induced turbulent mixing. a) Working  b) Standard c) Development d) Dispersion 27) ______ provide basic data on the state of the marine environment. a) Observation b) Standard c) Prediction d) Impact 28) Cost to fishery programmes is low because ……….. a) their use for farming is a by-product of other programmes. b) southeast trade winds in the central equatorial Pacific generates a large-scale perturbation c) their use for fisheries is a by-product of meteorological programmes. d) None of above 29) Coastal installations offer and cost-effective means of monitoring the coastal marine environment. a) expensive b) valuable c) non valuable d) cheap 30) Dedicated ships represent a rather mode of data collection. a) high cost b) low cost c) medium cost d) None of above 31) Health monitoring is to ascertain if damage is present or not based on a) simple damage classifier such as outlier analysis b) measured dynamic or static characteristics of a system to be monitored c) working hazardous monitoring program d) none of above 32) Variability in properties can be a result of time-varying environmental and operational conditions. a) economic b) evaluate c) dynamic d) organise 33) Environmental or operating variability is an issue there are different situations for data normalization. a) three b) four c) five d) two 34) Monitoring for the purposes of national environmental standards can only be carried out with ………. a) the low accuracy method in schedule 1 regulation b) high-precision instrumental methods in accordance with Schedule 2 of the regulations. c) High quality of data generation and prediction d) All of above 35) Methods that involve lower resolution instruments can be used for an initial survey. a) prediction b) scoping c) screening d) advance 36) _________ monitoring may require a higher level of sensitivity. a) Compliance b) Advance c) Detail d) None of above 37) ______ methods that provide continuous records of contaminant levels. a) Low resolution b) High resolution c) Medium resolution d) All of above 38) _________ monitoring involves the assessment of the quality of the environment in order to control the risk of pollution. a) Biological b) Physical c) Environmental d) Chemical 39) Purpose of Environmental Monitoring (EM) is to establish alert and action limits and ____________.  a) continuously validate the integrity of the cleaning b) verify the value and price c) working solution d) hazardous and toxic effect 40) Assess the status of an environment that changes and temporally. a) access b) spatially c) working d) hazardous 41) Identify and implement changes to work activities and the use of resources that __________. a) will reduce the negative and increase the positive impact on the environment. b) Will possible area implementation c) Process changes d) None of above 42) Environmental monitoring is designed to help us understand the natural environment and _________ a) Resource of other positive attributes b) protect it from any negative outcomes of human activity c) increase humidity d) increase water resources 43) Environmental monitoring is the process of sampling and a) Identify and implement changes to work activities b) Identify environmental attributes c) analysing specific environmental media for evidence of contaminant levels over time d) all of above 44) ________ is the regular observation and recording of activities taking place in a project or programme. a) Monitoring b) Data c) Information d) Resource 45) Purpose of environmental law is to protect and the environment. a) Gathering b) Preserve c) Negotiated d) Pasteurization 46) Environmental monitoring is subject to analysis. a) statistical b) geometric c) increase d) decrease 47) ______ are used to identify the air quality and the levels of pollution. a) Water monitor b) Noise monitor c) Air monitor d) Soil monitor 48) ________ method used depends on the type of environment, the sampling material, and the future use of the data collected. a) Collective b) Sampling c) Preservation d) All of above 49) Environmental quality monitoring is the of information at set locations. a) Preservation b) Data c) Sample d) Collection 50) Monitoring, survey and surveillance are all based on data collection, evaluation and. a) Reporting b) Preservation c) Collection d) Gathering Unit 2 1) Grab sample is one _____________at particular time and place. a) replaced b) collected c) transferring d) generation 2) _______________is required for certain test that must be performed at sampling site.  a) Grab sample b) Composite sample c) Integrated composite sample d) None of above 3) _____________may be fixed volume and flow proportioned sample. a) Integrated sample b) Composite sample c) Garb sample d) All of above 4) Composite sampling consists of a collection of numerous individual discrete samples ……. a) taken at regular intervals over a period of time usually 24 hours b) taken month intervals over period of 2 days  c) taken long time d) none of the above 5) ____________ is any individual sample collected without compositing or adding other samples. a) Composite sample b) Grab sample c) Integrated sample d) Soil sample 6) Composite samples are collected over time, either by____________ sampling or by mixing discrete samples. a) different interval b) monthly c) yearly d) continuous 7) Sample ______________at a particular time and place can represent only the composition of the source at that time and place. a) Collected b) Generated c) Gathering d) Data 8) composite sample representing a________period is considered standard for most determinations. a) 48 hr b) 10 hr c) 2 hr 9) Sample bottles/containers must be clearly ___________and identified. a) labelled b) quantifies c) size d) None of above 10) _______________is defined as an individual aliquot (volume of water) taken over a period of time not to exceed 15 minutes. a) Composite sample b) Grab sample c) Integrated sample  d) Quality control 11) _____ is process oriented and ______ is product oriented. a) QA b) QC c) Data d) a and b both 12) Sampling points should be selected such that the samples taken are representative of the …. a) different sources from which water is obtained by the public or enters the system b) different city of area which affected c) river d) stream 13) Sampling points should be uniformly distributed throughout a __________distribution system. a) Area b) Size c) Land d) Pipe 14) Time between sampling and analysis should be kept to a ___________. a) minimum b) maximum c) neutral d) All of the above 15) __________ bottles must be clean but need not be sterile. a) Glass b) Sample c) Soil d) Plastic 16) Large variations occur in a short duration of time, sampling needs to be done ______________. a) Frequently b) Yearly c) 6 months d) Never 17) ________________should be used only for water samples and never for the storage of chemicals or other liquids.  a) Gases container b) Sample container c) Solvent d) Standard reagent 18) Depth sampler, which is sometimes called a grab sampler, is designed in such way that …. a) it can retrieve a sample from any predetermined depth b) it can consume water c) it is depending on soil d) all of the above 19) Sampling depth is measured from the water surface to the_____________ of the sampler. a) higher b) lower c) middle d) none of above 20) __________of the sample should be measured and recorded immediately after the sample is taken. a) Temperature b) Colour c) Odour d) Solid 21) ______________bottles should be resealed and stored in a clean, cool, dark environment and protected from recontamination. a) Plastic b) Air c) Soil d) Sample 22) Sample collection and bacteriological analysis will be less than _____________. a) 2 hours b) 4 hours c) 6 hours d) 5 hours 23) samples should simply be kept in a __________, dark place. a) dry b) cool c) other d) none of the above 24) The sample _____________form should be filled for each sampling occasion at monitoring station. a) Identification b) Data c) Value d) Area 25) Samples will be collected from well mixed section of the river ______below the water surface. a) 10 cm b) 20 cm c) 40 cm d) 30 cm 26) Samples are refrigerated at ________ prior to analysis unless method SOPs indicate other storage conditions. a) 40C b) 20C c) 80C d) 100C 27) All methods of preservation may be inadequate when applied to _____________ matter. a) Dissolve b) Suspended c) Mixed d) None of the above 28) Aluminium, cadmium, chromium, copper, iron, lead, manganese, silver, and zinc, which are ……. a) Collected in use bottle and do not preserve it b) Storage in oven and add acid c) best collected in a separate clean bottle and acidified with nitric acid to a pH below 2.0 d) all of the above 29) Samples are kept in the ______________ until time of analysis. a) Cool condition b) Oven c) Medium d) All of the above 30) Samples that require analysis at room temperature (250C) are brought out of refrigeration and …. a) Put in oven  b) Add distilled water c) Storage it outside d) allowed to warm to the desired temperature before beginning analysis 31) Liquid samples should be shipped in plastic containers, if possible and…. a) the caps on the containers should be secured with tape b) caps of container should not seal c) it is disposal in sink d) it is disposal in river 32) When replicate samples are prepared in the field, it is necessary to a) Separate that mixture b) Add distilled water and dilute it c) homogenize the sample prior to separation into replicates d) all of the above 33) water samples may need filtering and ________________. a) Basic b) Neutral c) Acidification d) All of the above 34) laboratory layout with both the reception and the sample collection room located..... A) at the entrance saves time and energy B) rooms where manipulation or analysis of samples takes place C) consume time D) large area required 35) Sampling points should be located in such a way that water can be sampled from _______________and reservoirs, etc. a) Pipeline b) Reserve tanks c) Ground d) Surface 36) _____________ is not available the transportation time must not exceed 2 hours. a) Water b) Area  c) Plastic box d) Ice 37) Wastewater samples will typically be collected either by directly filling the sample container or ……… a) by using an automatic sampler or other device b) by using chemical c) pressure pump d) all of the above 38) Sample should be collected near the centre of the flow channel at approximately _____________percent of the water depth. a) 20 – 40% b) 40 – 60 % c) 60 – 80% d) 80 -100% 39) __________________should be representative of the wastewater conditions at the time of sample collection. a) Composite sample b) Grab sample c) Integrated sample d) All of the above 40) Sample _____________ depends on the type and number of analyses to be performed. a) storage b) Technique c) Volume d) Area 41) ________________are collected over time either by continuous sampling or by mixing discrete samples. a) Grab samples b) Integrated samples c) Dehydration samples d) Composite samples 42) composite sampling applications the ___________________may be used to collect time composite or flow proportional samples. a) automatic samplers b) radioactive samplers  c) pressure gauge samplers d) all of the above 43) ______________must be added to the metals blank container for proper preservation. a) Sodium b) Formaldehyde c) Nitric acid d) Calcium carbonate 44) Samples for bacteriological analyses must always be collected directly into the prepared ______________or plastic sample container. a) glass b) PVC c) dark bottle d) All of the above 45) The sample container should be kept_____________ until it is to be filled. a) opened b) unopened c) direct d) indirect 46) A grab sample is a __________________sample which is collected at a specific location at a certain point in time. a) create b) uncreate c) decomposed d) discrete 47) composite sample is made by thoroughly ________________several grab samples. a) mixing b) unmixing c) create d) uncreate 48) composite sample may be made up of samples taken at different___________ or at different points in __________. a) location b) time c) size d) a and b both  49) ______________________may be used to reduce the analytical cost by reducing the number of samples. a) Composite sample b) Grab sample c) Integrated sample d) Rapid sample 50) ______________is prepared by taking a representative portion of the original sample, usually by a mixing and dividing process. a) Rapid sample b) Reduced sample c) Composite sample d) Grab sample Unit 3: 1) Quality control (QC) is a procedure or set of procedures intended to ensure that a) manufactured product or performed service adheres to a defined set of quality criteria or meets the requirements of the client or customer b) recycling or disposing of the waste adds to the cost of production, c) uncover defects from the decision to allow or deny product release d) none of above 2) ________ standard is a reagent for which we can dispense an accurately known amount of analyte. a) Secondary b) Primary c) Stock d) None of above 3) The molar mass of carbon is 12 g mol-1. How many moles are there in 3g of carbon? a) 0.25 mol b) 0.22 mol c) 0.30 mol d) 0.18 mol 4) The concentration of a solution is expressed as the number of moles in which of the following volumes? a) 1 dL b) 1ml  c) 1 litre d) All of above 5) 25 mL is equivalent to how many litres (L)? a) 0.025 b) 0.25 c) 0.0025 d) All of above 6) How many moles of HCl are there in 10 mL of a solution with a concentration of 0.5 mol L-1? a) 0.01 mol b) 0.02 mol c) 0.04 mol d) 0.05 mol 7) Stock or standard solution is a concentrated solution with an accurately known a) Concentration b) Dilution c) Serial d) Molar 8) working solution is obtained by the accurate dilution of a or secondary standard solution. a) Multiple b) Primary c) Advance d) Dilute 9) Working solutions are made up in quantities for use in the short term. a) Long b) Medium c) Small d) None of above 10) __________ is a reagent that is extremely pure, stable, it not a hydrate/has no water of hydration, and has a high molecular weight. a) Primary standard b) Secondary standard c) Serial dilution d) Working reagent 11)_____________is a standard that is prepared in the laboratory for a specific analysis. a) Primary standard b) Secondary standard c) Serial dilution d) Working reagent 11) Standard can be of types. a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2 12) A primary standard should be pure. a) >99.8 % b) 99 % c) 98 % d) All of above 13) solution of known concentration is called the solution. a) Serial b) Dilution c) Standard d) None of above 14) Primary standard is highly and cheaply available. a) Pure b) Impure c) Dilute d) Standard 15) Oxalic acid, Mohr's salt, potassium dichromate are some examples of ______ standards. a) Secondary b) Primary c) Advance d) All of above 16) Substances whose standard solutions cannot be prepared directly are called _______ standards. a) Secondary  b) Primary c) Dilute d) Stock 17) ________ is defined as the number of gram equivalent of solute dissolved in one litre of the solution. a) Molarity b) Molality c) Normality d) Stock 18) _______________is defined as the number of gram moles of solute dissolved in one litre of the solution. a) Molarity b) Normality c) Molality d) Dilution 19) One of the commonly known titrations is the titration. a) Alkaline b) Acid c) Base d) b and c both 20) _______ is a chemical substance that undergoes a colour change at the endpoint. a) Indicators b) Stock c) Standard d) Reagent 21) Strong acid is titrated against a. a) weak base b) weak acid c) strong base d) dilute acid 22) Strong acid reacts with a weak base to form a solution. a) Basic b) Acidic c) Neutral d) None of above 23) _______ are solutions that contain a known and accurate amount of a substance or element. a) Dilute solutions b) Secondary solution c) Stock solution d) Standard solutions 24) ______ solution is a solution with a high purity and less reactivity. a) Primary standard b) Secondary standard c) Stock solution d) None of above 25) Primary standards are reagents that can involve in reactions. a) Physical b) Chemical c) Biological d) Neutral 26) _______ of solutions is a concept of analytical chemistry that is required for the accuracy of a titration. a) Derivation b) Stock c) Standardization d) Non standardization 27) Primary standards are less. a) hygroscopic b) Hydroscopic c) Neutral d) Base 28) A secondary standard has a purity than a primary standard. a) High b) Less c) Medium d) None of above 29) Anhydrous sodium hydroxide is a standard. a) Primary b) Advance c) Stock d) Secondary 30) Which of the following are primary standard? a) Oxalic acid b) Potassium permanganate c) Potassium dichromate d) Sodium hydroxide 31) ________ are commonly used to help identify and determine the concentration of a substance whose concentration is unknown. a) Solutions b) Chemicals c) Paint d) Data 32) Primary standard is a compound of sufficient purity in which total amount of impurities does not exceed ________________. a) 0.08 – 0.09 % b) 0.01-0.02 % c) 0.1 – 0.8 % d) All of the above 33) ______________should have high relative molecular mass so that weighing errors are neglible. a) Stock solution b) Concentration c) Molarity d) Primary standard 34) Methyl orange is a weak base and is yellow in colour in the ________________form. a) Unionised b) Ionised c) Reactive d) All of the above 35) When titration between strong base and weak acid is to be performed then ______________is a good indicator. a) methyl orange b) phenolphthalein  c) EBT d) EDTA 36) stock solution is a highly ______________ solution. a) primary b) secondary c) concentration d) All of the above 37) Solutions are always _________________. a) Primary b) Secondary c) Advance d) None of above 38) Primary standard solution and secondary standard solution are used in ____________analysis. a) quantitative b) qualitative c) steady d) inflow 39) A solution of hydrogen peroxide is 15.2% by mass. What is the molarity of the solution? Assume that the solution has a density of 1.01g/mL.. a) 4.95 M b) 3.72 M c) 6.02 M d) 5.00 M 40) Which of the following choices is characteristic of molality? a) Moles of solute per liter of solution b) Equivalents per liter c) Useful in experiments with significant temperature changes d) Useful in experiments without significant temperature changes 41) When 10 moles of solute are dissolved in one litre of solution, then solution is _________. a) 8M b) 10M c) 12M d) 2M 42) What do you mean by M/1000 solution? a) 1/1000 moles of solute are present in one litre of solution  b) 1/100 moles of solute are present in one litre of solution c) 1/10000 moles of solution prepare d) All of the above 43) What is the unit of Mole-fraction ? a) it is unit less b) moles/L c) moles/kg d) none of the above 44) What is unit of molality? a) Moles/L b) Moles/kg c) l/kg d) none of above 45) which one of these is correct ………. a) Mass of solution = molality/times b) Mass of solution = molarity/times c) Mass of solvent = molarity /times d) Volume of solution = molality/times 46) _________ is the number of moles of a substance per liter of solution, also known as molar concentration. a) Molarity b) Molality c) Normality d) None of above 47) A solution with a 3 molar/kg molality is often defined as _________ a) 1M b) 2M c) 3M d) 4M 48) Molarity is the number of moles of a substance per liter of solution, also known as _________concentration. A) Normal B) Molar C) Molal D) None of above 49) Molality is the favoured concentration transmission approach because.... a) the solution’s mass of solute and solvent does not change. b) The solution molar change c) Concentration change d) None of above UNIT 4 1) arise due to human mistakes. a) Gross errors b) Systematic errors c) Random errors d) None of above 2) Zero error, and bias of an instrument are examples of systematic errors a) Gross errors b) Systematic errors c) Random errors d) None of above 3) Systematic errors can be corrected by. a) value b) calibration c) reference d) area 4) Instrument may have an error. a) One b) Two c) Zero  d) Four 5) _________________ can also be due to improper design of the measuring scheme. a) Gross errors b) Random errors c) Value errors d) Systematic errors 6) we measure the same input variable a number of times, keeping all other factors affecting the measurement same …………. a) the same measured value would not be repeated b) the value affects the instrument c) collect information of instrument d) none of above 7) Limiting error is an important parameter used for specifying the of an instrument. a) Value b) Data c) Accuracy d) Mitigation 8) The systematic errors of an instrument can be reduced by making a) the sensitivity of instrument to environmental input as low as possible b) the sensitivity of instrument to environmental input as high as possible c) systematic errors does not depend on the sensitivity of instrument d) None of these 9) Suitable method for the reduction of systematic errors is/are ………. a) instrument must be designed carefully b) by introducing an equal and opposite environmental input for compensating the effect of environmental input in a measurement system c) by adding high gain feedback to measurement system d) All of above 10) If the instrument is used in wrong manner while application, then it will results in ……… a) Systematic error b) Instrument error c) Random error d) Environmental error 11) The undesirable characteristics of an measuring system is/are.........  a) Drift b) Dead zone c) Non linearity d) All of these 12) Calibration of instrument is an important consideration in measurement system, errors due to instruments being out of calibration can be rectified by... a) Increasing the frequency of recalibration b) Increasing the temperature coefficient c) Increasing the susceptibility of measuring instrument d) Decreasing the frequency of recalibration 13) Random errors in a measurement system are due to ………. a) Environmental changes b) Use of uncalibrated instrument c) Poor cabling practices d) Unpredictable effects 14) The error between mean of finite data set and mean of infinite data set is known as.... a) True error of the mean b) Standard error of the mean c) Finite error d) Infinite error 15) In a measurement system,...... a) a single measurement component may have both random errors and systematic errors b) a measurement system consists of several components with each component having separate errors c) both the statement (a) & (b) are true d) neither statement (a) nor statement (b) are true 16) ______ is a measure of the variation between any estimated population value that is based on a sample rather than true value for the population a) Standard Error b) Deviation c) Mean error d) Other error 17) Systematic errors can also be detected by measuring already known. a) qualities b) quantities c) area  d) size 18) ____________ is something you have done which is considered to be incorrect or wrong. a) Value b) Size c) Error d) All of above 19) _______ errors are natural errors. a) Random b) Human c) Gross d) Systematic 20) ____________ is an action which is inaccurate or incorrect. a) Value b) Error c) Area d) None of above 21) Systematic error occurs due to...... a) Overuse of instrument b) Careless use of instrument c) Human sight d) a and b both 22) Measurement which is close to true value is …… a) Accurate b) Average c) Precise d) Error 23) Systematic errors can remove by a) buying new instrument b) breaking the instrument c) dusting the instrument d) recalibrated the instrument 24) _______ is how close a value is to its true value. a) Accuracy  b) Precision c) Data d) Value 25)_________ is how close a series of measurements of the same thing are to each other. a) Data b) Information c) Accuracy d) Precision 26) Accuracy is the ability of the instrument to measure the value. a) Direct b) Accurate c) Indirect d) Other 27) Accuracy can be obtained by taking the _________ readings. a) Big b) Medium c) Small d) None of above 28) Small reading reduces the of the calculation. a) Value b) Error c) Size d) Area 29) Point accuracy means the accuracy of the is only at the particular point on its scale. a) Instrument b) Report c) Data d) None of above 30) Scale range determines the accuracy of the instrument. a) Accurate b) Uniform c) Non statistical d) All of above 31) Such type of of the instruments is determined by identifying the measured value regarding their true value.  a) Accuracy b) Precision c) Mitigation d) None of above 32) The accuracy of the instruments is neglected up to percent from the true value. a) + o.4 b) + 0.5 c) – 0.5 d) b and c both 33) Precision means or more values of the measurements are closed to each other. a) One b) Two c) Zero d) All of above 34) Value of precision differs because of the error. a) Observational b) Accuracy c) Data d) Information 35) Accuracy refers to how close a measurement is to the true or value. a) Neglected b) False c) Accepted d) All of above 36) Precision is_____________ of accuracy. a) dependent b) independent c) reverse d) irreverse 37) _______ of an experiment, object, or value is a measure of the reliability and consistency. a) Precision b) Accuracy c) Data d) Collection 38) Which can be avoided or whose magnitude can be determined is called as systemic errors. a) Precision b) Errors c) Accuracy d) Data 39) When errors occur during operation is called as error. a) Construction b) Information c) Operational d) Gross 40) Errors occur due to faulty instrument or reagent containing. a) purities b) impurities c) reverse d) None of above 41) It occurs accidentally or randomly so called as error. a) indeterminate b) determinate c) time d) data 42) Air fluctuations occurring as students open and close lab doors cause changes in ______ readings. a) temperature b) pressure c) valve d) None of above 43) Gross errors are caused by experimenter carelessness or ____________. a) equipment failure b) data failure c) outliers d) none of above 44) A data set of repetitive measurements is often expressed as a ___________ representative number called the mean or average. a) Single b) Multiple  c) Double d) None of above 45) ______ is the sum of individual measurements(xi) divided by the number of measurements. a) Median b) Mean c) Medium d) All of above 46) Precision is the opposite of uncertainty Widely scattered data results in a …… a) Methodological error is created by using the wrong indicator b) instrumental error results when a spectrometer drifts c) large average or standard deviation indicating poor precision d) none of above 47) Accuracy of a result can be quantified by calculating the percent error a) percent b) Data c) Statistical d) Geometric 48) _______ are samples of about the same size that are carried through an analysis in exactly the same way. a) One time b) Replicates c) Multiple d) Republish 49) The is the middle value in a set of data that has been arranged in numerical order. a) Median b) Mean c) Statically d) Geometric 50) Accuracy measures agreement between a result and the value. a) Rejected b) Accepted c) Gathering d) All of above  Unit 5 1) Water quality monitoring is defined as the and analysis of water constituents and conditions. a) Data b) Sampling c) Gathering d) Working 2) _______ that can nevertheless be affected by human sources, such as dissolved oxygen, bacteria, and nutrients. a) Water b) Air c) Pollution d) Human 3) Two hydrogen atoms and one atom form a molecule of water. a) Nitrogen b) Carbon c) Oxygen d) Ammonia 4) _______ water may get physically, chemically or biologically contaminated. a) Rain b) Surface c) Ground d) All of above 5) pH is the term used to express the acidic or condition of a solution. a) Basic b) Alkaline c) Neutral d) None of above 6) pH scale is represented as ranging from. a) 0 to 10 b) 0 to 8 c) 0 to 14 d) All of above 7) pH lesser than 7 is and more than 7 is a solution. a) Acidic  b) Basic c) Neutral d) a and b both 8) Who had invented the pH Scale? a) S.P.L Sorenson b) Benjamin Franklin c) Henry Moseley d) Wilhelm Rontgen 9) In which of the following field pH scale is important for measurements? a) Medicine b) Forestry c) Food Science d) All of the above 10) What is the pH value of very strong acid solution? a) Less than 7 b) Less than 5 c) Less than 2 d) Less than zero 11) Why we measure the pH of sea water? a) It helps in corrosion research b) It helps in agricultural activity c) It helps in fermentation d) It helps in sterilization 12) Which statement is correct regarding Buffer Solution? a) It is a solution whose pH change when small amount of an acid or base is added in it b) It is a solution whose pH does not change when small amount of an acid or base is added in it c) It does not use pH value as constant in wide variety of chemical applications d) The solution of methanolic acid is an example of effective buffer solution 13) What is the pH value of pure water? a) Less than 7 b) Greater than 7 c) Equal to 7 d) Greater than 14 14) How we will come to know that a given solution is acidic? a) If its pH value is less than 7  b) If its pH value is greater than 7 c) If its pH value is less than 5 d) If its pH value is 5 15) What will be the litmus test if the solution is basic? a) Red litmus will turn to blue b) Blue litmus will turn to red c) No change in colour d) It will change into orange pink 16) What is the pH value of pure alcohol? a) 7 b) 7.33 c) 7.80 d) 8 17) What is the ph value of toothpaste? a) It ranges from 3 to 10 depending upon the additives added in it b) It ranges from 5 to 12 depending upon the additives added in it c) It ranges from 7 to 14 depending upon the additives added in it d) It ranges from 6 to 8 depending upon the additives added in it 18) An acidic solution has: a) Less concentration of hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions b) More concentration of hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions c) More concentration of hydroxyl ions d) Equal concentration of hydroxide and hydrogen ions 19)Which of the following represents the physical characteristics of water? a) Chloride content b) BOD c) Turbidity d) COD 20) Which of the following is measured in mg/L? a) Unit weight b) Coefficient of cohesion c) Discharge d) Turbidity 21) Which of the following instrument is used to measure turbidity? a) Olfactometer  b) Turbidity meter c) Colorimeter d) Spectrophotometer 22) When the sewage becomes stronger, the turbidity of wastewater? a) Increases b) Decreases c) Becomes constant d) Slightly decrease 23) The size of suspended solids lies in the range of ________ a) 10-3 – 10-6 mm b) 103 – 106 mm c) 10-1 – 10-3 mm d) 101 – 103 mm 24) Suspended solids are measured by which of the following? a) Turbidity rod b) Gravimetric test c) Chromatography d) Jackson’s turbidity meter 25)The maximum permissible limit for suspended solids is __________ a) 10 mg/l b) 20 mg/l c) 30 mg/l d) 40 mg/l 26) Identify the correct relation between the following? a) Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid b) Dissolved solid = Total solid – Suspended solid c) Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid d) Dissolved solid = Suspended solid – Total solid 27) Which method is used to measure the colour of water? a) Gravimetric analysis b) Chromatography c) Tintometer method d) Hydrometer analysis 28) 1 TCU (True Colour Unit) is equivalent to _____. a) The colour produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt b) The colour produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt c) The colour produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water d) The colour produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water 29) The range of temperature of water that is required to do the temperature test is  __________ a) 10-250C b) 0-250C c) 10-300C d) 20-300C 30) Which of the following statement is wrong regarding turbidity? a) It is an extent to which light is absorbed by particles in the water b) It is expressed in ppm c) It depends on the fineness of particle present in the water d) Turbidity rod is a laboratory method to measure turbidity 31) What is the full form of NTU in context with turbidity? a) Number of transfer unit b) Neurological turbidity unit c) Nephelometric turbidity unit d) Network terminal unit 32) When depth of insertion of turbidity rod increases, the reading in the turbidity rod ___ a) Decreases b) Increases c) First decrease, then increase d) Remains constant 33) _________ is determined by measuring the dissolved oxygen used by microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation of organic matter in 5 days at 20˚C. a) BOD5 b) COD c) TOC d) ThOD 34) How are many forms of nitrogen present in wastewater? a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5 35) ______ is determined by measuring the dissolved oxygen used during the chemical oxidation of organic matter in 3 hours. a) COD b) BOD c) ThOD d) TOC 36) Which of the following is used for a small concentration of organic matter? a) COD b) TOC c) BOD d) ThOD 37) Which of the following indicates that the water body has been used for waste disposal? a) Chlorides  b) Nitrates c) Phosphates d) Ammonia 38) What is the maximum concentration of total solids present in wastewater? a) 350 mg/L b) 720 mg/L c) 1200 mg/ L d) 850 mg/L 39) The BOD test is carried out for how many days? a) 1 day b) 2 days c) 5 days d) 6 days 40) At what temperature the bottles for the BOD test are incubated? a) 25 degree Celsius b) 20 degree Celsius c) 35 degree Celsius d) 30 degree Celsius 41) What is the mathematical expression of BOD? a) BOD = [(D1-D2)-(B1-B2)f]/P b) BOD = [(D1-D2)-(B1-B2)f] c) BOD = [(D1-D2) f]/P d) BOD = [(D1-D2)-(B1-B2)]/P 42) In terms of percentage how much BOD is oxidised in 5 days? a) 90% b) 70-90% c) 60-70% d) 50% 43) How is COD calculated? a) Waste water is oxidised chemically using sodium in acid solutions b) Waste water is oxidised chemically using dichromate in acid solutions c) Waste water is oxidised chemically using bromine in acid solutions d) Waste water is oxidised chemically using strontium in acid solutions 44) What is the ratio of BOD/COD in untreated waste? a) 1-3 b) 0.3-0.8 c) 0.1-0.2 d) 3-5 45) What is the ratio of BOD/COD in the final effluent? a) 0 8-1.2 b) 0.2-0.5 c) 0.1-0.3 d) 0.4-0.6 46) How is TSS calculated?  a) MPN b) HPLC c) Filtration d) Mass spectrometer 47) Which of these is the used as the indicator when the titration is carried out to determine the amount of COD present in a sample? a) Methyl Orange b) Methyl blue c) Phenolphthalein d) Ferroin 48) Hardness of water is due to the presence of salts of ____________. a) Potassium b) Chlorine c) Magnesium d) Boron 49) Select the incorrect statement from the following option. a) Water which does not form lather with soap and forms white scum is called hard water b) Hard water contains dissolved calcium and magnesium salts in it c) In hard water, cleansing quality of soap is depressed d) Due to the presence of dissolved hardness-producing salts, the boiling point of water is depressed 50) Hardness of water is conventionally expressed in terms of equivalent amount of ____________ a) H2CO3 b) MgCO3 c) CaCO3 d) Na2 CO3 Unit 6 1) Air quality monitoring stations should be _______ degree around TSDF. a) 100 b) 110 c) 120 d) 130 2) The locations of air quality monitoring stations depend on _______ a) Stack height b) Wind speed c) Wind direction d) Rainfall 3) How many measurements should be taken for SPM in a year?  a) 100 b) 101 c) 102 d) 104 4) Stack gaseous emission for the parameters should be carried out _______ basis. a) Annual b) Quarterly c) Monthly d) Hourly 5) Which of the following stack emission has to be monitored continuously? a) HCL b) C c) O d) PM 6) How many parameters are taken into consideration when measuring air quality, in India? a) 4 b) 3 c) 8 d) 9 7) Which of the following pollutants are considered when measuring air quality? a) CO, O3, PM2.5 b) NH3, PM10, Pb c) NO2, SO2 d) All of the mentioned 8) Which of the following devices is NOT used to control particulate emissions? a) Electrostatic precipitator b) Bag filters c) Catalytic converters d) All of the mentioned 9) According to EPA of USA, the following is not one of the six major pollutants? a) Ozone b) Carbon monoxide c) Nitrogen oxides d) Carbon di-oxide 10) The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is  a) Motor vehicle b) Industrial processes c) Stationary fuel combustion d) None of the above 11) The function of automobile catalytic converter is to control emissions of ……….. a) carbon dioxide and hydrogen b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen c) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide d) carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide 12) Dust particles are measured by the principle of orthogonal light scattering. a) Physical b) Chemical c) Biological d) None of above 13) _______sensors are known to be reliable and accurate, maintenance free. a) ozone b) Carbon dioxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) Nitrogen dioxide 14) What is the size range of respirable suspended particulate matter? a) Less than 1 micrometre b) Less than 10 micrometre c) Less than 100 micrometre d) Less than 0.1 micrometre 15) Which of the following is a viable particulate? a) Smoke b) Mist c) Dust d) Moulds 16) Which type of particulate is condensed form of vapours? a) Mist b) Dust c) Fumes d) Smoke 17) What is the size range of atmospheric particulate matter? a) 0.1 – 10 microns  b) 0.1 – 1 micron c) 1 – 10 microns d) 10 – 100 microns 18) In rural areas, what has contributed significantly to particulate pollution? a) Incomplete combustion in vehicles b) Using wood for fire and cooking c) Fertilizers d) All of the mentioned 19) The particulate matter dispersed in the atmosphere is: a) Gaseous b) Mainly gaseous c) Non-gaseous d) Mainly non-gaseous 20)In human beings, anoxia is caused due to: a) SO2 b) CO c) CO2 d) N2O 21) If there were no CO2 in the earth's atmosphere, the temperature of earth's surface would have been a) same as present b) Less than the present c) Higher than the present d) Dependent on the amount of O2 in the atmosphere 22) Proportion of CO consumption consists of basic components a) The leaf boundary layer b) The stomata c) Radiation exchange d) All of Above 23) Which of the following leads to a disease called broncho spasm? a) SO2 b) SO3 c) SO4 d) CO2 24) Which of the following gases has the highest affinity for blood haemoglobin? a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen  c) Carbon monoxide d) Nitrogen 25) Which of the following is responsible for turning yellow Taj Mahal? a) Nitrogen dioxide b) Sulphur c) Chlorine d) Sulphur dioxide 26)The boiler flue gas is source of a) HCl b) NO c) HF d) Volatile organic compounds 27) The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any industrial activity should not be permitted beyond a) 2ppm b) 3ppm c) 4ppm d) 5ppm 28)The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is a) Motor vehicle b) Industrial processes c) Stationary fuel combustion d) None of the above 29) Which gas is mainly produced due to incomplete burning of wood? a) CO b) SO2 c) NO2 d) NO3 30)Which is the major source for sulphur dioxide? a) Volcanic eruptions b) Coal and crude oil combustion c) Burning of petrol d) Sewage treatment process 31) The permissible concentration of PM 10 in the air is a) 60μg/m3 b) 40μg/m3 c) 50μg/m3  d) 20μg/m3 32) Which of the following is/are inorganic gas (es)? a) Carbon monoxide b) Hydrogen sulphide c) Chlorine d) All of the above 33) If released or formed in the atmosphere, which of the following will least likely result in long-term environmental damage to an ecosystem? a) Mercury b) Carbon monoxide c) Lead d) Ozone 34) Air pollution increases the risk of and heart disease in the population. a) Respiratory b) Tumour c) Skin disease d) None of above 35) _______ and local agencies should design their monitoring stations with the station operator. a) Public b) Supervisor c) State d) All of above 36) Air sampling is a necessary process often used in indoor environments and a) industrial workplaces where chemical agents are produced or used b) IOH Solutions will ensure that your company’s employees are safe by offering c) released or formed in the atmosphere d) all of above 37) Air sampling is a method of monitoring workers' exposure to these potential airborne workplace hazards. a) Hazardous b) Vital c) Toxic d) None of above 38) _______ pollutants are atmospheric substances. a) Water b) Soil  c) Air d) Chemical 39) Air quality monitoring is challenging to enact as a) it requires the effective integration of multiple environmental data sources. b) potentially have a negative impact on the environment and organism health c) often used in indoor environments d) none of above 40) What is the residence time of carbon monoxide? a) 11-15 years b) 1-3 years c) 5 years d) Few minutes 41) NOx emitted by automobiles is in the form of. a) NO b) N2O c) N2O3 d) All of above 42) _______ is the greenhouse gas most scientists consider the main air pollutant of the Earth's atmosphere. a) Sulphur b) Sulphur dioxide c) Nitrogen oxide d) Carbon dioxide 43) ______ are various exhaust gases from vehicles which are air pollutants causing damage to the atmosphere. a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbon dioxide c) Sulphur d) Hydrogen 44) ___________ is caused by solid and liquid particles and certain gases that are suspended in the air. a) Solid pollution b) Water pollution c) Air pollution d) None of above 45) Carbon monoxide is , odourless and can kill within minutes.  a) Colourless b) Turbidity c) Solid d) All of above 46) High quality air pollution data is needed by air regulators and... a) Collect air pollution emissions data from designated sources to expand the emissions b) managers to implement the National Ambient Air Quality Standards c) improve monitoring capabilities d) none of above 47) _______ will indicate the status of the quality of air we breathe. a) Data b) Information c) Work d) Service 48) Air pollution can cause health problems and it can also damage the environment and ________. a) Service b) Size c) Property d) All of above 49) Emissions of carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides (NOx) and hydrocarbons (HC) are controlled by on new gasoline driven cars. a) catalytic converters b) Electrostatic preceptor c) Centrifugal d) Gravity chamber 50) Emissions of are being reduced through lower sulphur content in gasoline. a) Nitrogen oxides b) sulphur oxides c) ozone d) carbon Subject: EM answer kye Unit 1: 1 a 2 b 3 c 4 c 5 a 6 d 7 a 8 b 9 c 10 a 11 d 12 a 13 b 14 a 15 b 16 a 17 a 18 c 19 d 20 a 21 b 22 a 23 b 24 c 25 a  44 a 33 c 45 b 34 a 46 a 35 b 47 c 36 d 48 b 37 a 26 c 49 d 38 b 27 A Unit 2: 50 a 39 b 28 c 40 c 29 b 41 d 30 a 42 a 31 b 43 c 32 c 44 a 33 a 45 b 34 b 46 d 35 c 47 a 36 a 48 d 37 b Unit 3: 49 a 38 c 50 b 1 a 39 a Unit 4: 2 b 40 b 1 a 3 a 41 a 2 b 4 c 42 b 3 b 5 a 43 c 4 c 6 d 5 d 7 a Unit 5: 6 a 8 b 7 c 9 c 8 a 10 a 9 d 11 b 10 b 12 d 11 d 13 a 12 a 14 c 13 d 15 a 14 b 16 b 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 d 21 a 22 c 1 b 15 c 23 b 1 b 2 a 16 a 24 d 2 a 3 b 17 b 25 a 3 c 4 a 18 c 26 b 4 a 5 b 19 a 27 c 5 b 6 d 20 b 28 a 6 c 7 a 21 d Unit 6: 29 b 7 d 8 a 22 a 30 d 9 a 23 d 31 c 10 b 24 a 32 a 11 d 25 d 33 b 12 a 26 b 34 d 13 d 27 c 35 a 14 a 28 b 36 b 15 b 29 a 37 c 16 a 30 b 38 b 17 b 31 a 39 a 18 a 32 d 40 a 19 c 33 b 41 d 20 a 34 a 42 b 21 d 35 c 43 a 22 a 36 b 44 a 23 b 37 a 45 b 24 a 38 b 46 c 25 d 39 c 47 a 26 a 40 b 48 c 27 b 41 a 49 b 28 c 42 b 50 a 29 a 43 a 30 d 44 a 31 a 45 b 32 c 46 c 47 a 48 b 49 a 50 b 35 c 36 a 37 b 38 c 39 a 40 b 41 a 8 a 9 d 10 d 11 a 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 a 16 b 17 a 18 b 19 c 20 d 21 b 22 a 23 c 24 b 25 c 26 b 27 c 28 c 29 a 30 d 31 c 32 a 33 a 34 b 35 a 36 b 37 a 38 c 39 c 40 b 41 a 42 c 43 b 44 b 45 c 46 c 47 d 48 c 49 d 50 c 42 d 43 a 44 c 45 a 46 b 47 a 48 c 49 a 50 b 1 c 18 b 2 a 19 c 3 d 20 b 4 b 21 b 5 a 22 d 6 c 23 b 7 d 24 c 8 c 25 d 9 d 26 b 10 a 27 d 11 a 28 a 12 a 29 a 13 b 30 b 14 b 31 a 15 d 32 d 16 c 33 b 17 a 34 a