Engine 2 Full ATITA MCQ Answers PDF

ENGINE 2 CONTENT Pneumatic Systems Ice & rain protection Thrust reverser APU Engine Fuel SYS Engine...

ENGINE 2 CONTENT Pneumatic Systems Ice & rain protection Thrust reverser APU Engine Fuel SYS Engine A/C fuel SYS Lubrication Ice protection Ignition Starting Engine controls Engine indication Pneumatic Systems 1. 8th stage air cannot pressurise the 13th stage of the compressor because: a. Of check valves. b. Of the HPSOV. c. HP stage is higher pressure than LP stage air. 2. The isolation valve: a. Remains closed unless a cross feed of bleed air are required. b. Will automatically open if a bleed air overheat occurs. c. Is operated through air/ground sense. 3. A leaking pneumatic duct: a. Will cause overheating of adjacent structure. b. Will cause pressure to drop so the HPSOV will open. c. Will cause the engine to increase in rpm to make up loss of pressure. 4. Overpressure is usually caused by: a. Engine rpm too high. b. Excessive bleeds switched on. c. HPSOV seized open. 5. If the heat exchanger flow valve is closed the bleed air temperature is: a. Too hot. b. Too cool. c. At the correct temperature. 6. The pneumatic bleed air thermostat controls: a. The heat exchanger flow valve. b. The bleed valve. c. The HPSOV. 7. A PRSOV is: a. A shut off valve and regulator combined. b. A shut off valve with high pressure regulator combined. c. A shut off valve only. 8. on a dual needle pneumatic pressure gauge: a. One needle measures HP stage and one LP stage. b. One needle is a back up for the other. c. One needle measures the left SYS the other needle measured the right SYS. 1 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  9. What material are the engine bleed air ducts made from? a. Titanium. b. Stainless Steel. c. Aluminium. 10. If a flexible ball joint was found to be leaking what would be your first action? a. Change the duct section. b. Replace the bearing nut. c. Dismantle, measures the gap and replace the seal, then carry out a leak check. 11. If Skydrol comes in contact with hot titanium bleed air ducts the results would be: a. Brittleness and corrosion to the duct. b. No appreciable damage. c. The ducts will crack at the welds. 12. If the pressure regulation SYS on a ground car malfunctions how a rise in duct will pressure be contained? a. Weak sections in the duct will relieve the pressure. b. A relief valve fitted to the ground cart will function. c. The pressure regulation SYS of the bleed air SYS will regulate the pressure. Ice & rain protection 1. Thermal anti-ice Systems work on the principle of: a. Pumping air through tubes to change the shape of the aerofoil to break off the ice. b. Heating the leading edge surfaces to raise their temperature to prevent the formation of ice. c. Heating the boundary layer to blow warm air over all the lift surfaces. 2. the most common source of hot air for TAI is: a. A gas turbine compressor bleeds. b. An electric heating element in the leading edge. c. Heated de-icing fluid sprayed over the leading edge. 3. Auto/manual Systems are: a. Used by the ground crew prior to take off. b. Set by the pilot when icing conditions are met. c. Used by a flight engineer. 4. On a ground test of a TAI SYS an overheat of the leading edge surfaces is prevented by: a. Vigilance by the engineer carrying out the run. b. Temperature switches which will close the TAI valves. c. Cool air being blown over the surfaces to act as airflow. 5. The temperature at which ice formation is likely to occur is: a. At freezing point. b. Below +10°C. c. Below +10°F. 6. The hot rod ice detector lamp on flight deck illuminates when: a. Ice is detected. b. When visible moisture is present. c. The pilot selects it. 2 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  7. Heating elements in ice detectors are used: a. To clear the mast enabling further monitoring to take place. b. To keep the mast clear of ice at all times. c. To prevent the blockage of pressure holes by ice. 8. The operation of the serrated rotor detector relies upon: a. A speed sensing switch. b. A torque sensing switch. c. A pressure sensing switch. 9. The serrated sleeve on the output of the wipe mechanism, allows the blade arm to: a. Be adjusted for blade tension. b. Reposition the blade sweep. c. Be replaced without tools. 10. If the sweep of Hydraulically operated wipers is insufficient, your first action would be to: a. Change the wiper heads. b. Move the blade arm on the serrated sleeve. c. Bleed the wiper SYS. 11. The pressure required to spray rain repellent on the windscreen comes from: a. A pre-pressurised canister. b. The A/C pneumatic ducting. c. The A/C's air stream. 12. Blade tension should be checked with: a. Feeler gauges to measure the gap between the blade and the windscreen. b. A spring balance. c. There is no need as the wiper arm can be bent towards the screen. 13. Glass always used as the outer layer of a heated windscreen to: a. Give the window strength. b. Resist bird strikes. c. Prevent scratching. 14. On an air ducted SYS with a forward duct this duct is used to: a. Heat the screen. b. Disperse rain. c. Anti-ice the forward part of the A/C's nose. 15. If the conductive coating is close to the outer pane, the main function of the coating is to: a. Plasticise. b. Demist. c. De-ice. 16. Windscreen heat assists impact resistance by: a. Making the vinyl more flexible. b. Making the glass more flexible. c. Allowing the A/C to fly at higher altitudes. 17. Heating elements are fitted on Pitot probes to the: a. Pitot head. b. Pitot mast. c. Pitot head and mast. 18. A green indicator light on the crew panel indicates: a. That power is on the Pitot heater. b. The heater is being thermostatically controlled. 3 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. There is no heat at the Pitot heater. 19. Static plates are usually unheated because: a. They are not as necessary as Pitot probes. b. They do not project into the air stream. c. Holes are used instead of slots. 20. Drain mast heaters are powered: a. On the ground only. b. When the heaters are switched on. c. All the time the A/C's electrical SYS is powered. Thrust reverser 1. To ensure that reversers only operate on the ground one of the inputs to the isolation valve control unit is the: a. Ground/air sense. b. Deactivation pin in the isolation valve. c. Feedback cables to the control drum. 2. The directional control valve receives signals from the: a. Isolation valve. b. Control drum. c. Feedback cable. 3. Feedback cables are normally connected to the control drum at one end, and the other end is connected to the: a. Door linkage. b. Isolation valve. c. Directional control valve. 4. Before Reverse Thrust can be selected ,The Fwd Thrust lever must be a. At idle. b. At full power. c. At intermediate power position. 5. The purpose of cascade Vanes is that they direct gas flow a. rearward b. onto the fan blades c. In a Forward direction 6. The electric Solenoid on the isolation valve receives its Signal from the: a. reverse thrust lever b. directional control valve c. strut drum box 7. The directional control valve is activated by mechanical signal from the: a. Strut box b. Isolation valve c. Feedback cable 8. As a safety measure, Pins can be inserted into the SYS to prevent an advertent operation during maintenance, this can be inserted in the: a. Feedback cable b. Strut box c. Isolation valve 9. In the HYD fan reverser SYS described, how is the centre actuator UN locked? 4 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  a. By HYD pressure unlocking the lock lever b. By pneumatic air unlocking lock lever c. By the directional control valve unlocking the lock lever 10. Normally the air supply for pneumatic Fan reversers is from: a. Air bottle supply b. Compressor bleed c. Turbine air bleed 11. How can a thrust reverser SYS be electrically isolated: a. By inserting a locking pin b. By a pulling circuit breaker c. By locking the reverser thrust lever 12. What component is fitted to ensure the correct operating Pressure for a pneumatically operated reverse SYS? a. An isolation valve b. A directional control valve c. A pressure regulating valve APU 1. The load compressor is driven by the: a. turbine b. Accessory gearbox. c. Combustion chamber exhausts gas. 2. As well as providing electrical power, the APU provides pneumatic power to: a. Drive the HYD pump. b. Provide an engine start function. c. Provide equipment cooling. 3. The A/C structure and components are protected from exhaust duct temperature by: a. Wrapping the duct in an insulating blanket. b. Directing cooling air into the exhaust duct. c. Nothing. There is no requirement for structural protection because of the APU bay size. 4. Once the APU inlet door open, signal is sent from the ctrl box to: a. Operate the load compressor. b. Turn the fuel supply on. c. Turn the starter motor. 5. The by-pass valve acceleration limiter senses air pressure: a. From the exhaust duct. b. From the compressor air. c. From the turbine. 6. During an over temperature condition, the thermostat will bleed air from the: a. By-pass valve (acceleration limiter). b. Exhaust duct. c. Speed governor. 7. The APU speed is controlled by the: a. Thermostat. b. Governor. c. Acceleration limiter. 8. The operation of the flow divider is controlled by the: a. Air pressure. b. Thermostat. 5 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. Fuel pressure. 9. The bleed control valves are: a. Pneumatically operated, electrically controlled. b. Hydraulically operated, pneumatically controlled. c. Pneumatically operated, pneumatically controlled. 10. The control thermostat bleeds air from the: a. Compressor. b. Inlet guide vane actuator. c. Bleed control valve. 11. The switcher valve controls the pressure air to the: a. Inlet guide vane actuator. b. bleed control valve, c. Control thermostat. 12. In the event of a failure of the control thermostat to operate, the bleed SYS is protected from over temperature by the: a. Bleed valve opening. b. IGV actuator moving the vanes to the open position. c. Immersion thermocouple interrupting power to the bleed valve. 13. The movement of the IGV actuator is controlled by the: a. Bleed switch. b. Control thermostat. c. Auxiliary power control unit. 14. The cooling fan on an APU is driven by the: a. Turbine. b. Compressor. c. Gearbox. 15. The cooling fan shut-off valve is controlled by the: a. Compressor discharge pressure. b. Turbine exhausts pressure. c. Compressor inlet pressure. 16. What component is fitted to protect the APU compartment from differential pressures? a. A pressure switch in the pneumatic duct. b. A 'blow in' door assembly. c. A bleed valve fitted in the pneumatic duct. 17. Which APU indicating gauge will give an indication of the condition of the APU? a. The EGT gauge. b. The bleed air duct pressure gauge. c. The rpm gauge. 18. For the typical APU start sequence described in this booklet, the APU starter will dropout at: a. 7 % rpm b. 50% rpm c. 95%rpm 19. How can we ascertain that the extinguishing has been discharged from the APU fire bottle: a. By a bottle discharge light. b. By a red light on the APU fire handle. c. By a master warning light illuminating. 20. APU electrical generators are designed to run at: a. 12,000 rpm. b. 42,000 rpm. 6 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. 8,000 rpm. 21. During APU start sequence the APU 'load' light illuminate at: a. 50%. b. 100%. c. 95%. Engine Fuel System 1. Which type of fuel pump has an impeller fitted: a. The const. displacement pump. b. The variable displacement pump. c. The double acting displacement pump. 2. What will be the position of the cam plate of a variable displacement pump if the interrupter blade in the kinetic spill valve completely separates the two opposing flows? a. Off load. b. On load. c. Intermediate load. 3. In a const. displacement type pump, how is maximum pressure controlled? a. By a servo valve. b. By a cam plate. c. By a pressure relief valve. 4. In an engine fuel SYS, the component that meters and computes the correct fuel flow to the engines is the: a. Fuel pump. b. Fuel control unit. c. Fuel heater. 5. A decrease in air density will cause: a. An increase in thrust. b. A decrease in thrust. c. No effect on thrust. 6. Which sensor adjusts fuel flow in relation to temperature changes? a. The CDP limiter. b. The compressor inlet temperature sensor. c. The throttle valve. 7. In which ATA Maintenance Manual chapter will you find information on fuel control? a. Chapter 71. b. Chapter 36. c. Chapter 73. 8. Servo pressure operates certain components within the fuel control unit, one of these is the: a. Pilot valve. b. CDP limiter. c. Compressor inlet temperature sensor. 9. The purpose of the throttle valve is to: a. Ensure that the correct amount of fuel is directed to the burners. b. Allow servo pressure to the CIT sensor. c. Direct unwanted fuel back to the high pressure boost pump. 10. The electronic engine control SYS receives its electrical power: a. From the A/C's main generators. b. From the battery supply. 7 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. From an independent power source. 11. The T2 electrical sensor provides inlet temperature signal to: a. EEC computer. b. The thrust management computer. c. The fuel control unit. 12. The digital air data computer receives signals related to the: a. Fuel flow. b. Ambient pressure. c. Compressor discharge pressure. 13. The torque drive motor receives its signal from the: a. Electronic engine control computer. b. Thrust management computer. c. Fuel control unit. 14. The digital air data computer provides signals to the : a. Fuel control unit. b. Electronic engine control computer. c. Flight deck instruments. 15. The flow meter indicates the: a. Mass flow. b. Fuel density. c. Specific gravity. 16. A fuel filter light indicates: a. A fuel filters by-pass condition. b. An oil cooler blockage. c. A blocked fuel filter. 17. The fuel filter differential switch senses: a. Filter inlet pressure only. b. Filter outlet pressure only. c. A combination of inlet and outlet pressures. 18. To prevent fuel loss from the SYS during a fuel filter change, the filter has a: a. By-pass valve fitted. b. Fuel shut-off valve fitted. c. Non return valve in the fuel pump assembly. 19. Duplex nozzles have: a. Primary and secondary flow. b. Secondary flow only. c. Primary flow only. 20. The type of fuel flow associated with a 'tulip' spray is: a. Low pressure flow. b. High pressure flow. c. Intermediate pressure flow. 21. Some nozzles have an airflow directed across the fuel outlet, this is to: a. Help create a better spray pattern. b. Cool the nozzle head. c. Prevent carbon deposits forming. 22. Which nozzle type has tangential swirl ports? a. Duplex. b. Simplex. c. A combination of both. 23. In a typical flow divider, how is the fuel flow prevented from reaching the secondary manifold during start-up? 8 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  a. By using a spring loaded pressurising valve. b. By incorporating a dump valve. c. By inclusion of a spring-loaded filter assembly. 24. A secondary fuel flow manifold is required during: a. Start-up. b. High power settings. c. Low power settings. A/C fuel System 1. There are three types of fuel tank. These are: a. Fuselage, wing and saddle tanks. b. Rigid, semi-rigid and flexible. c. Rigid, flexible and integral. 2. An 'integral’ tank is: a. A specific fuel tank fitted in a fuselage. b. A sealed compartment of an A/C structure. c. A permanently fitted external tank. 3. Baffle plates are fitted in fuel tanks to: a. Strengthen the internal structure. b. Attach a rigid tank to the A/C structure. c. Prevent surging of the fuel during abnormal manoeuvres. 4. How are flexible tanks supported within their compartments? a. With rivets. b. With studs or cord. c. No support is required as they are 'wet' assembled during manufacture. 5. When fitting flexible tanks, it is important that any protruding material is: a. Removed. b. Smoothed flat with files. c. Covered with tape or rubber. 6. A 'wet1 tank is: a. An integral tank. b. A flexible tank. c. A rigid tank. 7. Fuel tanks are vented so that: a. Excess fuel can drain away rapidly after over-filling. b. Fuel can be jettisoned in an emergency. c. A vacuum will not form as fuel is used. 8. The international marking symbol for fuel is: a. A black four-pointed star. b. A black circle. c. A red triangle. 9. The normal maximum pressure for pressure refuelling is : a. 55 psi, b. 50 psi. c. 70 psi. 10. Fuel tanks are electrically bonded to: a. Prevent a build-up of static electricity. b. Ensure a power source is available to operate refuel valves. c. Vent the fuel tank. 9 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  11. In an auto slumping jet pump scavenging SYS, the motive force is provided by: a. Boost pump pressure. b. Refuelling pressure. c. Jet pump pressure. 12. Microbiological organisms are identified by: a. A blue slime. b. A black slime. c. A cloudy fuel mixture. 13. Sump drain valves are positioned at: a. The highest point of the tank. b. In the refuel manifold. c. The lowest point of the tank. 14. Where are boost pumps usually located on large A/C: a. Under the wing. b. In the refuel panel. c. In the refuel manifold. 15. What is the purpose of a float valve? a. To de-energise a fuel shut-off valve. b. To de-energise a refuel valve. c. To vent air to and from a fuel tank. 16. What is the purpose of a fuel boost pump? a. To pump fuel to the engines. b. To assist in venting of the fuel tanks. c. To assist in refuelling of the A/C. 17. State the purpose of a float switch. a. To close off fuel to and from tanks during fuel transfer. b. To de-energise a refuel valve. c. To operate low pressure warning lights on the flight deck. 18. Turbine fuels are normally manufactured from: a. Crude oil. b. Shale oil. c. Petroleum spirits. 19. JET A-l turbine fuel is used: a. For high altitude operations. b. Only in hot climates. c. In low temperatures. 20. Micro-organism growth within fuel tanks can be identified by: a. Blue slime. b. Black slime. c. Yellow slime. 21. Micro-organism growth can be eliminated by: a. The addition of additives in the fuel. b. By heating the fuel. c. By cooling the fuel. 22. What type of liquid supports microbiological growth within fuel tanks: a. Gasoline. b. Water. c. biofor. 23. A drip stick: a. Indicates the amount of water in the fuel. b. Indicates the severity of a leak. 10 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. Indicates the contents of a fuel tank. 24. Leaks may be classified as: a. Slight or severe. b. A stain, seep or run. c. Small medium and large. 25. State the approximate size of the diameter of a heavy seep: a. 3" - 4". b. 1 1/2" - 3". c. 3/4". 26. One type of fuel measuring SYS is used as a back up for the electrical type. This is the: a. Float switch. b. Float valve. c. Drip stick/sight glass. 27. Filter differential pop out indicators are normally coloured: a. black b. Green c. Red 28. When using a heater for filter de-icing, the hot air is obtained from the: a. Engine bleeds air. b. Engine exhausts air. c. Heater mats. 29. High pressure filters are located: a. Downstream of the fuel heater. b. Upstream of the fuel heater. c. Upstream of the wing booster pump. 30. Drain valves are: a. Located at the highest point of the fuel tank. b. Located at the lowest point of the fuel tank. c. Attached to engine driven fuel pump. 31. Wire mesh screens are a form of filter, they are located in: a. The fuel tanks. b. The high pressure filters. c. The fuel heaters. Lubrication 1. The oil tank for a gas turbine engine is normally located: a. On the engine casings. b. On the airframe structure. c. Inside the engine structure. 2. An oil tank may be manufactured from: a. Copper. b. Mild steel. c. Aluminium alloy. 3. Which statement is correct? a. An oil tank is always pressurised. b. An oil tank normally has a vent. c. An oil tank level is correct when it is completely full. 4. The primary function of an oil tank is to: a. Provide a means of filling and checking the SYS. b. Store oil and provide a supply to the SYS. 11 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. Provide for expansion within the SYS. 5. Oil flow from the tank to the pressure pump is: a. By means of suction from the pump. b. Under gravity to the pump. c. Under pressure from within the tank. 6. Which statement is correct? a. The manufacturer will state which type of oil must be used. b. The operator will state which type of oil must be used. c. The operator can use any type of oil he chooses. 7. An oil tank is checked for the correct level: a. At any time after a flight. b. Immediately after a flight. c. At a prescribed time after a flight. 8. Gas turbine lubricating oils: a. Can harm the skin after prolonged contact. b. Will not cause harm to the skin. c. Will only stain the skin. 9. Oil tanks should be topped up from: a. Clean opened cans of the correct type of oil. b. Unopened cans of any type of gas turbine lubricating oil. c. Unopened cans of the approved type specified by the operator. 10. Which statement is correct? a. Oil is not normally drained and replaced as a routine servicing item. b. Oil is drained and replaced as a routine servicing item. c. Oil is never completely drained from the oil tank or SYS. 11. Oil filter elements are changed: a. Only when they become blocked. b. Whenever they are removed for examination. c. When laid down in the Maintenance Schedule. 12. The oil flow through a spur gear pump: a. Is around the outside of the gears. b. Is between the gears. c. Is around the outside and through the centre of the gears. 13. On a gearotor pump: a. Only the inner rotor rotates. b. Only the outer rotor rotates. c. Both inner and outer rotors rotate. 14. An oil pressure relief valve is fitted: a. To limit the SYS pressure. b. To limit the SYS pressure and protect the pump. c. To by-pass the filter element if it becomes blocked. 15. Engine oil pressure is normally checked: a. At high engine r.p.m. b. At any engine speed. c. At ground idle r.p.m. 16. How many microns are there to the inch? a. 25,400. b. 1,000. c. 25.4. 17. A stacked screen type of filter: a. Is a disposable type filter. b. Is a cleanable type filter. 12 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. Is a self cleaning type filter. 18. A filter by-pass: a. Prevents damage to the filter element if the oil pressure is high. b. Prevents oil flow back through the filter when the SYS is shut down. c. Allows unfiltered oil flow through the SYS when the filter element is blocked. 19. When removing a magnetic plug type filter, oil loss is prevented: a. Because there is a check valve in the filter housing. b. Because the filter is always on the highest point in the SYS. c. Because the SYS is always shut down before removing the plug. 20. When refitting a filter element: a. New seals are fitted if old ones are damaged. b. New seals are always fitted. c. Seals may be used a second time only. 21. You are ground running an engine, and the oil temperature rapidly increases. The oil pressure is normal, what is the possible cause? a. The oil cooler relief valve is stuck closed. b. The oil cooler relief valve is stuck open. c. The main regulator valve is not working correctly. 22. You are starting an engine and the low oil pressure warning indicator remains illuminated. The main oil pressure indication is normal. What is the possible cause? a. Low oil pressure switch malfunction. b. Not enough oil in the SYS. c. Main pressure pumps not working. 23. If the wax compound in a thermostatic by-pass leaks out of the capsule in an oil cooler. The valve will: a. Stay open. b. Close. c. Not move. 24. As the oil temperature of an engine increases, the oil pressure will: a. Decrease. b. Increase. c. Stay const. 25. The cooling medium used in most gas turbine oil coolers is: a. Fuel. b. HYD fluid. c. Oil and air. 26. The oil cooler will normally be located: a. On the airframe. b. In the engine air intake. c. On the engine. 27. The low oil pressure warning light will illuminate: a. If oil pressure falls below the minimum. b. When oil pressure rises above the minimum. c. If the oil pressure transmitter fails. 28. When ground running an engine the oil pressure indicator falls to zero, the low oil pressure warning light is out and the oil temperature is normal. You should suspect: 13 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  a. Low oil level in SYS. b. Failure of low oil pressure warning light. c. Failure of oil pressure transmitter. 29. "O" ring seals: a. Should be changed each time the component they are fitted to be dismantled. b. Should be changed only if their condition warrants it. c. Are changed only when stated in the Maintenance Manual. 30. A spring ring seal is only effective: a. When it is stationary. b. When it is rotating. c. When it is either rotating or stationary. 31. On a labyrinth seal fitted to protect a bearing: a. Air does not pass across the seal. b. Air and oil meet at the centre of the seal. c. Air will pass across the seal. 32. A screw back seal will normally: a. Screw the oil away from the bearing. b. Screw the air away from the bearing. c. Screw oil back to the bearing. 33. Consider the following types of seal. If they became defective, which one is most likely to cause a high breather pressure to occur? a. Screw back. b. Labyrinth. c. '0' ring. 34. Oil is leaking from main filter housing. The most likely cause would be: a. A defective spring ring seal. b. A defective HYD seal. c. A defective '0' ring seal. 35. An oil leak onto the compressor may cause: a. Burning and distress on the compressor. b. Oil baking onto the compressor or dirt sticking to it. c. An increase in oil and breather pressure. 36. Which statement is correct? a. If a carbon seal is defective, both halves would be changed. b. A carbon seal is always backed up with a labyrinth seal. c. If a carbon seal becomes defective, only the defective half needs to be changed. 37. Oil leaking internally into an engine may causer a. A decrease in fuel consumption. b. A decrease in engine performance. c. A decrease in breather pressure. 38. With respect to seals in the lubrication SYS, which statement is correct? a. They help to prevent loss of oil from the SYS. b. They help to keep breather pressure low in the SYS. c. They help to keep the oil clean in the SYS. 39. A bearing which can accept radial and axial loads in one direction is a: a. Needle roller bearing. 14 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  b. Angular contact bearing. c. Plain bearing. 40. A cylindrical roller bearing is: a. Used where there is a large radial load. b. Used where there is a large axial load. c. Only used where the motion of the bearing is oscillatory. 41. Tapered roller bearings which are fitted in pairs are: a. Fitted with the cone ends towards each other. b. Fitted with the cone ends away from each other. c. Fitted with the cone ends both facing in the same direction. 42. Fluid damped bearings: a. Dampen out noise. b. Dampen out vibration. c. Are always ball bearings. 43. Bearings which are to be stored should be stored: a. Flat. b. On their edges. c. In either condition. 44. Which gear would be quietest in operation? a. Spur. b. Straight bevel. c. Helical. 45. Backlash in gears: a. Will only occur with wear. b. Is necessary. c. Should be eliminated on installation. 46. Helical gears: a. Produce an axial load. b. Produce a radial load. c. Are only used to change direction. 47. Plain bearings: a. are made from hard alloys, b. Are made from soft metals. c. Can be made from either. 48. On a torque meter SYS what happens to the oil spill with an increase in engine power? a. It remains const. b. It will decrease. c. It will increase. 49. On a torque meter SYS what will happen to torque meter pressure if the propeller feathers in flight? a. It will remain normal until the gearbox stops rotating. b. It will increase very slowly. c. It will decrease. 50. The oil pressure required for operation of a propeller pitch change mechanism: a. Is the same as the engine oil pressure? b. Will be a higher value than engine oil pressure. c. Will fluctuate above and below engine oil pressure dependent on engine speed. 51. A feathering pump is normally driven: a. Hydraulically. b. Pneumatically. 15 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. Electrically. 52. The feathering pump oil is supplied from: a. The pitch change mechanism returns supply. b. A separate oil tank. c. The engine oil tank. 53. Turbo-prop engines use a slightly higher viscosity oil than a turbo jet engine, this is due to: a. Higher engine rpm. b. Lower propeller rpm. c. Gear loading in the reduction gearbox. 54. Which type of oil is used for gas turbine engine lubricating Systems? a. Mineral. b. Vegetable. c. Synthetic. 55. Which type of lubrication provides a measurable quantity of oil between the bearing surfaces? a. Film lubrication. b. Boundary lubrication. c. Splash lubrication. 56. A gas turbine lubricant should possess: a. Stable viscosity. b. Low viscosity. c. High viscosity. 57. Which material would not be affected by synthetic lubricating oil? a. Neoprene. b. Silicones rubber. c. Natural rubber. 58. An extreme pressure additive would be found in engine oil used in an engine where there were: a. Heavily loaded gears. b. High temperature bearings. c. Two or more compressors. 59. An oil sample for an A/C on a SOAP programme will be taken: a. Immediately after engine shutdown. b. Any time after engine shutdown. c. When instructed in the oil sampling procedure. 60. A quick method used to detect water in lubricating oil would be: a. Heat a small sample to 200 C. b. Freeze a small sample to -20 C. c. Mix a small sample in kerosene. Any water falls to the bottom of the container. 61. The amount of solid metallic contaminants in an oil sample is given as: a. grams per cubic centimetre of fluid, b. a rate of change in its viscosity, c. Parts per million. 62. A chip detector is normally installed: a. In the pressure SYS. b. In the scavenge SYS. c. In either the pressure or scavenge SYS. 63. Which statement is correct? a. Synthetic turbine oils will affect thermo setting plastics. 16 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  b. Prolonged exposure to synthetic oils may cause dermatitis. c. The flash points of synthetic turbine oils are very low. 64. If you find ageing cracks on a flexible hose during an inspection: a. It is classed as unserviceable and cannot be used. b. It is unserviceable only if the cracks penetrate to the first braided layer. c. It is unserviceable if the cracks go completely around the hose. 65. When carrying out a ball test the ball is: a. Passed through the hose from both ends. b. Only passed through from one end. c. Pushed through the hose from both ends. 66. A removed flexible hose is found to have a permanent set or twist: a. this would make the hose unserviceable b. This may be gently straightened whilst testing the hose. c. No attempt should be made to straighten out a permanent set. 67. A hose which has been previously installed develops a small blister or bulge when under a pressure test It: a. Is considered unserviceable if the full test pressure has not been reached. b. Is considered serviceable if the blister or bulge dissipates when pressure is released. c. would be classed as unserviceable 68. A hose assembly which normally flexes in use: a. Should not be flexed during a pressure test. b. Should be flexed 15 in all directions during a test. c. Should be flexed through its normal angle plus 15 either way during a test. 69. A flexible fire resistant hose may have: a. A metallic braided outer cover. b. Asbestos braided outer cover. c. A neoprene outer sleeve. 70. On which type of engine drain would there be a 'nil' allowance of drainage? a. Failure drains. b. Unit drains. c. Dump drains. 71. A flexible hose when under pressure: a. Increases in length and diameter. b. Increases in diameter and decreases in length. c. Increases in length and decreases in diameter. Ice protection 1. An engine requires protection against the icing up of the front of the compressor! Section, and the: a. Turbine disc. b. Leading edge, of the intake. c. Temperature probe. 2. Rotor blades of compressors are: a. Always anti-iced. b. Never anti-iced. c. Sometimes anti-iced. 17 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  3. The hot air SYS of ice protection is known as: a. De-icing. b. Ice heating. c. Anti-icing. 4. The stator anti-ice valve is powered by: a. 28 V AC. b. 115 V AC. c. 28 V DC. 5. The nacelle anti-ice valve is located: a. On the engine. b. In the pylon. c. In the wing leading edge. 6. The stator anti-ice valve is located: a. On the engine. b. In the pylon. c. In the wing leading edge. 7. Engine heater elements are sometimes called: a. Heater strips. b. Ribbon heaters. c. Coils. 8. AC. power is used for anti-icing Systems because it: a. Is readily available. b. Is frequency conscious c. Has a high power output. 9. Electrical heating pads are attached to the skin by: a. Rivets. b. Bolts. c. Bonding. 10. A two speed cycling SYS is often used for : a. A spinner. b. Generator air cooling. c. Variable inlet guide vanes. 11. The thickness of protective coating covering a de-icing mat is approximately: a. 012 inch. b. 0012 inch. c. 12 inch. 12. The thickness of the conductive film in the de-icing mat is: a. 5 inch. b. 05 inch. c. 005 inch. Ignition 1. Engine relight circuits are used for: a. Engine starting. b. Wet runway take offs. c. Flame out situations. 2. A joule is a unit of: a. Work done. b. Energy. c. Power. 18 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  3. A high energy ignition unit may be supplied by: a. AC. power only. b. DC. Power only. c. AC. or DC. Power. 4. The safe waiting period after disconnecting the low-tension supply before maintenance is : a. Ten seconds. b. 1/2 minute. c. One minute. 5. Which type of HEIU has a trembler (converts DC to AC) unit? a. AC. type. b. DC. Type. c. Transistor type. 6. One of the advantages of a transistorised HEIU is that it: a. Have no moving parts. b. Is fitted with a small trembler. c. Produces a higher voltage than the AC. and DC. Type. 7. Fouling of an igniter plug is minimised by: a. Cleaning nozzle airflows. b. The fuel. c. The intensity of the spark. 8. The igniter plug sometimes referred to as the long reach igniter plug is the: a. Annular-gap igniter. b. Bi-annular-gap igniter. c. Constrained-gap igniter. Starting 1. Self-sustaining speed is: a. Higher than ground idle. b. Lower than ground idle. c. The same as ground idle. 2. Stopping the starting cycle may be achieved by closing the fuel cock and placing the ignition switch to: a. Stand by. b. Off. c. Flight. 3. In a triple spool engine, the compressor connected to the starter is the: a. LP compressor. b. Intermediate compressor. c. HP compressor. 4. As the cranking speed increases, the starter voltage: a. Reduces. b. Increases. c. Remains unaffected. 5. Which starter is permanently coupled to the engine shaft? a. Current control direct drive. b. Sprag clutch type. c. Starter generator. 6. During starting, the igniter relays are energised by the: a. Throttle ignition switch. b. Battery earth. 19 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  c. Acceleration control unit. 7. The instrument used for checking the electrical resistance between the insulated terminal and the starter case is a: a. 500 volt insulation tester. b. 250 volt insulation tester. c. Bonding tester. 8. The acceptable resistance for a starter insulation check is: a. 50 fl. b. 500 ft. c. 500000 ft. 9. When compared with an air turbine starter the electric starter: a. Is lighter. b. Produces more torque. c. Is heavier. 10. During a normal start, the starter is disengaged by the: a. Aircrew. b. Ground crew. c. sprag clutch assembly. 11. Air starter rotating parts are lubricated by: a. Application of a grease gun. b. An oil reservoir. c. A drip feed wick. 12. The starter magnetic plug is combined with the: a. Oil fill plug. b. Level plug. c. Drain plug. 13. The type of valve used for a start valve is a: a. Butterfly valve. b. Annular valve. c. Gate valve. 14. When starting speed is reached, the earth for the start solenoid is broken by the: a. Over speed switch. b. Centrifugal cut-out switch. c. Engine start switches being released. 15. The starting air used in an air impingement starting SYS is directed directly onto the engine by the: a. Compressor. b. Turbine. c. Starter. 16. During an engine start the surge bleed valve will be : a. Open. b. Closed. c. Modulating. Engine control 1. Under normal conditions, the operation of thrust reversers will only be carried out when: a. The feed back signal senses the doors are closed. b. The forward thrust levers are at full power settings. c. The reverser doors are fully open. 20 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  2. Insertion of a locking clip into a turnbuckle can only be accomplished when: a. Both slots are opposite each other. b. Three threads are exposed. c. Both slots align with each other. 3. Control cable quick stops : a. Is part of engine control range of movement checks? b. Allow cables to separate when engines separate from the wing. c. Are quick release units used during engine changes? 4. A control cable friction brake: a. Allows the cable to stay in one selected position during engine changes. b. Ensures cables do not move from their selected position. c. Allows auto throttle drive units to move the controls. 5. The thrust reverser directional control valve: a. Ports pressure fluid to the pulley control box. b. Keeps a steady tension on the control cables. c. Ports pressure fluid (air or oil) through to the thrust reverser SYS on a signal from the thrust reverse lever. 6. Control cable collets will be found: a. In pressure seals. b. In pulley assemblies. c. In turnbuckle assemblies. 7. The method of checking the friction of control cables uses a: a. Spring balance. b. Cable tensiometer. c. Clinometers. 8. The prime purpose of friction brakes is to: a. Ensure they cannot be accidentally moved by the crew. b. Ensure that the LP cock opens before the throttle is moved. c. Ensure that the cables stay in their selected position. 9. The engine control drum assembly: a. Converts the cable to control rod operation. b. Converts electrical signals into cable operation. c. Converts control rod movement into cable operation. 10. In a mechanical HP cock operation and thrust lever control, how many cables are required for operation of the control drum assembly? a. Two b. Four c. Six 11. Controls for the mechanical HP cock operation will be found: a. On the control pedestal. b. On the control column. c. Attached to the fuel control unit. 12. The LP fuel cock is normally: a. Mechanical in operation. b. Pneumatic in operation. c. Electrical in operation. 13. The HP fuel cock will normally be found: a. In the fuel pipe into the engine fuel SYS. b. Adjacent to the fuel outlet pipe from the fuel control unit. c. Within the fuel pump. 21 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  14. The auto throttle servo drive receives signals from the: a. Air data computer. b. Thrust management computer. c. Mode control panel. 15. The thrust management computer uses signals from bleed inputs to calculate the thrust setting of the engine. If bleeds are increased the auto throttle will: a. Increase engine thrust. b. Decrease engine thrust. c. Make no change in thrust lever position. 16. The air data computer senses: a. Temperature. b. Engine speed. c. Throttle position. 17. Selection of a desired airspeed in flight is achieved by the: a. Air data computer. b. Thrust management computer. c. Mode control panel. 18. Selection of the NLG/EPR button is normally done during: a. climb b. cruse c. take off 19. Selection of propeller brake can only be achieved: a. When the HP cock is open. b. When the HP cock is closed. c. When the fine pitch control is activated. 20. Engine sensors send information to the: a. Mode control panel. b. Air data computer. c. Thrust management computer. 21. In flight the idle select solenoid is: a. Energised to flight idle. b. De-energised to ground idle. c. De-energised to flight idle. 22. The torque motor within the electronic engine control SYS: a. Provides down trim only. b. Provides up trim only. c. Provides both down and up trim. 23. The electronic engine control computer computes engine speed using two inputs. These inputs originate from: a. The engine. b. The flight deck. c. Air data computers. 24. As the A/C climbs to altitude, the cable tension: a. Decreases. b. Increases. c. Remains the same. 25. How can the correct riser on a tensiometer be determined? a. From the Maintenance Manual. b. By a code number on the riser. c. From a temperature chart. 26. What time should be allowed for a thermometer to stabilize before determining a temperature correction for the cable tension? 22 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  a. 3 hours. b. 1 hour. c. 1/2 hour. 27. To determine the temperature before calculating cable tensions, the thermometer must sense temperature: a. Within the airframe. b. Outside the airframe. c. On information supplied by the control tower. 28. Before switching off the EEC, the thrust levers must be: a. At full power position. b. At idle position. c. Any position. 29. Pulling the circuit breaker on the idle reset solenoid on the ground will: a. De-energise the solenoid. b. Energise the solenoid. c. Make no difference. Engine indication 1. How is EPR expressed? a. Inlet Pressure/ Exhaust Pressure b. Exhaust Pressure/ Inlet Pressure c. Inlet Temperature/ Exhaust Pressure 2. Rapid response thermocouples are found on: a. Turboprop engines. b. Jet turbine engines. c. Piston engines. 3. EGT thermocouples are linked in parallel. This is to ensure that: a. They will continue to indicate if one fails. b. The A/C electric power is directed to all probes. c. They give an average figure. 4. The hot junction of a thermocouple is found at the: a. Probe end. b. Indicator end. c. Junction box. 5. Thermocouples have two wires, one is calomel, the other is normally: a. Steel. b. copper c. Chrome. 6. EGT gauges indicate temperature in degrees a. Fahrenheit. b. Celsius. c. Rankin. 7. Where in the oil SYS is oil temperature sensed? a. As the oil passes into the engine. b. As the oil passes out of the engine. c. Within the oil tank. 8. Which component in a fuel flow transmitter ensures that the fuel flow turns the rotor in the correct direction? a. Swirl generator. b. Restraining spring. c. Turbine. 23 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  9. Too little fuel during engine start may cause: a. A hot start. b. A cold start. c. A hung start. 10. The low oil pressure warning light will indicate: a. When the pressure gauge pointer reaches the low limit. b. When the pressure gauge pointer reaches the upper limit. c. When the pointer goes into the yellow band of the pressure gauge. 11. Vibration monitoring sensors: a. Are non self-generating - requiring electrical power. b. Are self electric generating sensors. c. Are fed from the main battery. 12. The status mode of indication is associated with: a. The minimum dispatch equipment list. b. Maintenance SYS faults. c. A standby indicating SYS. 13. Which of the following is a primary engine indication? a. N2. b. EGT. c. Oil pressure. 14. Secondary engine parameters will be seen on the: a. Upper CRT. b. Lower CRT. c. Maintenance screens„ 15. SYS alert messages will be seen on the: a. Lower CRT display. b. Status mode display. c. Upper CRT display. 16. If an engine parameter exceeds its design limits, the indications on the CRT turn: a. Blue. b. Yellow. c. Red. Fire System 1. What are the three methods of engine fire management? Containment, detection, and rapid extinction. 2. List the two types of heat detector switches. Thermal switches and thermocouples. 3. What electrical power supply is used for detector switches? D.C. 4. Are detectors connected in parallel or series? Parallel. 5. Will a short circuit cause a spurious indication of fire? No. 6. Are thermal switch indicator lights in series or parallel with the detectors? Series. 7. Are all heat detector switches heat reset-able? No. 8. What audible warning of a fire is given in the cockpit? A ringing bell. 24 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME. ANSWERS Pneumatic Ice & rain Engine Ice APU Thrust reverser Systems protection Protection 1 c 1 b 1 a 1 a 1 b 2 a 2 a 2 b 2 b 2 b 3 a 3 c 3 a 3 a 3 c 4 c 4 b 4 c 4 a 4 c 5 b 5 b 5 b 5 c 5 b 6 c 6 c 6 a 6 a 6 a 7 a 7 a 7 b 7 a 7 a 8 c 8 b 8 c 8 c 8 c 9 b 9 b 9 a 9 a 9 c 10 c 10 c 10 c 10 b 10 a 11 a 11 a 11 b 11 b 11 a 12 b 12 b 12 c 12 c 12 b Ignition 13 c 13 c Starting 1 c 14 b 14 c 1 b 9 c 2 b 15 c 15 a 2 b 10 c 3 c 16 a 16 b 3 c 11 b 4 c 17 c 17 a 4 b 12 c 5 b 18 a 18 b 5 c 13 a 6 a 19 b 19 a 6 a 14 b 7 c 20 c 20 a 7 b 15 b 8 a 21 c 8 c 16 a Engine controls Engine Fuel SYS A/C fuel SYS Lubrication 1 c 1 a 1 c 1 a 48 b 2 c 2 a 2 b 2 c 49 c 3 b 3 c 3 c 3 b 50 b 4 b 4 b 4 b 4 b 51 c 5 c 5 b 5 c 5 b 52 c 6 a 6 b 6 a 6 a 53 c 7 a 7 c 7 c 7 c 54 c 8 c 8 a 8 a 8 a 55 a 9 a 9 a 9 b 9 c 56 a 10 b 10 c 10 a 10 a 57 b 11 a 11 a 11 a 11 c 58 a 12 c 12 b 12 b 12 a 59 c 13 b 13 a 13 c 13 c 60 a 14 b 14 b 14 a 14 b 61 c 15 a 15 a 15 c 15 c 62 b 16 a 16 c 16 a 16 a 63 b 17 c 17 c 17 b 17 b 64 b 18 c 18 b 18 a 18 c 65 a 19 b 19 a 19 c 19 a 66 c 20 c 20 c 20 b 20 b 67 c 21 c 21 c 21 a 21 b 68 c 22 a 22 b 22 b 22 a 69 b 23 c 23 a 23 c 23 b 70 a 24 a 24 b 24 b 24 a 71 b 25 b 25 b 25 a 26 c 26 c 26 c 27 a 27 c 27 a 25 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.  28 b Engine indication 28 a 28 c 29 a 1 b 29 a 29 a 2 a 30 b 30 b 3 c 31 a 31 c 4 a 32 c 5 c 33 b 6 b 34 c 7 b 35 b 8 a 36 a 9 c 37 b 10 a 38 a 11 b 39 b 12 a 40 a 13 b 41 a 14 b 42 b 15 c 43 a 16 c 44 c 45 b 46 a 47 b 26 / 26 Eng. M.Nasr.Shams Re-Edited By Eng. Wael El-Maghrabi August 2007-Hangar 6000 EAME.