ELO A: Postpartum Complications After Birth PDF

ELO A: Complications During the Postpartum Period Complications After Birth Answers 1. What is the primary cause of cardiogenic shock in the postpartum period? A. Infection from surgical site B. Pulmonary embolism C. Postpartum hemorrhage D. Moderate blood loss from anemia Answer: Pu...

ELO A: Complications During the Postpartum Period Complications After Birth Answers 1. What is the primary cause of cardiogenic shock in the postpartum period? A. Infection from surgical site B. Pulmonary embolism C. Postpartum hemorrhage D. Moderate blood loss from anemia Answer: Pulmonary embolism (B) Cardiogenic shock is specifically linked to pulmonary embolism, among other cardiovascular issues. 2. Which type of postpartum hemorrhage occurs after 24 hours but within 6 weeks of childbirth? A. Delayed postpartum hemorrhage B. Primary postpartum hemorrhage C. Hypovolemic postpartum hemorrhage D. Secondary postpartum hemorrhage Answer: Secondary postpartum hemorrhage (D) Secondary postpartum hemorrhage is defined as occurring after 24 hours and up to 6 weeks post-birth. 3. What is a major risk associated with postpartum hemorrhage? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Uterine subinvolution D. Anemia without blood loss Answer: Hypovolemic shock (B) Hypovolemic shock is a significant risk stemming from excessive blood loss associated with postpartum hemorrhage. 4. What type of shock is directly caused by allergic reactions to medications administered during childbirth? A. Hemorrhagic shock B. Septic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Anaphylactic shock Answer: Anaphylactic shock (D) Anaphylactic shock occurs as a result of allergic responses to drugs given during or after childbirth. 5. What is the traditional threshold for defining postpartum hemorrhage after a vaginal birth? A. 500 mL of blood loss B. 1000 mL of blood loss C. 200 mL of blood loss D. 750 mL of blood loss Answer: 500 mL of blood loss (A) Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than 500 mL following a vaginal birth. 6. What is the initial body response to a reduction in blood volume? A. Increased heart and respiratory rates B. Increased blood pressure and reduced heart rate C. Decreased respiratory rate and bradycardia D. Decrease in blood circulation and oxygen content Answer: Increased heart and respiratory rates (A) The body responds to hypovolemia with increased heart and respiratory rates to enhance oxygen delivery. 7. Which of the following conditions is NOT a cause of early postpartum hemorrhage? A. Hematomas in the reproductive tract B. Lacerations of the reproductive tract C. Uterine atony D. Placental abruption Answer: Placental abruption (D) Early postpartum hemorrhage is typically associated with uterine atony, lacerations, or hematomas, not placental abruption. 8. What is a common sign of hypovolemic shock as blood flow to the brain decreases? A. Heightened alertness B. Increased mental clarity and focus C. Anxiety and confusion D. Improved skin temperature Answer: Anxiety and confusion (C) As blood flow to the brain decreases, mental changes such as anxiety and confusion may occur due to hypovolemic shock. 9. What nursing action is critical for detecting early signs of postpartum hemorrhage? A. Administering pain relief medication B. Encouraging fluid intake C. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes D. Assessing vital signs every hour Answer: Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes (C) Routine assessment of vital signs every 15 minutes is essential for identifying signs of postpartum hemorrhage early. 10. What is the main cause of puerperal sepsis following childbirth? A. Low hydration levels B. Maternal age over 35 C. Excessive physical activity post-delivery D. Tissue trauma during labor Answer: Tissue trauma during labor (D) Tissue trauma during labor contributes significantly to the risk of puerperal sepsis. 11. Which symptom is most indicative of a postpartum infection? A. Normal temperature fluctuations within the first 24 hours B. Light discharge without odor C. Mild abdominal pain without fever D. A pulse rate higher than expected Answer: A pulse rate higher than expected (D) An elevated pulse rate often occurs when a woman has an infection. 12. What nursing intervention is appropriate to monitor kidney function in a woman experiencing hypovolemic shock? A. Placing an indwelling Foley catheter B. Starting an oral hydration regimen C. Reducing fluid intake to promote kidney rest D. Providing regular kidney massages Answer: Placing an indwelling Foley catheter (A) Placing an indwelling Foley catheter allows for monitoring of urine output, which reflects kidney function. 13. What is a critical nursing intervention to prevent uterine infections in postpartum women? A. Teaching proper perineal hygiene B. Monitoring blood pressure regularly C. Encouraging 1L of fluid intake per day D. Limiting physical movement Answer: Teaching proper perineal hygiene (A) Teaching proper perineal hygiene is essential in reducing the risk of infection. 14. What characterizes uterine atony in relation to postpartum hemorrhage? A. Constant bleeding from lacerations B. Soft and flaccid uterus allowing for bleeding C. Immediate recovery after placenta detachment D. Firm and high uterine fundus Answer: Soft and flaccid uterus allowing for bleeding (B) Uterine atony is characterized by a soft and flaccid uterus, which does not effectively compress bleeding vessels. 15. Which laboratory test should be prioritized for a woman experiencing urinary symptoms three days postpartum? A. Complete blood count B. X-ray of the abdomen C. Clean-catch urine specimen D. Culture of vaginal drainage Answer: Clean-catch urine specimen (C) A clean-catch urine specimen is necessary for culture and sensitivity testing to identify urinary infections. 16. What dietary element is crucial in helping postpartum women recover from infection? A. High-sugar snacks B. Foods high in protein and vitamin C C. Low-fat dairy products D. High-carbohydrate meals Answer: Foods high in protein and vitamin C (B) Foods high in protein and vitamin C are important for healing after an infection. 17. What are two common risk factors for thrombosis in pregnancy? A. Increased hydration and exercise B. Low blood pressure and anemia C. Frequent sit-ups and high fiber diet D. Venous stasis and hypercoagulability Answer: Venous stasis and hypercoagulability (D) Venous stasis occurs due to compression of blood vessels, and hypercoagulability contributes to the increased risk of blood clots during pregnancy. 18. What is a key characteristic of superficial venous thrombosis (SVT)? A. Severe leg edema and color changes B. Presence of chest pain or dyspnea C. Hard, reddened, and warm saphenous vein D. Positive Homans’ sign upon examination Answer: Hard, reddened, and warm saphenous vein (C) SVT typically presents as a painful, hard, reddened, warm vein that is easily visible, specifically affecting the saphenous vein. 19. Which treatment is recommended for deep venous thrombosis (DVT)? A. Antibiotics to fight infection B. Subcutaneous or IV anticoagulation drugs C. Regular application of cold compresses D. Increased intake of vitamin K Answer: Subcutaneous or IV anticoagulation drugs (B) DVT management typically includes anticoagulation therapy, such as heparin, along with supportive care. 20. What should a postpartum woman be advised to avoid to reduce the risk of thrombus formation? A. Rolling or kinking of antiembolic stockings B. Crossing her legs while sitting C. Elevating her legs with sharp flexion at the groin D. All of the above Answer: All of the above (D) All these actions impede venous blood flow and can increase the risk of thrombus formation, hence should be avoided. 21. What is a notable symptom of pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. Heat and redness in the lower legs B. Severe leg pain and edema C. Sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing D. Chronic fatigue and headache Answer: Sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing (C) PE may present with dramatic symptoms, including sudden chest pain, cough, and dyspnea, which require immediate medical attention. 22. What preventative measure is recommended for women on prolonged bed rest after cesarean delivery? A. Increased protein intake B. Frequent blood pressure monitoring C. Use of pneumatic compression devices D. Engaging in deep breathing exercises Answer: Use of pneumatic compression devices (C) Pneumatic compression devices are effective in promoting venous blood flow and preventing thrombus formation during bed rest. 23. Which factor does NOT contribute to a woman's state of hypercoagulability during pregnancy? A. Decreased levels of clot-dissolving factors B. Reduced platelet count C. Increased levels of fibrinogen D. Prolonged bed rest Answer: Reduced platelet count (B) Pregnancy is characterized by increased clotting factors and platelets, not a reduced platelet count, which contributes to hypercoagulability. 24. What nursing intervention is crucial for a postpartum woman to help prevent thrombi? A. Keep her in bed most of the day B. Encourage early ambulation and range-of-motion exercises C. Administer antipyretics regularly D. Limit her fluid intake to reduce swelling Answer: Encourage early ambulation and range-of-motion exercises (B) Promoting early ambulation and regular motion exercises enhances circulation and reduces the risk of thrombus formation. 25. When teaching a woman about anticoagulant therapy at home, which sign of excess anticoagulation should she be specifically instructed to watch for? A. Signs of dehydration B. Elevated blood pressure C. Prolonged bleeding from minor injuries D. Increased energy levels Answer: Prolonged bleeding from minor injuries (C) Women undergoing anticoagulant therapy should be vigilant for signs of excess anticoagulation, especially unusual bleeding. 26. What condition occurs when a blood clot obstructs the pulmonary artery? A. Deep venous thrombosis B. Varicose veins C. Pulmonary embolism D. Superficial venous thrombosis Answer: Pulmonary embolism (C) Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot, or embolus, travels to the lungs and obstructs the pulmonary artery, leading to serious complications. 27. How should the fundus of the uterus be positioned immediately after the placenta is expelled? A. In a lateral position B. At the level of the umbilicus C. Below the pubic bone D. Above the umbilicus Answer: At the level of the umbilicus (B) After the placenta is expelled, the fundus of the uterus is at the umbilicus level. 28. What is a common characteristic of uterine atony? A. The fundal height is above the umbilicus B. The uterus feels hard and solid C. The uterus is firm and contracted D. Lochia is minimal and dark red Answer: The fundal height is above the umbilicus (A) When uterine atony occurs, the fundal height is high, often above the umbilicus. 29. What should be done if the uterus is found to be boggy? A. Perform a hysterectomy B. Massage until firm without excessive stimulation C. Immediately administer methylergonovine D. Leave it alone and monitor Answer: Massage until firm without excessive stimulation (B) When the uterus is boggy, it should be massaged until firm but not overly massaged. 30. What kind of bleeding is typically associated with lacerations of the reproductive tract? A. Bright red and continuous trickle B. Heavy but intermittent C. No bleeding only mild swelling D. Dark red and heavy flowing Answer: Bright red and continuous trickle (A) Blood lost in lacerations is usually a brighter red than lochia and flows in a continuous trickle. 31. Which drug is commonly ordered to control uterine atony? A. Oxytocin (Pitocin) B. Calcium gluconate C. Methylergonovine D. Cytotec Answer: Oxytocin (Pitocin) (A) A dilute oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is the most common drug ordered to control uterine atony. 32. What is a potential long-term effect of genital trauma during childbirth? A. Increased fertility B. Reduced risk of urinary infections C. Prolapsed uterus D. Enhanced muscle tone Answer: Prolapsed uterus (C) Genital trauma can cause long-term effects, such as a prolapsed uterus. 33. What is typically an indication of a hematoma after childbirth? A. Rapid weight gain B. Loss of appetite C. Major abdominal cramping D. Unrelenting severe pain not relieved by analgesics Answer: Unrelenting severe pain not relieved by analgesics (D) A woman with a hematoma usually has severe, unrelenting pain that analgesics do not relieve. 34. Which measure is often used to help correct uterine atony related to bladder distention? A. Bed rest for several days B. Catheterization C. Physical therapy exercises D. Immediate surgery Answer: Catheterization (B) Bladder distention is an easily corrected cause of uterine atony, and catheterization should be performed if the woman cannot urinate. 35. What is the primary purpose of administering tranexamic acid in postpartum care? A. To promote uterine contraction B. To prevent infection from retained fragments C. To reduce pain and discomfort D. To inhibit the breakup of blood clots Answer: To inhibit the breakup of blood clots (D) Tranexamic acid helps in stabilizing clots that form, thereby supporting the management of hemorrhage. 36. What indicates late postpartum hemorrhage? A. Bleeding within 12 hours of delivery B. Normal progression through the lochia stages C. Bright red bleeding persisting beyond 3 days D. Retention of placental fragments Answer: Retention of placental fragments (D) Late postpartum hemorrhage typically occurs due to retention of placental fragments and may happen 24 hours to 6 weeks after childbirth. 37. What is the expected rate of uterine descent after delivery? A. 1 cm per day B. 2 cm per day C. Not more than 0.5 cm per day D. 1 inch per day Answer: 1 cm per day (A) The uterus should normally descend at a rate of 1 cm (or 1 finger's width) per day after childbirth. 38. What symptom should the nurse monitor for indicating a potential complication after birth? A. Slight increase in appetite B. Mild abdominal discomfort after meals C. Temporary mild fatigue D. Persistent bright red bleeding Answer: Persistent bright red bleeding (D) Persistent bright red bleeding can be a sign of late postpartum hemorrhage and requires immediate reporting. 39. Which medication is NOT typically used to promote uterine contraction following childbirth? A. Tranexamic acid B. Methylergonovine C. Carboprost D. Oxytocin Answer: Tranexamic acid (A) Tranexamic acid is used to support clot formation, while the others are used to promote uterine contractions. 40. What signs of subinvolution should a nurse evaluate in a postpartum patient? A. Rapid weight loss B. Increase in postpartum urination C. Decreased uterine size D. Pelvic pain and heaviness Answer: Pelvic pain and heaviness (D) Pelvic pain and heaviness are typical signs of subinvolution of the uterus. 41. What type of bleeding indicates a potential issue when it returns after changing to a lighter color? A. Normal lochia progression B. Late postpartum hemorrhage C. Lochia serosa D. Lochia alba Answer: Late postpartum hemorrhage (B) A return to bright red bleeding after it has changed to pinkish or white is a sign of possible late postpartum hemorrhage. 42. What is the purpose of curettage in the management of retained placental fragments? A. To enhance uterine contractions B. To remove small blood clots and fragments C. To relieve pelvic pain D. To promote healing of the cervix Answer: To remove small blood clots and fragments (B) Curettage is performed to scrape or vacuum the inner surface of the uterus to remove retained placental fragments. 43. Which of these statements about the changes in lochia after childbirth is accurate? A. Lochia should progress from red to pinkish and then to white B. Lochia alba is the first stage of lochia C. Lochia serosa appears before lochia rubra D. Lochia rubra should persist for two weeks Answer: Lochia should progress from red to pinkish and then to white (A) Lochia progresses through distinct stages, starting with red (lochia rubra), moving to pink (lochia serosa), and finally to white (lochia alba). 44. What is a common sign of retained placental fragments that a nurse should monitor? A. Heightened energy levels B. Increased appetite C. Rapid weight gain D. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge Answer: Foul-smelling vaginal discharge (D) Foul-smelling vaginal discharge may indicate an infection due to retained placental fragments, requiring prompt attention.