Educational Assessment PDF

TOPIC 1: ROLES OF ASSESSMENT IN TEACHING AND LEARNING 1. Which of the following best describes a formative assessment? A. An assessment conducted at the end of a program to evaluate student competency. B. A type of assessment used to classify students based on their performance relative...

TOPIC 1: ROLES OF ASSESSMENT IN TEACHING AND LEARNING 1. Which of the following best describes a formative assessment? A. An assessment conducted at the end of a program to evaluate student competency. B. A type of assessment used to classify students based on their performance relative to others. C. An ongoing assessment aimed at providing immediate feedback to improve student learning. D. A method used to compare a student's performance against a set of predetermined criteria. 2. What is the main purpose of summative assessment? A. To provide immediate feedback for instructional improvement. ck B. To classify students into different ability groups. C. To evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional period. D. To collect information for modifying teaching strategies. 3. Which type of assessment focuses on assessing students’ ability to apply skills in vr real-world contexts? A. Formative assessment B. Summative assessment C. Authentic assessment.m D. Norm-referenced assessment 4. Which of the following statements is true about norm-referenced tests? A. They measure a student's performance against a set of criteria. B. They classify students based on their performance relative to others. ad C. They are used to determine what students can or cannot do. D. They provide detailed information about individual student achievements. 5. What is the goal of criterion-referenced tests? @ A. To compare students against each other. B. To rank students on a performance continuum. C. To determine if students have mastered specific learning goals. D. To provide grades based on student performance. 6. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective formative assessment? A. It is conducted at the end of a course. B. It is low stakes and focuses on immediate feedback. C. It ranks students against a norm group. D. It assigns letter grades to student performance. 7. What type of test items are best suited for assessing higher-order thinking skills? A. True-false questions  B. Multiple-choice questions C. Essay questions D. Matching questions 8. In the context of assessment, what does the term "evaluation" refer to? A. Assigning numbers to a phenomenon B. Making judgments based on criteria and evidence C. Collecting information about student learning D. Describing and recording student knowledge 9. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of assessment in education? A. Diagnosis for remedial action B. Certification of student achievement ck C. Assigning students to a gifted program D. Ranking students purely for competition 10. What is a primary benefit of using authentic assessments? A. They are easy to construct and administer. vr B. They focus solely on rote learning and memorization. C. They provide a real-world context for students to apply their skills. D. They are used primarily for standardized testing..m 11. Which principle should be considered when selecting an assessment procedure? A. The procedure should be easy to grade. B. The procedure should align with the characteristics being measured. C. The procedure should be popular among teachers. D. The procedure should only use multiple-choice questions. ad 12. How can summative assessment data be used formatively? A. By assigning final grades to students. B. By providing detailed feedback for future learning improvements. @ C. By ranking students in order of performance. D. By comparing student performance to a norm group. 13. What is the main focus of formative assessment? A. Assigning final grades B. Diagnosing learning needs C. Certifying student competence D. Ranking students 14. Which type of assessment is often used to measure psychomotor skills? A. Formative assessment B. Summative assessment C. Authentic assessment  D. Criterion-referenced assessment 15. Which of the following is an example of a norm-referenced test? A. A test that measures student performance against predetermined criteria B. A test that compares student scores to a national average C. A test that evaluates individual student progress over time D. A test that provides qualitative feedback for improvement 16. What is a key characteristic of criterion-referenced tests? A. They classify students based on their relative performance. B. They focus on detailed descriptions of student knowledge. C. They compare students to each other. D. They assign percentile ranks to students. ck 17. What is one of the main purposes of using rubrics in authentic assessments? A. To simplify grading by using a single numerical score B. To provide a detailed evaluation based on multiple criteria C. To rank students from highest to lowest vr D. To measure basic recall of facts 18. Which of the following best describes a summative assessment? A. An assessment that is low stakes and provides immediate feedback.m B. An assessment used to diagnose learning difficulties C. An assessment conducted at the end of an instructional period D. An assessment focused on formative feedback 19. What type of assessment is typically used to determine whether students need ad remedial assistance? A. Summative assessment B. Formative assessment C. Authentic assessment @ D. Norm-referenced assessment 20. Why is it important to use a variety of assessment procedures in education? A. To reduce the time spent on assessment B. To cover all aspects of student achievement and development C. To simplify the grading process D. To ensure assessments are easy to administer 21. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using authentic assessments? A. They focus too much on rote memorization. B. They are difficult and time-consuming to construct. C. They do not provide valid assessment data.  D. They cannot measure psychomotor skills. 22. What is the purpose of diagnostic evaluation in education? A. To provide final grades to students B. To identify students’ readiness and background knowledge C. To compare student performance to a norm group D. To certify student competence at the end of a program 23. Which of the following best describes an open response question in authentic assessment? A. A question that requires a brief written or oral answer B. A question that offers multiple-choice options C. A question that is used in standardized testing ck D. A question that involves matching items 24. What is one of the main benefits of using portfolios for assessment? A. They provide a one-time snapshot of student ability. B. They document learning and growth over time. vr C. They are easy to construct and assess. D. They primarily focus on rote learning. 25. Which type of assessment is most likely to be used at the beginning of a lesson or.m unit to assess students' readiness? A. Summative assessment B. Formative assessment C. Diagnostic evaluation D. Norm-referenced test ad 26. What does the term "psychometric properties" refer to in the context of testing? A. The physical format of the test B. The statistical characteristics of test scores @ C. The type of questions included in the test D. The process of grading the test 27. Which of the following is an example of a performance test in authentic assessment? A. Multiple-choice quiz B. Standardized test C. Conducting a science experiment and presenting the results D. Matching items test 28. What is one reason why schools collect assessment information? A. To determine the number of teachers needed B. To compare their performance with other schools  C. To assign final grades to students D. To reduce the number of subjects taught 29. What is a major criticism of norm-referenced tests? A. They focus on assessing higher-order thinking skills. B. They provide detailed individual student feedback. C. They tend to focus on assessing basic skills. D. They are used primarily for formative purposes. 30. What is the main focus of formative assessment? A. Assigning final grades B. Diagnosing learning needs C. Certifying student competence ck D. Ranking students 31. How can formative assessment benefit teaching and learning? A. By providing a final evaluation of student performance B. By identifying areas where students need further instruction vr C. By assigning letter grades to students D. By comparing student performance to national norms 32. What is the main difference between formative and summative assessment?.m A. Formative assessment occurs at the end of instruction, while summative assessment occurs during instruction. B. Summative assessment provides ongoing feedback, while formative assessment provides final evaluations. C. Formative assessment is low stakes and ongoing, while summative assessment is ad high stakes and occurs at the end of instruction. D. Formative assessment ranks students, while summative assessment does not. 33. Which of the following is an example of an objective test item? @ A. Short-answer essay B. Extended-response essay C. Multiple-choice question D. Performance task 34. What does the term "authentic assessment" emphasize? A. Rote learning and memorization B. Real-world application of skills and knowledge C. Standardized testing D. Grading based on a single numerical score 35. Which of the following is NOT typically included in a student portfolio? A. Rough drafts and polished writing B. Peer reviews C. Standardized test scores D. Journal entries and reflective writing 36. What is one advantage of using rubrics for grading authentic assessments? A. They provide a single numerical score for student performance. B. They offer a detailed evaluation based on multiple criteria. C. They focus on rote memorization. D. They simplify the grading process. 37. What is the purpose of a diagnostic evaluation in education? ck A. To provide final grades to students B. To identify students’ readiness and background knowledge C. To compare student performance to a norm group D. To certify student competence at the end of a program vr 38. Which of the following best describes an open response question in authentic assessment? A. A question that requires a brief written or oral answer B. A question that offers multiple-choice options.m C. A question that is used in standardized testing D. A question that involves matching items 39. What is one of the main benefits of using portfolios for assessment? A. They provide a one-time snapshot of student ability. ad B. They document learning and growth over time. C. They are easy to construct and assess. D. They primarily focus on rote learning. @ 40. Which type of assessment is most likely to be used at the beginning of a lesson or unit to assess students' readiness? A. Summative assessment B. Formative assessment C. Diagnostic evaluation D. Norm-referenced test 41. What does the term "psychometric properties" refer to in the context of testing? A. The physical format of the test B. The statistical characteristics of test scores C. The type of questions included in the test D. The process of grading the test 42. Which of the following is an example of a performance test in authentic assessment? A. Multiple-choice quiz B. Standardized test C. Conducting a science experiment and presenting the results D. Matching items test 43. What is one reason why schools collect assessment information? A. To determine the number of teachers needed B. To compare their performance with other schools C. To assign final grades to students D. To reduce the number of subjects taught ck 44. What is a major criticism of norm-referenced tests? A. They focus on assessing higher-order thinking skills. B. They provide detailed individual student feedback. C. They tend to focus on assessing basic skills. D. They are used primarily for formative purposes. vr 45. Which of the following best describes a summative assessment? A. An assessment that is low stakes and provides immediate feedback B. An assessment used to diagnose learning difficulties.m C. An assessment conducted at the end of an instructional period D. An assessment focused on formative feedback 46. What is one reason why schools collect assessment information? A. To determine the number of teachers needed ad B. To compare their performance with other schools C. To assign final grades to students D. To reduce the number of subjects taught @ 47. What is a major criticism of norm-referenced tests? A. They focus on assessing higher-order thinking skills. B. They provide detailed individual student feedback. C. They tend to focus on assessing basic skills. D. They are used primarily for formative purposes. 48. Which type of assessment focuses on assessing students’ ability to apply skills in real-world contexts? A. Formative assessment B. Summative assessment C. Authentic assessment D. Norm-referenced assessment  49. Which principle should be considered when selecting an assessment procedure? A. The procedure should be easy to grade. B. The procedure should align with the characteristics being measured. C. The procedure should be popular among teachers. D. The procedure should only use multiple-choice questions. 50. How can summative assessment data be used formatively? A. By assigning final grades to students. B. By providing detailed feedback for future learning improvements. C. By ranking students in order of performance. D. By comparing student performance to a norm group. ck Answers: 25. C 1. C 26. B 2. C 27. C 3. C 28. B vr 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C.m 8. B 33. C 9. D 34. B 10. C 35. C 11. B 36. B 12. B 37. B ad 13. B 38. A 14. C 39. B 15. B 40. C 16. B 41. B @ 17. B 42. C 18. C 43. B 19. B 44. C 20. B 45. C 21. B 46. B 22. B 47. C 23. A 48. C 24. B 49. B 50. B 51. TOPIC 2: FOUNDATION FOR ASSESSMENT: WHAT TO ASSESS 1. Which of the following is NOT a principle for writing effective multiple-choice questions? - A) Use plausible distractors - B) Avoid negative wording - C) Include "all of the above" as an option - D) Balance the placement of the correct answer 2. What is the primary advantage of multiple-choice questions in assessments? - A) They are easy to construct - B) They reduce guessing ck - C) They provide a wide sampling of content - D) They are highly subjective 3. Which level of Bloom's Taxonomy requires students to apply learned material to new situations? vr - A) Knowledge - B) Comprehension - C) Application - D) Analysis.m 4. According to the psychomotor taxonomy, which verb describes the 'complex overt response' level? - A) Adjust - B) Build ad - C) Create - D) Evaluate 5. In multiple-choice questions, what does "cognitive load" refer to? @ - A) The complexity of the question's content - B) The effort required to understand the question - C) The number of answer choices - D) The use of professional terminology 6. Which of the following is an example of a memory-plus application question? - A) What is the capital of France? - B) How would you classify different types of governments? - C) Explain Newton's third law of motion. - D) If a car travels at 60 mph, how long will it take to cover 180 miles? 7. What should be avoided when writing the stem of a multiple-choice question? - A) Using direct questions - B) Including excessive verbiage - C) Providing clear and explicit problems - D) Using common terminology 8. What is a key factor in ensuring the validity of a multiple-choice question? - A) Using complex language - B) Including irrelevant information - C) The key must be unambiguously correct - D) The stem should be incomplete 9. Which of the following strategies helps minimize guessing in multiple-choice ck questions? - A) Using fewer options - B) Placing the correct answer last - C) Randomizing the order of options - D) Using extreme modifiers vr 10. What is a significant disadvantage of multiple-choice questions? - A) They are easy to construct - B) They can be used to assess higher-order thinking.m - C) They often require plausible distractors - D) They are subjective 11. What type of multiple-choice question requires students to recall facts in a real-life context? ad - A) Memory-only - B) Memory-plus application - C) Knowledge-based - D) Comprehension-based @ 12. Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice for writing effective multiple-choice questions? - A) Use a direct question format - B) Keep option lengths similar - C) Use negative wording frequently - D) Avoid using "none of the above" as an option 13. What should be included in the stem of a multiple-choice question? - A) Irrelevant details - B) Information needed to answer the question - C) Ambiguous language - D) Complex terms 14. What is the primary focus of assessment systems worldwide? - A) Affective outcomes - B) Psychomotor outcomes - C) Cognitive outcomes - D) Emotional outcomes 15. Which verb is associated with the 'synthesis' level in Bloom's Taxonomy? - A) Define - B) Analyze - C) Create - D) Evaluate ck 16. In the context of assessments, what does the term 'distractor' refer to? - A) The correct answer - B) An incorrect but plausible answer choice - C) The main question stem - D) The exam instructions vr 17. What is a common mistake to avoid when writing multiple-choice questions? - A) Using professional terminology - B) Making the correct answer longer than the distractors.m - C) Randomizing answer choices - D) Including a single, clear problem in the stem 18. What is the purpose of 'memory-plus application' questions? - A) To test only recall of facts ad - B) To test application of knowledge in real-life contexts - C) To confuse students with tricky wording - D) To test comprehension only @ 19. Which cognitive process involves breaking down material into component parts? - A) Synthesis - B) Application - C) Analysis - D) Evaluation 20. Which of the following is an effective way to present a multiple-choice question? - A) Using an incomplete statement - B) Including unnecessary information in the stem - C) Using clear and precise language - D) Placing the correct answer first 21. What does the 'evaluation' level in Bloom's Taxonomy involve? - A) Recalling information - B) Understanding concepts - C) Making judgments about the value of ideas - D) Applying knowledge 22. Which of the following verbs is associated with the 'comprehension' level of Bloom's Taxonomy? - A) List - B) Explain - C) Apply - D) Analyze ck 23. What is the main goal of multiple-choice questions that assess higher-order thinking? - A) To test simple recall - B) To evaluate the ability to apply concepts - C) To confuse students - D) To test knowledge of facts vr 24. Which of the following should be avoided in multiple-choice question stems? - A) Clear and concise language - B) Direct questions.m - C) Irrelevant details - D) Necessary information 25. Which type of question is ideal for assessing a student's ability to analyze a relationship between pieces of information? ad - A) True-false - B) Matching - C) Multiple-choice - D) Short answer @ 26. What is a key characteristic of a well-constructed distractor in a multiple-choice question? - A) It should be obviously incorrect - B) It should be longer than the correct answer - C) It should be plausible - D) It should be in a different category from the other options 27. What is the primary disadvantage of using 'all of the above' as an answer choice? - A) It makes guessing easier - B) It reduces guessing - C) It tests higher-order thinking - D) It is time-consuming to construct 28. Which principle helps ensure that multiple-choice questions minimize cognitive load? - A) Use complex language - B) Include unnecessary information - C) Use direct questions - D) Use negative wording 29. What is the effect of placing the correct answer in different positions in a multiple-choice test? - A) It increases guessing - B) It reduces the chances of pattern recognition - C) It makes the test easier - D) It confuses students ck 30. Which of the following is NOT a level in Bloom's Taxonomy? - A) Application - B) Comprehension - C) Adaptation - D) Evaluation vr 31. Which cognitive process involves using learned material in new situations? - A) Knowledge - B) Comprehension.m - C) Application - D) Synthesis 32. Which of the following is a recommended practice for constructing multiple-choice questions? ad - A) Use as few options as possible - B) Make the correct answer longer than the distractors - C) Include at least four alternatives - D) Use negative statements @ 33. Which verb is associated with the 'evaluation' level in Bloom's Taxonomy? - A) List - B) Describe - C) Critique - D) Identify 34. What is the main purpose of using plausible distractors in multiple-choice questions? - A) To increase the difficulty of the question - B) To ensure only one correct answer - C) To make the test longer - D) To reduce the chances of guessing 35. Which of the following should be avoided to ensure fairness in multiple-choice questions? - A) Using culturally biased terms - B) Using clear and simple language - C) Balancing the length of answer choices - D) Randomizing the order of options 36. Which level of Bloom's Taxonomy involves creating new patterns or structures? - A) Knowledge - B) Analysis - C) Synthesis - D) Comprehension ck 37. What is the advantage of using multiple-choice questions to assess comprehension? - A) They are easier to guess - B) They require students to recall information - C) They can evaluate understanding and interpretation - D) They are quick to grade vr 38. In the context of multiple-choice questions, what does 'stem' refer to? - A) The correct answer - B) The distractors.m - C) The main question or statement - D) The instructions 39. Which principle helps maintain the reliability of multiple-choice tests? - A) Using inconsistent terminology ad - B) Including the same key terms in both correct and incorrect options - C) Using a predictable pattern for correct answers - D) Avoiding the review of test items @ 40. Which of the following is an example of a higher-order thinking question? - A) Who wrote "To Kill a Mockingbird"? - B) What is the capital of Canada? - C) How would you solve a quadratic equation in a real-life context? - D) Define the term 'photosynthesis' 41. Which approach is recommended for writing the correct answer in multiple-choice questions? - A) Make it the shortest option - B) Write it first before the distractors - C) Make it less specific than the distractors - D) Use complex language 42. What should be avoided when constructing distractors for multiple-choice questions? - A) Making them plausible - B) Using similar length options - C) Including only one correct answer - D) Using irrelevant details 43. What is the purpose of avoiding 'none of the above' in multiple-choice questions? - A) To reduce the difficulty of the question - B) To ensure one correct answer is clearly the best - C) To provide more options - D) To lengthen the test ck 44. Which of the following verbs is NOT associated with the 'application' level of Bloom's Taxonomy? - A) Demonstrate - B) Solve - C) Analyze vr - D) Use 45. Why is it important to avoid ambiguous language in multiple-choice questions? - A) To confuse students.m - B) To increase the difficulty level - C) To ensure clarity and fairness - D) To make the test more challenging 46. Which cognitive level involves judging the value of material based on criteria? ad - A) Knowledge - B) Comprehension - C) Application - D) Evaluation @ 47. What is a common issue with poorly constructed multiple-choice questions? - A) They are too easy to guess - B) They test higher-order thinking - C) They use direct questions - D) They are balanced in option length 48. Which level of Bloom's Taxonomy involves identifying relationships among parts? - A) Knowledge - B) Analysis - C) Application - D) Synthesis 49. What is the main goal of using a variety of question types in assessments? - A) To increase test length - B) To reduce test anxiety - C) To provide a comprehensive evaluation of student learning - D) To make grading easier 50. Which verb is associated with the 'analysis' level in Bloom's Taxonomy? - A) List - B) Explain - C) Differentiate - D) Create ck Answers: 25. C 1. C 26. C 2. C 27. A 3. C 28. C 4. B 29. B vr 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. C.m 9. C 34. D 10. C 35. A 11. B 36. C 12. C 37. C 13. B 38. C ad 14. C 39. B 15. C 40. C 16. B 41. B 17. B 42. D @ 18. B 43. B 19. C 44. C 20. C 45. C 21. C 46. D 22. B 47. A 23. B 48. B 24. C 49. C 50. C 51. TOPIC 3: PLANNING THE CLASSROOM TEST 1. What is the first step in planning a classroom test? A) Specifying the learning objectives B) Deciding the purpose of the test C) Developing test specifications D) Preparing test items 2. Which of the following best describes a Table of Specifications? A) A list of all possible test items B) A plan that outlines the content and cognitive levels to be tested C) A grading rubric ck D) A set of sample test questions 3. Which item type is best suited for testing factual knowledge? A) Essay vrB) Oral examination C) Multiple-choice D) Performance assessment.m 4. What is a major advantage of using multiple-choice questions? A) They are easy to construct B) They can assess a wide range of content rapidly and objectively C) They encourage creative thinking ad D) They are subjective 5. What should be the focus when developing test specifications? A) The test format @ B) The number of questions C) The importance of the objectives and the type of questions D) The time limit for the test 6. In the context of test planning, what does "content validity" refer to? A) The test appears valid to the examinees B) The test measures the defined content accurately C) The test is easy to grade D) The test has a high reliability score 7. Why is it important to specify the learning objectives of a test?  A) To determine the test length B) To decide the test format C) To ensure the test covers the most important knowledge and skills D) To create a Table of Specifications 8. What type of assessment is used to provide insights into gaps in learners' current knowledge? A) Summative assessment B) Formative assessment C) Diagnostic assessment D) Performance assessment ck 9. Which of the following is a key principle in constructing test items? A) Use complex and ambiguous language B) Write items that require specific understanding developed in the course C) Include clues to the answers vr D) Use negatives frequently 10. What should be avoided when writing multiple-choice questions?.m A) Using simple and clear language B) Providing specific instructions C) Writing questions in the negative D) Keeping options of similar length ad 11. What is a rubric? A) A set of multiple-choice questions B) A descriptive scoring scheme for assessment tasks C) A type of essay question @ D) A grading scale 12. Which test format is most suitable for assessing higher-order thinking skills such as analyzing and evaluating? A) True-false B) Multiple-choice C) Matching D) Essay 13. What is the main purpose of summative assessment? A) To provide ongoing feedback  B) To evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional unit C) To diagnose learning needs D) To motivate students 14. Why is it important to review test items after constructing them? A) To ensure they are lengthy B) To make them more difficult C) To check their relevance and fit with learning objectives D) To include more complex vocabulary 15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiple-choice questions? ck A) They are easy to grade B) They can assess a broad range of content C) They are difficult to construct well D) They are objective vr 16. What is an important consideration when preparing a rubric or marking scheme? A) Writing it after the test is administered B) Including ambiguous criteria.m C) Writing a model answer that is clear and understandable D) Using it only for multiple-choice questions 17. What type of test item is best for assessing factual recall? ad A) Multiple-choice B) Essay C) Performance task D) Oral examination @ 18. Which of the following is NOT a step in test planning? A) Deciding the test's purpose B) Specifying learning objectives C) Developing test specifications D) Randomly selecting test items 19. What is the benefit of using a Table of Specifications? A) It reduces test length B) It ensures a representative sample of questions C) It eliminates the need for learning objectives D) It simplifies grading 20. Which level of Bloom's taxonomy involves creating new structures from diverse elements? A) Knowledge B) Comprehension C) Application D) Synthesis 21. What is a key advantage of performance assessments? A) They are quick to grade B) They can assess practical application of skills C) They provide objective measures ck D) They are easy to construct 22. Why is it important to include a mix of item types in a test? A) To increase test length vr B) To maintain students' interest and minimize weaknesses C) To make grading more difficult D) To test students' endurance.m 23. Which test format is best suited for assessing students' ability to explain or describe concepts? A) Performance task B) Multiple-choice ad C) Matching D) Essay 24. What should be the main focus when constructing test items? @ A) Using complex language B) Ensuring the items align with learning objectives C) Making the test as difficult as possible D) Including a large number of items 25. Why is it important to prepare a marking scheme in advance of the testing date? A) To save time on test day B) To allow for revision and accuracy in grading C) To make the test easier for students D) To include more test items 26. What is one way to increase the reliability of a test? A) Include more items on the test B) Use fewer test items C) Simplify the language of the test items D) Randomize the order of the options 27. What is a key disadvantage of essay test items? A) They are easy to grade B) They can cover a broad range of content C) They require subjective judgment in grading D) They are quick to construct ck 28. Which of the following strategies helps in constructing effective multiple-choice questions? A) Using unclear and ambiguous language B) Ensuring all distractors are plausible vr C) Including as much information as possible in the stem D) Using negatives frequently.m 29. What type of test is typically used to assess progress and direct the learning process? A) Summative test B) Formative test C) Diagnostic test ad D) Performance test 30. Which level of Bloom's taxonomy involves the ability to use learned material in new and concrete situations? @ A) Knowledge B) Comprehension C) Application D) Analysis 31. What is the purpose of diagnostic assessments? A) To assign final grades B) To provide insights into gaps in knowledge and skills C) To motivate students D) To assess learning at the end of a unit 32. Why is it important to avoid writing questions in the negative? A) It makes the test easier B) Negatives can mislead students into answering incorrectly C) It reduces test length D) It simplifies grading 33. What is the role of distractors in multiple-choice questions? A) To provide the correct answer B) To serve as plausible incorrect answers C) To confuse students D) To increase test length ck 34. What should be included in the stem of a multiple-choice question? A) Clues to the correct answer B) Extraneous information C) A clear and explicit problem vr D) Complex vocabulary 35. What is a major disadvantage of using true-false test items?.m A) They are difficult to construct B) They have a high probability of guessing correctly C) They are subjective D) They take a long time to answer ad 36. What is the main focus of formative assessment? A) To evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional unit B) To assign final grades C) To provide ongoing feedback to improve learning @ D) To select students for special programs 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of well-written multiple-choice options? A) The correct answer is significantly longer than the distractors B) All options are plausible and similar in length C) Options contain clues to the correct answer D) Options are written in a negative form 38. What is an effective way to reduce cognitive load in test questions? A) Using complex and verbose language B) Including only necessary information  C) Using multiple negatives D) Writing lengthy stems 39. What is the benefit of using rubrics in assessment? A) They reduce grading time B) They provide clear and consistent criteria for performance C) They simplify test construction D) They increase the length of the test 40. Why should test items be reviewed and revised? A) To make them more difficult ck B) To ensure they are aligned with learning objectives C) To lengthen the test D) To add more complex vocabulary vr 41. Which of the following is a key principle in constructing test items? A) Using complex language to challenge students B) Including as much information as possible C) Writing items that require specific understanding developed in the course.m D) Using negatives frequently 42. What type of assessment tool is best for evaluating practical skills? A) Multiple-choice test ad B) True-false test C) Performance assessment D) Matching test @ 43. What is the main purpose of formative assessments? A) To assign final grades B) To evaluate learning at the end of a course C) To provide ongoing feedback to students D) To select students for advanced courses 44. Why is it important to use clear and concise language in test items? A) To make the test easier B) To ensure students understand the questions C) To lengthen the test D) To confuse students 45. Which type of test item requires students to select from a list of possible answers? A) Essay B) Multiple-choice C) Oral examination D) Performance task 46. What is a key characteristic of a well-constructed test? A) It includes as many items as possible B) It uses complex and ambiguous language C) It provides an accurate measure of the test taker's ability ck D) It is lengthy and time-consuming 47. What is the role of test specifications in test construction? A) To simplify grading vr B) To ensure a representative sample of questions C) To increase test length D) To provide clues to the correct answers.m 48. What should be the focus when developing test items for higher-order thinking skills? A) Recall of facts B) Simple comprehension ad C) Analysis and evaluation D) Guessing strategies 49. Which of the following is a common mistake when constructing multiple-choice @ questions? A) Using clear and concise language B) Including unnecessary information C) Ensuring all distractors are plausible D) Providing specific instructions 50. What is the main focus of summative assessments? A) To provide ongoing feedback B) To evaluate learning at the end of an instructional unit C) To diagnose learning needs D) To motivate students Answers: 25. B 26. A 1. B 27. C 2. B 28. B 3. C 29. B 4. B 30. C 5. C 31. B 6. B 32. B 7. C 33. B 8. C 34. C 9. B 35. B 10. C 36. C ck 11. B 37. B 12. D 38. B 13. B 39. B 14. C 40. B 15. C 41. C vr 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. B 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. B.m 20. D 46. C 21. B 47. B 22. B 48. C 23. D 49. B 24. B 50. B ad @ TOPIC 4: CONSTRUCTIVE OBJECTIVE TEST ITEMS 1. What is an objective test? - A. A test with subjective grading. - B. A test influenced by the grader's biases. - C. A test requiring selection from given answers. - D. A test with open-ended responses. 2. Which of the following is a type of supply-type test item? - A. Multiple-choice question - B. True-false item - C. Matching item - D. Short-answer question ck 3. Which type of question requires the respondent to choose between only two possible answers? - A. Multiple-choice - B. True-false vr - C. Matching - D. Short-answer 4. Which of the following is an advantage of short-answer questions?.m - A. They can measure complex learning outcomes. - B. They reduce the possibility of guessing. - C. They are easy to grade. - D. They require detailed explanations. ad 5. What is a major limitation of short-answer questions? - A. They can measure complex learning outcomes. - B. They are difficult to construct. - C. They can cover a broad content area. @ - D. They may be contaminated by spelling errors. 6. Which format is typically used for short-answer questions? - A. Completion question format - B. Selection question format - C. Multiple-choice format - D. Matching format 7. What is one of the main advantages of true-false questions? - A. They encourage guessing. - B. They are difficult to score. - C. They can cover a lot of content quickly. - D. They are time-consuming to construct. 8. What is a significant limitation of true-false questions? - A. They can include multiple correct answers. - B. They are difficult to guess correctly. - C. They provide little diagnostic information. - D. They require essay-length answers. 9. In constructing true-false questions, what should be avoided? - A. Clear and concise statements - B. Broad and general statements - C. Short and simple sentences - D. Specific and detailed statements ck 10. Which of the following is an advantage of matching questions? - A. They are easy to guess. - B. They can assess relationships between items. - C. They measure essay-writing skills. - D. They provide a high level of diagnostic information. vr 11. What is a limitation of matching questions? - A. They can only be used for factual recall. - B. They are time-consuming to grade..m - C. They can be used to measure higher-order thinking. - D. They are limited to two-column formats. 12. In matching questions, how should responses be listed to minimize guessing? - A. Randomly ad - B. In alphabetical order - C. In the same order as premises - D. In chronological order @ 13. What is the correct term for the incorrect options in a multiple-choice question? - A. Premises - B. Responses - C. Distractors - D. Stems 14. What part of a multiple-choice question contains the question or statement? - A. Stem - B. Premise - C. Response - D. Distractor 15. Why are multiple-choice questions considered difficult to construct? - A. They are easy to guess. - B. They require plausible distractors. - C. They are easy to grade. - D. They can only measure low-level cognitive skills. 16. When constructing objective test items, what should be avoided to ensure clarity? - A. Complex syntax - B. Simple language - C. Clear instructions - D. Direct questions 17. Which of the following is a recommended practice for writing effective short-answer ck questions? - A. Using ambiguous wording - B. Including multiple blanks - C. Phrasing the question to elicit a brief and specific answer - D. Using broad questions vr 18. What should be emphasized when using negative statements in test items? - A. Positive wording - B. Italics or underlining.m - C. Complex sentence structures - D. Multiple negative words 19. Which type of question is most effective for assessing higher-order thinking skills? - A. Simple recall questions ad - B. True-false questions - C. Scenario-based questions - D. Matching questions @ 20. What is a context-dependent item in MCQs? - A. An item with multiple correct answers - B. An item based on introductory material like graphs or charts - C. An item with distractors that are too easy - D. An item with humor to engage students 21. To avoid ambiguity in true-false questions, what should be included in each statement? - A. Multiple ideas - B. Broad generalizations - C. Single main idea - D. Complex sentences 22. What is one way to reduce the possibility of guessing correct answers in matching questions? - A. Use fewer responses than premises - B. Allow responses to be used multiple times - C. List premises in alphabetical order - D. Make all responses correct 23. Why should humor be avoided in developing options for MCQs? - A. It makes the test more difficult. - B. It reduces the seriousness of the test. - C. It provides clues to the correct answer. - D. It makes grading more subjective. ck 24. What is a common problem when using negatives in test stems? - A. They make the questions too easy. - B. They increase the difficulty of the test. - C. They can confuse students. - D. They always indicate the correct answer. vr 25. How should items in Column B be listed in a matching question to minimize reading? - A. Alphabetically - B. Randomly.m - C. In the same order as premises - D. Chronologically 26. What should be the focus when constructing multiple-choice questions? - A. Testing trivial facts ad - B. Assessing opinions - C. Measuring important information - D. Including all possible correct answers @ 27. Which of the following is an advantage of multiple-choice questions? - A. They measure writing ability. - B. They are influenced by guessing. - C. They can test a broad range of knowledge. - D. They are quick to construct. 28. What is a limitation of short-answer questions? - A. They are influenced by the grader's bias. - B. They are difficult to score. - C. They require detailed explanations. - D. They cannot measure complex learning outcomes. 29. Why are true-false questions easy to construct? - A. They require complex syntax. - B. They do not need distractors. - C. They involve multiple correct answers. - D. They measure high-level cognitive skills. 31. What is the recommended number of alternatives in an MCQ? - A. Two - B. Three to five - C. Six to eight - D. More than eight 32. Which technique can be used to write higher-order thinking MCQs? ck - A. Using only recall questions - B. Including obvious distractors - C. Scenario-based questions - D. Using "all of the above" options vr 33. What should be avoided when creating distractors for MCQs? - A. Making them plausible - B. Using similar wording - C. Making them grammatically incorrect.m - D. Using them based on common misconceptions 34. When is it appropriate to use a negative in an MCQ stem? - A. When the negative is necessary for the question - B. When it is easier to write the question with a negative ad - C. When it makes the question more challenging - D. When the negative can be emphasized (e.g., with bold text) 35. What is a common flaw in poorly written MCQs? @ - A. All distractors are plausible - B. The stem is too brief - C. The correct answer is obvious - D. There are too many distractors 36. Why should "all of the above" or "none of the above" options be used sparingly? - A. They are too difficult - B. They can provide clues to the correct answer - C. They are always the correct answers - D. They are difficult to grade 37. How can test-wiseness be minimized in MCQs? - A. Using humor in options - B. Randomizing the order of options - C. Making distractors obviously incorrect - D. Using complex vocabulary 38. What is the best practice for including units in numerical answer choices? - A. Omitting units to reduce reading load - B. Indicating the units required in the stem - C. Including multiple units in each option - D. Using units only in the correct answer 39. What can improve the clarity of MCQs? ck - A. Using long, complex sentences - B. Using vague language - C. Keeping language simple and clear - D. Including as many details as possible vr 40. In what scenario might true-false questions be preferable? - A. When testing complex problem-solving skills - B. When needing to cover a broad content area quickly - C. When assessing essay-writing skills.m - D. When requiring detailed explanations 41. What is the primary goal of a distractor in an MCQ? - A. To provide a second correct answer - B. To test students' ability to guess correctly ad - C. To appear correct to those who do not know the material - D. To confuse all test takers 42. Which of the following is a poor practice in writing MCQ stems? @ - A. Using clear and concise language - B. Presenting a single, definite problem - C. Using vague terms like "often" or "sometimes" - D. Keeping the stem free of unnecessary material 43. How can the reliability of a test be increased? - A. By making all questions very difficult - B. By using a variety of question types - C. By focusing solely on recall questions - D. By using only true-false questions 44. What is a key characteristic of a well-written stem in an MCQ? - A. It is very lengthy - B. It includes multiple ideas - C. It clearly presents a single problem - D. It contains ambiguous language 45. Why is it important to use homogeneous content in matching questions? - A. To make the test easier - B. To ensure fairness and reduce confusion - C. To test a broad range of knowledge - D. To increase the difficulty of the test 46. Which strategy can help measure critical thinking in MCQs? ck - A. Using direct quotes from the text - B. Including very obvious distractors - C. Asking students to analyze scenarios - D. Testing only memorization skills vr 47. What should be avoided in the options of an MCQ? - A. Plausible distractors - B. Homogeneous options - C. Grammatical consistency with the stem.m - D. Clues to the correct answer 48. How should complex ideas be presented in true-false questions? - A. In very long sentences - B. With multiple negatives ad - C. Clearly and concisely - D. Using ambiguous language 49. What is an effective way to test application skills in MCQs? @ - A. Using only recall questions - B. Including irrelevant details - C. Providing scenarios that require application of knowledge - D. Using true-false questions 50. What is a benefit of including more responses than premises in matching questions? - A. It makes the test shorter - B. It increases the possibility of guessing - C. It reduces the possibility of guessing - D. It simplifies the scoring process Answers: 1. C 43. B 2. D 44. C 3. B 45. B 4. B 46. C 5. D 47. D 6. A 48. C 7. C 49. C 8. C 50. C 9. B 10. B 11. D ck 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A vr 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. B.m 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. A ad 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. B @ 30. X 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. C TOPIC 5: CONSTRUCTING ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. What is an essay question according to Stalnaker (1951)? - A. A test item that requires multiple-choice answers - B. A test item that can be judged objectively - C. A test item requiring a response composed by the examinee - D. A test item that does not need a specialist to judge 2. What distinguishes an essay question from an objective test item? - A. The requirement to select a response - B. The ability to be judged subjectively by a specialist - C. The fixed correct response pattern ck - D. The limited time needed to answer 3. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of an essay question? - A. Requires a composed response - B. The response consists of one or more sentences vr - C. Has a single correct response - D. Requires subjective judgment by a specialist 4. What are the two types of essays used in educational institutions?.m - A. Standard essays and short-answer essays - B. Coursework essays and examination essays - C. Open-book essays and closed-book essays - D. Short essays and long essays ad 5. Which type of essay typically ranges from 2,500 to 5,000 words? - A. Short essays - B. Standard essays - C. Extended essays @ - D. Examination essays 6. Which of the following is a reason for using essay questions? - A. They are easy to grade - B. They assess complex learning outcomes - C. They limit learners' responses to a single answer - D. They eliminate the problem of guessing 7. What type of learning outcome is best assessed by essay questions? - A. Simple recall of information - B. Memorization of facts - C. Higher-order thinking skills - D. Basic comprehension 8. Which verbs indicate that essay questions are suitable for assessing learning outcomes? - A. List, name, state - B. Recall, identify, define - C. Explain, evaluate, analyze - D. Choose, select, match 9. One limitation of essay questions is that they: - A. Are time-consuming to answer and grade - B. Provide clear and objective assessments - C. Can cover a wide range of content quickly - D. Are easy to construct without preparation ck 10. Which factor does NOT contribute to the reliability issues of essay questions? - A. Inter-scorer reliability - B. Intra-scorer reliability - C. Subjectivity in marking vr - D. The fixed nature of responses 11. When constructing essay questions, which element should be clearly defined? - A. The number of paragraphs required.m - B. The intended learning outcome - C. The length of the answer - D. The use of multiple-choice format 12. What is an important consideration when specifying the time limit for essay ad questions? - A. To ensure all learners can write detailed responses - B. To provide learners with unlimited time - C. To help learners allocate their time effectively @ - D. To make the test easier 13. What does a well-constructed HOT (higher-order thinking) essay question require learners to do? - A. Memorize facts and figures - B. Generate their own answers based on reasoning - C. Select from a list of provided answers - D. Recall information verbatim 14. Which of the following verbs is most likely to assess HOT skills in an essay question? - A. List - B. Describe - C. Evaluate  - D. Name 15. What is the benefit of using several short essay questions instead of one long essay question? - A. It reduces the time needed for grading - B. It allows for a broader assessment of the subject - C. It limits the depth of learners' responses - D. It simplifies the essay construction process 16. Why should optional essay questions be avoided? - A. They reduce the difficulty of the exam - B. They make the exam longer - C. They may lead to unfair comparative assessment ck - D. They are easier to grade 17. Which is a common misconception about essay questions? - A. They are harder to construct than objective questions - B. They assess only recall abilities vr - C. They automatically assess higher-order thinking - D. They eliminate all forms of guessing 18. What is the drawback of bluffing in essay questions?.m - A. It is easier to detect than guessing in objective tests - B. It can result in misleading assessments of learners' knowledge - C. It requires learners to memorize more information - D. It makes grading more objective 19. What is the primary goal of using a scoring guide or marking scheme for essays? ad - A. To make grading faster - B. To provide feedback to learners - C. To control the shifting of standards in grading - D. To reduce the number of questions in a test @ 20. What is the analytic method of scoring essays? - A. Assigning a single overall score based on impression - B. Using a marking scheme to allocate points for specific elements - C. Comparing responses to other learners' answers - D. Evaluating responses based on grammar and style alone 21. Which of the following best describes the holistic method of scoring essays? - A. Assigning points for each part of the answer - B. Evaluating the overall quality of the response - C. Using multiple-choice format to score - D. Focusing on factual accuracy only 22. What should be avoided to ensure clarity in essay questions?  - A. Providing detailed instructions - B. Using ambiguous terms like "discuss" - C. Defining the scope of the question - D. Specifying the task clearly 23. What is the purpose of writing a model answer before administering an essay question? - A. To reduce the time needed for grading - B. To serve as a basis for grading responses - C. To give learners an example to follow - D. To make the question easier 24. Why is it important to ask a knowledgeable colleague to review essay questions? ck - A. To make the questions easier - B. To check for alignment with learning outcomes - C. To increase the length of the questions - D. To provide answers to learners vr 25. What is the primary focus when assessing an essay response using the holistic method? - A. Detailed accuracy of each point.m - B. Overall impression of the response - C. Length of the response - D. Grammar and spelling 26. Which is a key element in providing fair essay questions? ad - A. Ensuring the question requires advanced content expertise - B. Using vocabulary appropriate for learners' level - C. Allowing unlimited time to answer - D. Giving learners multiple questions to choose from @ 27. What should be done after reviewing learners' responses to an essay question? - A. Modify the question to improve clarity and alignment - B. Increase the time limit for future exams - C. Reduce the number of questions in the test - D. Change the grading scale 28. Which practice helps to ensure consistent grading of essay responses? - A. Grading all questions for one learner at a time - B. Reading and scoring responses to one question before moving to the next - C. Allowing different graders to score different sections - D. Using different criteria for each learner 29. Why should teachers write comments on learners' test scripts?  - A. To reduce grading time - B. To provide feedback and enhance learning - C. To justify the use of multiple-choice questions - D. To simplify the scoring process 30. What is the first step in constructing an effective essay question? - A. Defining the intended learning outcome - B. Deciding the length of the answer - C. Choosing the easiest topic - D. Writing the scoring guide 31. What is a major disadvantage of using optional questions in an essay test? - A. They simplify the grading process ck - B. They can create inconsistency in difficulty levels - C. They encourage guessing - D. They limit the scope of responses 32. Which of the following verbs indicates a higher-order thinking task suitable for an vr essay question? - A. Name - B. Recall - C. Evaluate.m - D. List 33. Which method of scoring is most frequently used in large-scale public examinations? - A. Holistic method - B. Impressionistic method ad - C. Analytic method - D. Comparative method 34. Why is it important to specify the marks allotted for each essay question? @ - A. To make the test shorter - B. To guide learners on the length of their responses - C. To simplify the construction of questions - D. To ensure all learners score equally 35. What should teachers do to avoid the influence of personal biases when grading essays? - A. Use only objective test items - B. Grade papers anonymously - C. Allow learners to grade themselves - D. Use a single grader for all papers 36. How can teachers improve the clarity of an essay question?  - A. By using broad and vague terms - B. By providing specific guidelines and criteria - C. By allowing learners to interpret the question freely - D. By reducing the time limit for each question 37. Why is it beneficial to write a model answer before administering an essay question? - A. To reduce learners' options - B. To ensure alignment with learning outcomes - C. To simplify the construction of questions - D. To increase the length of the exam 38. What does the verb "analyze" require learners to do in an essay question? - A. Memorize facts and figures ck - B. Break down material into parts and examine relationships - C. Choose the correct answer from options - D. Recall information verbatim 39. What is the main purpose of using a marking scheme for essay questions? vr - A. To make grading faster - B. To ensure consistent and fair grading - C. To provide feedback to learners - D. To reduce the number of questions.m 40. Which method of scoring involves assigning an overall impression to an essay response? - A. Analytical method - B. Comparative method ad - C. Holistic method - D. Objective method 41. Which verb is most likely to assess higher-order thinking in an essay question? @ - A. List - B. Define - C. Justify - D. Name 42. What is an effective strategy for constructing higher-order thinking essay questions? - A. Using factual recall questions - B. Presenting learners with a new situation or problem - C. Providing multiple-choice options - D. Asking learners to list memorized information 43. Which of the following best describes an effective essay question?  - A. It allows learners to recall memorized facts - B. It encourages learners to bluff their way through the answer - C. It requires learners to synthesize and evaluate information - D. It has a single correct answer 44. Why should teachers review a range of learners' responses to essay questions? - A. To increase the time needed for grading - B. To evaluate the effectiveness of the question - C. To reduce the number of essay questions - D. To give learners more options in answering 45. What is a common flaw when using essay questions in assessments? - A. They always assess higher-order thinking ck - B. They can be influenced by the length of the response - C. They are easy to construct - D. They eliminate the problem of guessing 46. Why is it important to align essay questions with learning outcomes? vr - A. To make the questions easier - B. To ensure that the questions assess the intended skills and knowledge - C. To reduce the time needed for grading - D. To allow learners to choose their own questions.m 47. What should be included in an essay question to provide clear boundaries for learners' responses? - A. Ambiguous terms - B. Detailed instructions and criteria ad - C. Multiple-choice options - D. Limited time for each question 48. Which verb would likely indicate a lower-order thinking task in an essay question? @ - A. Evaluate - B. Create - C. List - D. Analyze 49. What should teachers do to ensure fairness in essay questions? - A. Use advanced vocabulary - B. Provide sufficient instruction and practice - C. Allow learners to choose optional questions - D. Reduce the number of essay questions 50. What is the advantage of using a holistic method of scoring essays?  - A. It focuses on detailed accuracy of each point - B. It provides an overall assessment of the response - C. It reduces the grading time significantly - D. It eliminates the need for a marking scheme Answers: 37. B 38. B 1. C 39. B 2. B 40. C 3. C 41. C 4. B 42. B 5. C 43. C ck 6. B 44. B 7. C 45. B 8. C 46. B 9. A 47. B 10. D 48. C vr 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 49. B 50. B.m 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. C ad 20. B 21. B 22. B 23. B @ 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. B TOPIC 6: AUTHENTIC ASSESSMENTS 1. What is the primary purpose of authentic assessments? A. To simulate real-world tasks B. To increase the number of questions asked C. To standardize objective items D. To measure contrived means of proficiency 2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of authentic assessments? A. They provide direct evidence of application and construction of knowledge. B. They offer multiple-choice questions. C. They allow for learner choice and construction. ck D. They emphasize real-life tasks. 3. How do traditional multiple-choice tests determine validity? A. By the number of questions answered correctly B. By matching items to the curriculum content vr C. By the difficulty level of the questions D. By the time taken to complete the test 4. What is the main difference between authentic and traditional assessments?.m A. Authentic assessments are more subjective. B. Traditional assessments are more time-consuming. C. Authentic assessments are more closely tied to real-world tasks. D. Traditional assessments are more reliable. ad 5. Which of the following is NOT a component of a rubric? A. Criteria for performance B. Levels of performance C. Multiple-choice options @ D. Weighted scores 6. What is the purpose of a checklist in authentic assessments? A. To provide a detailed rubric B. To record observations of learners C. To standardize objective items D. To measure historical accuracy 7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good checklist? A. It is long and detailed. B. It is short and practical. C. It includes subjective descriptors. D. It is difficult to interpret. 8. How is a rubric different from a checklist? A. A rubric provides more detailed descriptors. B. A checklist is more subjective. C. A rubric is easier to interpret. D. A checklist includes weighted scores. 9. What is the role of descriptors in a rubric? A. To provide clarity and consistency in grading B. To make the rubric more subjective C. To confuse learners D. To increase the difficulty of the assessment 10. Why are authentic assessments considered more effective than traditional ones? ck A. They are easier to grade. B. They require less time to complete. C. They are more closely aligned with real-world tasks. D. They are more objective. vr 11. What is the main criticism of authentic assessments? A. They are too objective. B. They are time-consuming to manage and grade. C. They are less reliable than traditional assessments..m D. They do not provide direct evidence of learning. 12. How do checklists ensure practicality? A. By being long and detailed B. By fitting on one sheet of paper ad C. By including subjective descriptors D. By being difficult to interpret 13. What is the importance of weighting criteria in a rubric? @ A. To make the assessment more subjective B. To emphasize the importance of certain criteria C. To confuse learners D. To decrease the reliability of the assessment 14. Which of the following is an example of an authentic assessment? A. A multiple-choice test B. Writing a critique C. Memorizing facts D. Completing a standardized test 15. How do authentic assessments differ from traditional assessments in terms of evidence? A. Authentic assessments provide indirect evidence B. Traditional assessments provide direct evidence C. Authentic assessments provide more direct evidence D. Traditional assessments provide more indirect evidence 16. What is the role of a rubric in authentic assessments? A. To confuse learners B. To provide clear guidelines for performance C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To increase the difficulty of the assessment ck 17. How do checklists help in recording observations? A. By being vague and open-ended B. By providing a clear structure for observations C. By being difficult to interpret D. By not including sign-off points vr 18. What is the purpose of including sign-off points in checklists? A. To make the assessment more difficult B. To ensure learners proceed without approval.m C. To prevent learners from proceeding without approval D. To make the checklist more subjective 19. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good rubric? A. It includes subjective descriptors. ad B. It is difficult to interpret. C. It provides clear and consistent measures. D. It includes multiple-choice options. @ 20. What is the main advantage of using descriptors in a rubric? A. They make the rubric more subjective. B. They provide clarity and consistency. C. They increase the difficulty of the assessment. D. They confuse learners. 21. How do authentic assessments enhance learner choice and construction? A. By limiting choice B. By providing multiple acceptable routes C. By focusing on standardized items D. By making the assessment more subjective 22. What is the role of a teacher in authentic assessments? A. To provide clear guidelines B. To confuse learners C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To limit learner choice 23. Why are checklists important in authentic assessments? A. They provide a detailed rubric B. They record observations effectively C. They standardize objective items D. They measure historical accuracy 24. How do rubrics ensure reliability and validity in assessments? ck A. By being vague and subjective B. By providing clear and consistent measures C. By making the assessment more difficult D. By including multiple-choice options vr 25. What is the main criticism of using subjective descriptors in rating scales? A. They are more effective B. They provide clear measures C. They are less effective.m D. They are more reliable 26. How do authentic assessments differ from traditional assessments in terms of evidence? A. Authentic assessments provide indirect evidence ad B. Traditional assessments provide direct evidence C. Authentic assessments provide more direct evidence D. Traditional assessments provide more indirect evidence @ 27. What is the purpose of including weight in a rubric? A. To confuse learners B. To emphasize important criteria C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To decrease the reliability of the assessment 28. How do checklists ensure practicality? A. By being long and detailed B. By fitting on one sheet of paper C. By including subjective descriptors D. By being difficult to interpret 29. What is the role of a rubric in authentic assessments? A. To confuse learners B. To provide clear guidelines for performance C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To increase the difficulty of the assessment 30. How do checklists help in recording observations? A. By being vague and open-ended B. By providing a clear structure for observations C. By being difficult to interpret D. By not including sign-off points 31. What is the purpose of including sign-off points in checklists? ck A. To make the assessment more difficult B. To ensure learners proceed without approval C. To prevent learners from proceeding without approval D. To make the checklist more subjective vr 32. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good rubric? A. It includes subjective descriptors. B. It is difficult to interpret. C. It provides clear and consistent measures..m D. It includes multiple-choice options. 33. What is the primary goal of using rubrics in authentic assessments? A. To make grading more subjective B. To provide clear and consistent measures ad C. To increase the difficulty of the assessment D. To confuse learners 34. How do descriptors in a rubric help in grading? @ A. By making the rubric more subjective B. By providing clear and consistent measures C. By increasing the difficulty of the assessment D. By confusing learners 35. What is the role of weighting criteria in a rubric? A. To decrease the importance of certain criteria B. To emphasize the importance of certain criteria C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To confuse learners 36. Why is it important to use clear and detailed wording in checklists? A. To make the assessment more subjective B. To minimize the risk of misinterpretation C. To increase the difficulty of the assessment D. To confuse learners 37. What is the importance of including sign-off points in checklists? A. To make the assessment more difficult B. To ensure learners proceed without approval C. To prevent learners from proceeding without approval D. To make the checklist more subjective 38. How do authentic assessments enhance learner choice and construction? ck A. By limiting choice B. By providing multiple acceptable routes C. By focusing on standardized items D. By making the assessment more subjective vr 39. What is the role of a teacher in authentic assessments? A. To provide clear guidelines B. To confuse learners C. To make the assessment more subjective.m D. To limit learner choice 40. Why are checklists important in authentic assessments? A. They provide a detailed rubric B. They record observations effectively ad C. They standardize objective items D. They measure historical accuracy 41. How do rubrics ensure reliability and validity in assessments? @ A. By being vague and subjective B. By providing clear and consistent measures C. By making the assessment more difficult D. By including multiple-choice options 42. What is the main criticism of using subjective descriptors in rating scales? A. They are more effective B. They provide clear measures C. They are less effective D. They are more reliable 43. How do authentic assessments differ from traditional assessments in terms of evidence? A. Authentic assessments provide indirect evidence B. Traditional assessments provide direct evidence C. Authentic assessments provide more direct evidence D. Traditional assessments provide more indirect evidence 44. What is the purpose of including weight in a rubric? A. To confuse learners B. To emphasize important criteria C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To decrease the reliability of the assessment ck 45. How do checklists ensure practicality? A. By being long and detailed B. By fitting on one sheet of paper C. By including subjective descriptors D. By being difficult to interpret vr 46. What is the role of a rubric in authentic assessments? A. To confuse learners B. To provide clear guidelines for performance.m C. To make the assessment more subjective D. To increase the difficulty of the assessment 47. How do checklists help in recording observations? A. By being vague and open-ended ad B. By providing a clear structure for observations C. By being difficult to interpret D. By not including sign-off points @ 48. What is the purpose of including sign-off points in checklists? A. To make the assessment more difficult B. To ensure learners proceed without approval C. To prevent learners from proceeding without approval D. To make the checklist more subjective 49. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good rubric? A. It includes subjective descriptors B. It is difficult to interpret C. It provides clear and consistent measures D. It includes multiple-choice options 50. What is the main advantage of using descriptors in a rubric? A. They make the rubric more subjective B. They provide clarity and consistency C. They increase the difficulty of the assessment D. They confuse learners Answers: 36. B 37. C 1. A 38. B 2. B 39. A 3. B 40. B 4. C 41. B ck 5. C 42. C 6. B 43. C 7. B 44. B 8. A 45. B 9. A 46. B vr 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. B 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B.m 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. C ad 19. C 20. B 21. B 22. A @ 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. C 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. B TOPIC 7: PROJECT AND PORTFOLIO ASSESSMENTS 1. What is the first step in designing a project? - a) Identifying the project's successes - b) Determining the learning goals and objectives - c) Assigning tasks to group members - d) Evaluating the project's effectiveness 2. Which of the following is NOT a question to consider when determining learning goals according to Herman, Aschbacher, and Winters (1992)? - a) What important cognitive skills do I want my learners to develop? - b) What social and affective skills do I want my learners to develop? ck - c) What metacognitive skills do I want my learners to develop? - d) What are the most popular topics among my learners? 3. In a project assessment, which of the following is an example of a social and affective skill? vr - a) Using algebra to solve everyday problems - b) Developing teamwork skills - c) Reflecting on the research process - d) Evaluating the effectiveness of a method.m 4. What is an effective method for sharing out marks in a group project if group members are fair and honest? - a) Shared Group Mark - b) Share-out Marks ad - c) Individual Mark - d) Combination of Group Average and Individual Mark 5. Which method of assessing group work involves each learner receiving the same mark @ regardless of individual contribution? - a) Shared Group Mark - b) Share-out Marks - c) Individual Mark - d) Combination of Group Average and Individual Mark 6. In a project assessment, what should learners reflect on after completing the project? - a) The project's successes - b) Ways to improve the project - c) How well they met their learning goals - d) All of the above 7. Which of the following is an example of a real-world problem that a project might address? - a) Conducting research - b) Applying the scientific method - c) Understanding cause-and-effect in relationships - d) All of the above 8. What is the purpose of a portfolio assessment? - a) To provide a holistic view of the learner - b) To focus on specific skills or concepts - c) To assess only final products - d) To evaluate traditional academic performance ck 9. In a portfolio assessment, which of the following is a key step in the collection process? - a) Selecting the best works - b) Documenting and storing all works - c) Evaluating the portfolio's effectiveness vr - d) Discarding irrelevant works 10. What is the basis for selecting works in a portfolio? - a) The teacher's preference.m - b) The learner's choice - c) Criteria set by the teacher - d) Random selection 11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a research-based project? ad - a) It involves real-world problems - b) It requires first-hand investigations - c) It is culturally sensitive - d) It is a multiple-choice test @ 12. What is the role of self-evaluation in a project? - a) To grade the project - b) To reflect on the learning process - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases 13. Which of the following is an example of a performance-based assessment? - a) A multiple-choice test - b) A research paper - c) A portfolio - d) All of the above 14. What is the main purpose of using portfolios in assessment? - a) To save time - b) To provide a comprehensive view of a learner's progress - c) To replace traditional tests - d) To showcase only the best work 15. Which method of assessing group work involves each learner submitting an individual report based on the task allocated? - a) Shared Group Mark - b) Share-out Marks - c) Individual Mark - d) Combination of Group Average and Individual Mark ck 16. What is the main challenge in using the "Shared Group Mark" method for assessing group work? - a) It encourages group collaboration - b) It is unfair to better learners - c) It is easy to implement vr - d) It discourages individual effort 17. Which of the following is an example of a product-based project? - a) Writing a research paper.m - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Developing a new algorithm - d) All of the above 18. What is the main advantage of using "Individual Mark" for assessing group work? ad - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort - c) It saves time - d) It reduces teacher workload @ 19. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using "Individual Mark" for assessing group work? - a) It may lead to plagiarism - b) It encourages collaboration - c) It ensures fairness - d) It reduces teacher workload 20. What is the purpose of the "Combination of Group Average and Individual Mark" method? - a) To save time - b) To provide a fair assessment - c) To reduce teacher workload  - d) To discourage individual effort 21. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Six A’s of Effective Project Checklist? - a) Authenticity - b) Accessibility - c) Accountability - d) Ambiguity 22. What is the main purpose of the "Six A’s of Effective Project Checklist"? - a) To guide project planning and development - b) To assess student creativity - c) To evaluate teacher performance ck - d) To determine funding for projects 23. Which of the following is an example of a project that applies basic principles of biology and geography? - a) A research paper on algebra vr - b) A wildlife or botanical guide - c) A portfolio of artwork - d) A multiple-choice test.m 24. What is the main challenge in using the "Method 4: Individual Mark (Examination)" for assessing group work? - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort - c) It may not be effective if learners can answer questions by reading the group report ad - d) It reduces teacher workload 26. What is the main purpose of the "Combination of Group Average and Individual Mark" method? @ - a) To save time - b) To provide a fair assessment - c) To reduce teacher workload - d) To discourage individual effort 27. Which of the following is an example of a process-oriented portfolio? - a) A collection of a learner's best works - b) A document showing the development of a learner's skills - c) A portfolio containing only final products - d) A portfolio focusing on the quantity of work 28. What is the role of reflection in a portfolio? - a) To grade the portfolio - b) To document the learner's progress - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases 29. Which of the following is NOT a component of the portfolio development process according to Epstein (2006)? - a) Collection - b) Selection - c) Reflection - d) Examination ck 30. What is the main advantage of using "Share-out Marks" for assessing group work? - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort - c) It provides a fair assessment - d) It reduces teacher workload vr 31. Which of the following is an example of a real-world problem that a project might address? - a) Developing a new algorithm.m - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Producing a website as a "virtual tour" of the history of the community - d) All of the above 32. What is the purpose of self-assessment in a project? ad - a) To grade the project - b) To reflect on the learning process - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases @ 33. Which of the following is an example of a product-based project? - a) Writing a research paper - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Developing a new algorithm - d) All of the above 34. What is the main challenge in using the "Shared Group Mark" method for assessing group work? - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort - c) It is unfair to better learners - d) It reduces teacher workload 35. Which of the following is an example of a process-oriented portfolio? - a) A collection of a learner's best works - b) A document showing the development of a learner's skills - c) A portfolio containing only final products - d) A portfolio focusing on the quantity of work 36. What is the role of reflection in a portfolio? - a) To grade the portfolio - b) To document the learner's progress - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases 37. Which of the following is NOT a component of the portfolio development process ck according to Epstein (2006)? - a) Collection - b) Selection - c) Reflection - d) Examination vr 38. What is the main advantage of using "Share-out Marks" for assessing group work? - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort.m - c) It provides a fair assessment - d) It reduces teacher workload 39. Which of the following is an example of a real-world problem that a project might address? ad - a) Developing a new algorithm - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Producing a website as a "virtual tour" of the history of the community - d) All of the above @ 40. What is the purpose of self-assessment in a project? - a) To grade the project - b) To reflect on the learning process - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases 41. Which of the following is an example of a product-based project? - a) Writing a research paper - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Developing a new algorithm - d) All of the above 42. What is the main challenge in using the "Shared Group Mark" method for assessing group work? - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort - c) It is unfair to better learners - d) It reduces teacher workload 43. Which of the following is an example of a process-oriented portfolio? - a) A collection of a learner's best works - b) A document showing the development of a learner's skills - c) A portfolio containing only final products - d) A portfolio focusing on the quantity of work ck 44. What is the role of reflection in a portfolio? - a) To grade the portfolio - b) To document the learner's progress - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases vr 45. Which of the following is NOT a component of the portfolio development process according to Epstein (2006)? - a) Collection.m - b) Selection - c) Reflection - d) Examination 46. What is the main advantage of using "Share-out Marks" for assessing group work? ad - a) It encourages collaboration - b) It ensures individual effort - c) It provides a fair assessment - d) It reduces teacher workload @ 47. Which of the following is an example of a real-world problem that a project might address? - a) Developing a new algorithm - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Producing a website as a "virtual tour" of the history of the community - d) All of the above 48. What is the purpose of self-assessment in a project? - a) To grade the project - b) To reflect on the learning process - c) To compare with other learners - d) To identify the teacher's biases 49. Which of the following is an example of a product-based project? - a) Writing a research paper - b) Creating a wildlife or botanical guide - c) Developing a new algorithm - d) All of the above 50. What is the main challenge in using the "Combination of Group Average and Individual Mark" method for assessing group work? a) It encourages collaboration b) It ensures individual effort c) It is difficult to establish individual contributions d) It reduces teacher workload ck Answers: 25. B 26. B 1. B 27. B 2. D 28. D vr 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. D 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. B.m 7. D 33. D 8. A 34. C 9. B 35. B 10. C 36. B 11. D 37. D ad 12. B 38. C 13. C 39. D 14. B 40. B 15. C 41. D @ 16. B 42. C 17. D 43. B 18. B 44. B 19. A 45. D 20. B 46. C 21. D 47. D 22. A 48. B 23. B 49. D 24. C 50. C TOPIC 8: TEST RELIABILITY AND VALIDITY 1. What is the true score in the context of educational testing? - a) The actual score a student receives on a test. - b) The hypothetical score representing a student's actual ability, competency, and capacity. - c) The average score of a group of students on a test. - d) The score a student gets after retesting. 2. Which of the following is NOT a method to estimate test reliability? - a) Test-Retest - b) Parallel or Equivalent Forms - c) Internal Consistency - d) Content Validity ck 3. What does the reliability coefficient indicate? - a) The degree to which a test is valid. - b) The consistency of a test in measuring a student's true score. - c) The difficulty level of the test questions. vr - d) The length of the test. 4. Which of the following is a type of validity that ensures the test covers the necessary content and is representative of the domain being assessed?.m - a) Construct Validity - b) Content Validity - c) Criterion-Related Validity - d) Concurrent Validity ad 5. What is the main purpose of using a Table of Specifications? - a) To increase the difficulty of the test. - b) To ensure that the test has high content validity and covers what should be covered. - c) To reduce the time needed to complete the test. @ - d) To make the test more enjoyable for students. 6. Which of the following factors can affect the reliability and validity of a test? - a) The length of the test - b) The choice of testing techniques - c) The physical conditions under which the test is taken - d) All of the above 7. What is the main difference between essay questions and short-answer questions in terms of reliability? - a) Essay questions are more reliable. - b) Short-answer questions are more reliable. - c) There is no difference in reliability.  - d) It depends on the subject matter. 8. Which of the following is NOT a type of validity? - a) Construct Validity - b) Content Validity - c) Criterion-Related Validity - d) Temporal Validity 9. What is the relationship between reliability and validity? - a) High reliability ensures high validity. - b) High validity ensures high reliability. - c) There is no relationship between the two. - d) High reliability increases the likelihood of high validity, but high reliability does not ck guarantee high validity. 10. Which of the following is NOT a source of measurement error? - a) Ambiguous questions - b) Incorrect markings vr - c) Sampling of items - d) The true score 11. What is the main purpose of ensuring adequate time for test completion?.m - a) To make the test easier - b) To reduce wild guessing - c) To make the test more enjoyable - d) To increase the difficulty of the test ad 12. Which of the following is a method to enhance inter-rater reliability? - a) Using a consistent marking scheme - b) Allowing different raters to use their own judgement - c) Not providing clear instructions for marking @ - d) Relying on subjective judgements 13. What is intra-rater reliability? - a) The consistency of grading by multiple raters. - b) The consistency of grading by a single rater over time. - c) The consistency of grading across different tests. - d) The consistency of grading within a single test. 14. Which of the following is NOT a step to enhance intra-rater reliability? - a) Ensuring clear instructions for grading - b) Providing a consistent marking scheme - c) Allowing for different interpretations of answers - d) Using a system of checks to verify grades 15. What is the main purpose of using Cronbach's Alpha? - a) To measure the difficulty of test items - b) To estimate the internal consistency of a test - c) To measure the validity of the test - d) To measure the reliability of individual test items 16. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the reliability of a test? - a) The length of the test - b) The clarity of the test instructions - c) The physical conditions during the test - d) The age of the test takers 17. What is the main purpose of using a Table of Specifications? ck - a) To make the test longer - b) To ensure content validity - c) To reduce the number of questions - d) To increase the difficulty of the test vr 18. Which of the following is NOT a type of reliability? - a) Test-Retest Reliability - b) Parallel Forms Reliability - c) Internal Consistency Reliability.m - d) Content Reliability 19. What is the main purpose of ensuring clear instructions during a test? - a) To make the test easier - b) To reduce confusion and increase reliability ad - c) To make the test more enjoyable - d) To increase the difficulty of the test 20. Which of the following is a method to enhance the validity of a test? @ - a) Using ambiguous questions - b) Ensuring the test covers the necessary content - c) Making the test longer without additional content - d) Reducing the time allowed for the test 21. What is the main purpose of using a consistent marking scheme? - a) To make the marking easier - b) To enhance inter-rater reliability - c) To reduce the need for marking - d) To increase the difficulty of the marking 22. Which of the following is NOT a source of error in test scores? - a) Fatigue - b) Illness - c) Copying - d) True score 23. What is the main purpose of using essay questions in a test? - a) To increase reliability - b) To measure higher-order thinking skills - c) To make the test easier - d) To reduce the time needed for marking 24. What is the main purpose of using a Table of Specifications in test construction? ck - a) To make the test longer - b) To ensure content validity - c) To reduce the number of questions - d) To increase the difficulty of the test vr 25. Which of the following is NOT a step to enhance inter-rater reliability in the grading of essay answer scripts? - a) Using a consistent marking scheme - b) Providing clear instructions for marking.m - c) Allowing different raters to use their own judgment - d) Using a system of checks to verify grades 26. What is the main purpose of ensuring adequate time for test completion? - a) To make the test easier ad - b) To reduce wild guessing - c) To make the test more enjoyable - d) To increase the difficulty of the test @ 27. Which of the following best describes "criterion-related validity"? - a) The degree to which a test measures the construct it claims to measure. - b) The extent to which a test score correlates with an external criterion. - c) The consistency of a test over time. - d) The representativeness of the test content. 28. What is one of the main purposes of using standardized tests? - a) To measure the specific content knowledge of a particular class. - b) To compare the performance of different groups of students. - c) To increase the difficulty level of the test. - d) To reduce the time needed for marking. 29. Which type of validity is concerned with the extent to which a test predicts future performance? - a) Content Validity - b) Concurrent Validity - c) Predictive Validity - d) Construct Validity 30. Which of the following can help to reduce test anxiety and thereby increase the reliability of test scores? - a) Lengthening the test - b) Providing a calm and supportive environment - c) Increasing the difficulty of the test items - d) Reducing the time allowed for the test ck 31. What is the primary purpose of using formative assessments? - a) To measure students' final achievement in a course - b) To provide feedback to students and inform instruction - c) To compare students' performance to a standard vr - d) To increase the difficulty of the course 32. Which of the following factors can negatively impact the validity of a test? - a) Clear instructions.m - b) Ambiguous questions - c) Representative content - d) Appropriate time limits 33. What is the main difference between summative and formative assessments? ad - a) Summative assessments are ongoing, while formative assessments are final. - b) Formative assessments are ongoing, while summative assessments are final. - c) Summative assessments provide feedback, while formative assessments do not. - d) Formative assessments measure final achievement, while summative assessments do @ not. 34. Which of the following is a key feature of a high-quality test? - a) High difficulty level - b) High content validity and reliability - c) Short completion time - d) Ambiguous questions 35. What is "face validity"?