ECT Reviewer 3 PDF

If 16 is four more than 4x, find 5x - 1. A. 14 B. 3 C. 8 D. 10 E.C.T. Which of the following might damage a multimeter? A. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting B. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale C. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight D. Not allowing it to warm up properly E.C.T. Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force? A. A voltmeter B. An ammeter C. A wavemeter D. An ohmmeter E.C.T. What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit? A. In parallel with the circuit B. In series with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit E.C.T. How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit E.C.T. Which instrument is used to measure electric current? A. An ammeter B. An ohmmeter C. A wavemeter D. A voltmeter E.C.T. Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use? A. Rosin-core solder B. Acid-core solder C. Silver solder D. Aluminum solder E.C.T. What is the characteristic appearance of a "cold" solder joint? A. A grainy or dull surface B. Dark black spots C. A bright or shiny surface D. A greenish tint E.C.T. What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across a circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time? A. The circuit contains a large capacitor B. The ohmmeter is defective C. The circuit contains a large inductor D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator E.C.T. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter? A. Ensure that the circuit is not powered B. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency E.C.T. Which is not true about thermocouples? A. It can be calibrated. B. May reference something. C. Generate small voltage. D. Made of dissimilar materials. E.C.T. What instrument is used to measure resistance? A. An ohmmeter B. An oscilloscope C. A spectrum analyzer D. A noise bridge E.C.T. The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the: A. faradmeter B. wattmeter C. ammeter D. voltmeter E.C.T. How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test? A. In series with the circuit B. In quadrature with the circuit C. In phase with the circuit D. In parallel with the circuit E.C.T. What does a multimeter measure? A. Resistance, capacitance and inductance B. Voltage, current and resistance C. Resistance and reactance D. SWR and power E.C.T. The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is: A. an ohmmeter B. a wattmeter C. an ammeter D. a voltmeter E.C.T. When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as: A. a perfect conductor B. a low value resistance C. an extra current drain D. an insulator E.C.T. When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed: A. in series with both receiver power leads B. in series with one of the receiver power leads C. in parallel with both receiver power supply leads D. in parallel with one of the receiver power leads E.C.T. Potential difference is measured by means of: A. a wattmeter B. an ohmmeter C. a voltmeter D. an ammeter E.C.T. Voltage drop means: A. the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished B. difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer C. voltage between the terminals of a component D. any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage E.C.T. In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with: A. the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel B. the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series C. both voltmeter and ammeter in series D. both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel E.C.T. Which of the following meters would you use to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver? A. a DC ammeter B. an RF ammeter C. an RF power metre D. an electrostatic voltmeter E.C.T. Section 40 of RA 9292. A. Appropriations B. Repealing clause C. Effectivity D. Separability clause E.C.T. Date of approval of RA 9292 A. April 14, 2004 B. April 14, 2007 C. April 17, 2004 D. None of these E.C.T. There are __________ Articles and __________ sections in the RA 9292. A. 8, 42 B. 8, 43 C. 7, 43 D. 7,42 E.C.T. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section _________. A. 35 B. 36 C. 37 D. 38 E.C.T. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No. 2683. A. RA 9292 B. RA 6541 C. RA 5734 D. None of these E.C.T. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________ following its full publication in the __________ or any newspaper of general circulation. A. 15 days, Law Gazette B. 15 days, Official Gazette C. 15 days, internet D. 30 days, internet E.C.T. Who among the following persons was not a signatory of the 9292? A. FRANKLIN DRILON B. JOSE DE VENECIA JR C. OSCAR G. YABES D. JESUS P. NAZARENO E.C.T. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics Engineering? A. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to his appointment B. Member of good standing of the APO C. Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude D. Be of good moral character and integrity E.C.T. All records of the Board, including applications for the examination, administrative cases involving PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by A. BECE B. IECEP C. PRC D. APO E.C.T. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term. A. two years B. at least 3 years C. 3 years D. 5 years E.C.T. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an official __________ of the Board. A. logo B. icon C. Avatar D. Seal E.C.T. The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission as provided for in the __________. A. Civil Service B. Dept of Budget & Mngt C. RA 1992 D. Gen Appropriations Act E.C.T. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the assumption of office. A. panel interview from the Appointment committee B. board exam C. proper oath D. none of these E.C.T. How much or what fine is required for any person who shall violate any provision or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice promulgated under RA 9292? A. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor more than 6 year B. Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or both, in the discretion of the court C. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of the court D. none of these E.C.T. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers A. Commission B. APO C. IECEP D. none of these E.C.T. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous, productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs A. God-fearing B. religious C. versatile D. well-rounded E.C.T. A candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below _________ percent but not lower than __________ percent, shall be allowed to take one removal examinations on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating. A. 70, 50 B. 70, 60 C. 50, 70 D. 60, 70 E.C.T. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall issue Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Cards without examination to all applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20. A. 3 (three) B. 5 (five) C. 7 (seven) D. none of these E.C.T. All submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a certification from __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the applicant. A. at least 3 B. 3 C. 5 D. none of these E.C.T. An act that provides for the regulation of radio station communications in the Philippines and other purposes. A. RA 3864 B. RA 9292 C. RA 7952 D. RA 3846 E.C.T. Rules and regulations requiring the service of ECE's in planning and designing radio communications equipment. A. EO 456 B. DO 88 C. EO 57 D. DO 456 E.C.T. Which of the following does not form a moral philosophy which, associated with mutual interest among men? A. Honesty B. Justice C. Courage D. Courtesy E.C.T. What republic act has the short title of PRC Modernization Act of 2000. A. RA 8918 B. RA 8981 C. RA 8891 D. RA 9292 E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _________ is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier. A. speech amplifier B. oscillator C. power amplifier D. microphone E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the: A. microphone B. modulator C. power amplifier D. frequency multiplier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the: A. modulator B. power amplifier C. speech amplifier D. oscillator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator. A. modulator B. power amplifier C. microphone D. frequency multiplier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier. A. frequency multiplier B. microphone C. speech amplifier D. modulator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the: A. frequency multiplier B. microphone C. antenna D. modulator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is connected to the input of the radio frequency amplifier. A. mixer B. frequency discriminator C. antenna D. limiter E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the antenna and the mixer. A. audio frequency amplifier B. high frequency oscillator C. intermediate frequency amplifier D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the high frequency oscillator is fed to the: A. radio frequency amplifier B. limiter C. antenna D. mixer E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the _______ is connected to the mixer. A. frequency discriminator B. intermediate frequency amplifier C. speaker and/or headphones D. high frequency oscillator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the mixer and the intermediate frequency amplifier. A. filter B. limiter C. frequency discriminator D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the filter and the limiter. A. high frequency oscillator B. intermediate frequency amplifier C. mixer D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the intermediate frequency amplifier and the frequency discriminator. A. filter B. high frequency oscillator C. limiter D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the limiter and the audio frequency amplifier. A. intermediate frequency amplifier B. speaker and/or headphones C. high frequency oscillator D. frequency discriminator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the speaker and/or headphones and the frequency discriminator. A. limiter B. intermediate frequency amplifier C. radio frequency amplifier D. audio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ connects to the audio frequency amplifier output. A. intermediate frequency amplifier B. frequency discriminator C. speaker and/or headphones D. limiter E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _________ is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna. A. modulator B. power amplifier C. speech amplifier D. oscillator E.C.T. The use of triggered sweep of oscilloscopes will increase the accuracy of what? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Graticule activity D. Timing E.C.T. What is the impedance of a circuit with R = 10 ohms, L =.01 H and C = 800 uF connected in parallel across a 240 V, 50 Hz source? A. 8.308 ohms B. 7.404 ohms C. 2.164 ohms D. 1.832 ohms E.C.T. To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two: A. Two 20 millihenry chokes in series B. Two 5 millihenry chokes in series C. Two 30 millihenry chokes in parallel D. Two 5 millihenry chokes in parallel E.C.T. If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance? A. Half the value of one inductor B. The same as the value of either inductor C. The value of one inductor times the value of the other D. Twice the value of one inductor E.C.T. If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance? A. Twice the value of one inductor B. The same as the value of either inductor C. The value of one inductor times the value of the other D. Half the value of one inductor E.C.T. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance? A. Twice the value of one capacitor B. The same as the value of either capacitor C. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other D. Half the value of either capacitor E.C.T. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance? A. The same as the value of either capacitor B. Twice the value of one capacitor C. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other D. Half the value of one capacitor E.C.T. What determines the inductance of a coil? A. The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil B. The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire C. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil D. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically E.C.T. What determines the capacitance of a capacitor? A. The material between the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates B. The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type D. The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating E.C.T. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance? A. The same value of either capacitor B. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other C. Half the value of either capacitor D. Twice the value of either capacitor E.C.T. Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is: A. 45 microfarads B. 12 microfarads C. 5 microfarads D. 18 microfarads E.C.T. Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor? A. two 10 microfarad capacitors B. two 20 microfarad capacitors C. twenty 2 microfarad capacitors D. ten 2 microfarad capacitors E.C.T. Solve for x: log2(x^2 + 2x +1) - log2(X + 1) = 1 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3.124 D. 0.1242 E.C.T. Equivalent of tan x cot x – cos2 x A. sin x B. tan2 x C. sin2 x D. tan x E.C.T. If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 150 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest? A. They will all be the same B. The 40 watt bulb C. The 60 watt bulb D. The 150 watt bulb E.C.T. What is the word used to describe how fast electrical energy is used? A. Current B. Power C. Voltage D. Resistance E.C.T. What is the basic unit of electrical power? A. The ampere B. The volt C. The watt D. The ohm E.C.T. Which electrical circuit will have no current? A. A short circuit B. An open circuit C. A complete circuit D. A closed circuit E.C.T. Which electrical circuit uses too much current? A. A dead circuit B. A short circuit C. A closed circuit D. An open circuit E.C.T. Power is expressed in: A. volts B. amperes C. watts D. ohms E.C.T. Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power? A. Inductance and capacitance B. Voltage and inductance C. Voltage and current D. Resistance and capacitance E.C.T. Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"? A. Volts and farads B. Farads and henrys C. Amperes and henrys D. Volts and amperes E.C.T. A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much: A. voltage B. resistance C. current D. power E.C.T. High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by: A. allowing higher voltage to be handled B. increasing the effective resistance of the resistor C. allowing heat to dissipate more readily D. making it shock proof E.C.T. The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked: A. 100 ohms B. 2 ohms C. 20 watts D. 0.5 watt E.C.T. 120 Vdc has __________ energy compared than 120 Vrms. A. same B. higher C. lower D. impossible to tell E.C.T. Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur transmitter while the supply is operating is not a recommended technique because of the risk of: A. damaging the transmitter B. electric shock C. overmodulation D. blowing the fuse E.C.T. How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home? A. Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line B. Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line C. Put a "Danger – High Voltage" sign in the station D. Put fuses in the main power line E.C.T. How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car? A. Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it B. Turn the radio off when you are not using it C. Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it D. Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio E.C.T. Why would you use a key- operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station? A. For safety, in case the main fuses fail B. To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency C. For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency D. To keep unauthorized persons from using your station E.C.T. How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal? A. Approximately 10 amperes B. More than 20 amperes C. Current flow through the human body is never fatal D. As little as 1/10 of an ampere E.C.T. Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current? A. The heart B. The brain C. The liver D. The lungs E.C.T. What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans? A. 100 volts B. 1000 volts C. 2000 volts D. 30 volts E.C.T. What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage? A. Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help B. Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage C. Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if needed D. Run from the area so you won't be burned too E.C.T. What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source? A. Turn off the high voltage switch before removing the person from contact with the source B. Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area C. Call an electrician D. Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg E.C.T. Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to First: A. turn off the power and remove power plug B. short out leads of filter capacitor C. check action of capacitor bleeder resistance D. remove and check fuse from power supply E.C.T. The gain of an amplifier is 20 dB. Assuming that the input impedance matches the load impedance, determine the output voltage if the input voltage is 2 V. A. 10 V B. 5 V C. 20 V D. 2.5 V E.C.T. An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery: A. has two terminals B. can be repeatedly recharged C. can be completely discharged D. contains an electrolyte E.C.T. How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply? A. About 240 volts B. About 120 volts C. About 12 volts D. About 9 volts E.C.T. Which component has a positive and a negative side? A. A potentiometer B. A fuse C. A resistor D. A battery E.C.T. A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a: A. low leakage cell B. memory cell C. storage cell D. primary cell E.C.T. Which of the following is a source of EMF? A. germanium diode B. lead acid battery C. P channel FET D. carbon resistor E.C.T. A dry cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volt. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volt. This is due to the cell's: A. electrolyte becoming dry B. internal resistance C. current capacity D. voltage capacity E.C.T. The most common primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This cell can be recharged: A. never B. twice C. many times D. once E.C.T. All storage batteries have discharge limits, and nickel-cadmium, the type most used in hand-held portables, should not be discharged to less than: A. 0.5 volt per cell B. 1.5 volt per cell C. 0.2 volt per cell D. 1.0 volt per cell E.C.T. To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in: A. Parallel B. series C. parallel resonant D. series resonant E.C.T. To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in: A. parallel B. series-parallel C. resonance D. series E.C.T. A nickel-cadmium battery should never be: A. short-circuited B. recharged C. left disconnected D. left overnight at room temperature E.C.T. One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be: A. smaller DC current drain B. lower modulation percentage C. reduced antenna radiation D. radiated key-clicks E.C.T. A mismatched antenna or feedline may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be: A. loss of modulation in the transmitted signal B. the driver stage will not deliver power to the final C. excessive heat produced in the final transmitter stage D. the output tank circuit breaks down E.C.T. An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not: A. become over modulated B. generate key-clicks C. drift in frequency D. cause undue distortion E.C.T. The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power? A. It has been dissipated as heat loss B. It has been used to provide greater efficiency C. It has been used to provide negative feedback D. It has been used to provide positive feedback E.C.T. The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier: A. is lost in the feed line B. appears as heat dissipation C. is due to oscillating D. radiates from the antenna E.C.T. The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is: A. found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors B. found by adding each of the capacitors together C. always less than the smallest capacitor D. always greater than the largest capacitor E.C.T. Solve for the energy in a 500 ohm resistor if 100 mA of current passes through it for two minutes. A. 600 J B. 300 J C. 1200 J D. 150 J E.C.T. Two resistors are connected in series with a battery having a terminal voltage of 24 V. If R1 is 22 ohms and dissipates 5 W of power, solve for R2. A. 32.8 ohms B. 12.5 ohm C. 28.3 ohms D. 24.2 ohms E.C.T. A 24 V has a terminal potential difference is 23.5 V when connected to an external circuit that draws a current of 10 A. What is the resistance of this external circuit? A. 2.35 ohms B. 3.25 ohms C. 2.40 ohms B. 3.40 ohms E.C.T. Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened? A. To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages B. To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet C. To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet D. To turn the power supply off when it is not being used E.C.T. Determine the y-intercept of the function f(x) = tan x A. (0, 0) B. (π/2, ∞) C. (π/4, 1) D. All of these are correct. E.C.T. What can you say about the graph of y = bx, where 0 < b < 1. A. It is vertical. B. It falls from right to left. C. It falls from left to right. D. It is horizontal. E.C.T. A load connected to a 48 V source consumes 1.5 W of power. If it draws a current of 100 mA, determine the value of the wasted heat. A. 4.8 W B. 3.2 W C. 3.3 W D. 1.5 W E.C.T. What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength in meters? A. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300 C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300 D. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300 E.C.T. What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle? A. Wavelength B. Wave speed C. Waveform D. Wave spread E.C.T. What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction? A. Frequency B. Pulse rate C. Speed D. Wavelength E.C.T. What are the two components of a radio wave? A. Electric and magnetic fields B. AC and DC C. Voltage and current D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation E.C.T. How fast does a radio wave travel through free space? A. At the speed of light B. At the speed of sound C. Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength D. Its speed increases as the frequency increases E.C.T. How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency? A. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases B. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal E.C.T. What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands? A. The approximate wavelength B. The magnetic intensity of waves C. The time it takes for waves to travel one mile D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves E.C.T. What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum? A. 30 to 300 MHz B. 30 to 300 kHz C. 300 to 3000 kHz D. 300 to 3000 MHz E.C.T. What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum? A. 300 to 3000 MHz B. 30 to 300 kHz C. 30 to 300 MHz D. 300 to 3000 kHz E.C.T. What frequency range is referred to as HF? A. 3 to 30 MHz B. 300 to 3000 MHz C. 30 to 300 MHz D. 300 to 3000 kHz E.C.T. What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space? A. 300,000,000 meters per second B. 3000 kilometers per second C. 300,000 miles per hour D. 186,000 miles per hour E.C.T. What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets longer? A. It disappears B. It stays the same C. It goes down D. It goes up E.C.T. What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth? A. Speed B. Pulse rate C. Frequency D. Inductance E.C.T. Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear? A. 20 000 - 30 000 Hz B. 200 - 200 000 Hz C. 20 - 20 000 Hz D. 0 - 20 Hz E.C.T. Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies? A. Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range B. Because this range is too low for radio energy C. Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range D. Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range E.C.T. Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range? A. Radio B. Audio C. Hyper D. Super-high E.C.T. What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle? A. Wavelength B. Wave speed C. Waveform D. Wave spread E.C.T. What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases? A. It gets longer B. It stays the same C. It disappears D. It gets shorter E.C.T. What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean? A. 6000 metres per second B. 60 cycles per second C. 60 metres per second D. 6000 cycles per second E.C.T. If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is: A. 10 seconds B. 0.0001 second C. 0.01 second D. 1 second E.C.T. Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of: A. 10 Hz B. 1 Hz C. 100 Hz D. 1000 Hz E.C.T. A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4 kHz signal is referred to as: A. a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal B. the DC component of the main signal C. a dielectric signal of the main signal D. a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal E.C.T. Transducers used to measure displacement and motion. A. Variable resistance, thermoelectric B. LVDT, piezoelectric, variable resistance C. LVDT, thermoelectric, sonic D. LVDT, thermoelectric, variable resistance E.C.T. Old resistance is 0.1 ohm, what is the new resistance if you double the length? A. 0.1 ohm B. 0.2 ohm C. 0.01 ohm D. 0.05 ohm E.C.T. Electronic equipment used to compare the input and output signals. A. Logic probe B. Spectrum analyzer C. Oscilloscope D. Multitrace oscilloscope E.C.T. The measurement of the bearing is referenced to the __________________. A. East – West line B. North – South line C. +x - axis D. –x – axis E.C.T. How does a capacitor react to AC? A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases E.C.T. How does a coil react to AC? A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases E.C.T. The reactance of capacitors increases as: A. applied voltage increases B. AC frequency decreases C. applied voltage decreases D. AC frequency increases E.C.T. In inductances, AC may be opposed by both resistance of winding wire and reactance due to inductive effect. The term which includes resistance and reactance is: A. resonance B. inductance C. impedance D. capacitance E.C.T. Capacitive reactance: A. decreases as frequency increases B. applies only to series RLC circuits C. increases as frequency increases D. increases with the time constant E.C.T. Inductive reactance may be increased by: A. a decrease in the applied frequency B. a decrease in the supplied current C. an increase in the applied voltage D. an increase in the applied frequency E.C.T. A choke coil of 4.25 microhenrys is used in a circuit at a frequency of 200 MHz. Its reactance is approximately: A. 5 740 ohms B. 5 340 ohms C. 7 540 ohms D. 4 750 ohms E.C.T. The capacitive reactance of a 25 microfarad capacitor connected to a 60 hertz line is: A. 106.1 ohms B. 9 420 ohms C. 2.4 ohms D. 1 500 ohms E.C.T. A power-supply filter has a capacitor of 10 microfarad. What is the capacitive reactance of this capacitor to a frequency of 60 hertz? A. 200 ohms B. 100 ohms C. 500 ohms D. 265 ohms E.C.T. What is the approximate inductive reactance of a 1 henry choke coil used in a 60 hertz circuit? A. 376 ohms B. 3760 ohms C. 188 ohms D. 1888 ohms E.C.T. In general, the reactance of inductors increases with: A. increasing AC frequency B. decreasing AC frequency C. decreasing applied voltage D. increasing applied voltage E.C.T. How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting? A. Pointed towards the station you are contacting B. Pointed away from the station you are contacting C. Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground D. Away from your head and away from others E.C.T. What should you do for safety when operating at 1270 MHz? A. Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied B. Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point C. Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test D. Never use a horizontally polarized antenna E.C.T. What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna? A. Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction B. Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting C. Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point D. Make sure that RF field screens are in place E.C.T. What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier? A. Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected B. Make sure the antenna feed line is properly grounded C. Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on D. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna feed line E.C.T. Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting? A. To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction B. To reduce your exposure to the radiofrequency energy C. To keep static charges from building up D. To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions E.C.T. How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue? A. It causes radiation poisoning B. It paralyzes the tissue C. It produces genetic changes in the tissue D. It heats the tissue E.C.T. Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation? A. Heart B. Eyes C. Liver D. Hands E.C.T. Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue? A. It causes radiation poisoning B. It causes blood flow to stop C. It produces genetic changes in the tissue D. It heats the tissue E.C.T. If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them? A. Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects B. Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation C. Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating D. Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize feed- line length E.C.T. Name three good electrical conductors. A. Gold, silver, wood B. Gold, silver, aluminum C. Copper, aluminum, paper D. Copper, gold, mica E.C.T. Why should directional high- gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures? A. So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures B. So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm C. So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy D. So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves E.C.T. For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located? A. As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna B. Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground C. As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter D. Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder E.C.T. Name four good electrical insulators. A. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon B. Paper, glass, air, aluminum C. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain D. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain E.C.T. Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use? A. Their reactance makes them heat up B. Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up C. They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot D. Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat E.C.T. What is the best conductor among the following materials? A. carbon B. silicon C. aluminium D. copper E.C.T. The material listed, which will most readily allow an electric current to flow, is called? A. a conductor B. an insulator C. a resistor D. a dielectric E.C.T. A length of metal is connected in a circuit and is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a: A. high resistance B. high wattage C. low wattage D. low resistance E.C.T. The letter "R" is the symbol for: A. impedance B. resistance C. reluctance D. reactance E.C.T. The reciprocal of resistance is: A. conductance B. reactance C. reluctance D. permeability E.C.T. Voltage drop means: A. voltage developed across the terminals of a component B. any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage C. difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer D. the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished E.C.T. The resistance of a conductor changes with: A. voltage B. temperature C. current D. humidity E.C.T. The most common material used to make a resistor is: A. carbon B. gold C. mica D. lead E.C.T. So-called "transformerless" power supplies are used in some applications (notably tube-type radios and TV receivers). When working on such equipment, one should be very careful because: A. one side of the line cord is connected to the chassis B. DC circuits are negative relative to the chassis C. chassis connections are grounded by the centre pin of the power source's plug D. the load across the power supply is variable E.C.T. If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first? A. The power supply B. The speaker C. The microphone The SWR meter E.C.T. What device converts household current to 12 VDC? A. A low pass filter B. A power supply C. An RS-232 interface A catalytic converter E.C.T. Which of these usually needs a heavy duty power supply? A. An antenna switch B. A receiver C. A transceiver D. An SWR meter E.C.T. What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter? A. A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply B. Using an antenna which is the wrong length C. Energy from another transmitter D. Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit E.C.T. A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than: A. 17 watts B. 2.4 watts C. 6 watts D. 60 watts E.C.T. What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower? A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap B. Remove all tower grounding connections C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses D. All of the these choices are correct E.C.T. The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it: A. has a high resistance to AC but not to DC B. allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode C. has a high resistance to DC but not to AC D. allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode E.C.T. To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a: A. transformer B. capacitor C. diode D. resistor E.C.T. If household voltages are consistently high or low at your location, this can be corrected by the use of: A. a full-wave bridge rectifier B. an autotransformer C. a variable voltmeter D. a proper load resistance E.C.T. What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected? A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover D. You might receive an electric shock from the charged stored in large capacitors E.C.T. You have a very loud low- frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble? A. the power supply B. the variable-frequency oscillator C. the driver circuit D. the power amplifier circuit E.C.T. What is the most common function of a diode? A. Oscillator B. Rectifier C. Amplifier D. Attenuator E.C.T. Which of the following are thermal sensing elements? A. RTD B. Thermistor C. Thermocouple D. All of the choices are correct. E.C.T. Two emfs will be measured by slider potentiometer. The two emfs are balanced at 500 mm and 655 mm. At 1.27 V the slider is at 530 mm. Find the emfs. A. 1.2 V and 1.57 V B. 2.1 V and 1.75 V C. 1.2 V and 1.75 V D. 2.1 V and 1.57 V E.C.T. Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters? A. FM B. AM C. SSB D. PSK E.C.T. Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation? A. Single sideband B. Spread-spectrum C. Packet radio D. Phase shift keying E.C.T. What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions? A. FM B. SSB C. AM D. Spread Spectrum E.C.T. E.C.T. Which type of voice modulation is most often used for long-distance or weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands? A. SSB B. FM C. AM D. PM E.C.T. What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions? A. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth B. SSB signals are easier to tune C. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference D. All of these choices are correct E.C.T. The graph of y = logb x is asymptotic to: A. y = b B. x = 0 C. y = x D. x = b E.C.T. Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter? A. SWR and RF power B. Voltage and resistance C. Signal strength and noise D. Impedance and reactance E.C.T. In circuit theory, it states that any linear circuit can be represented as an equivalent source with parallel equivalent resistance. A. Thevenin’s theorem B. Compensation theorem C. Norton’s theorem D. Reciprocity theorem E.C.T. What law declares that ECT examination is equivalent to civil service licensure examination? A. RA 8010 B. RA 8100 C. RA 1080 D. RA 1800 E.C.T. Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery? A. Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion B. Touching both terminals with the hands can cause electrical shock C. RF emissions from the battery D. All of these choices are correct E.C.T. What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug? A. Neutral B. Hot C. Safety ground D. The white wire E.C.T. What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver? A.An RF power amplifier B.A voltage divider C.An impedance network D.All of these choices are correct E.C.T. What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit? A. To interrupt power in case of overload B. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit C. To limit current to prevent shocks D. All of these choices are correct E.C.T. Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line? A.Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground B.Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power C.Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector D.Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground E.C.T. If 16 is four more than 4x, find 5x - 1. A. 14 B. 3 C. 8 D. 10 E.C.T. Which of the following might damage a multimeter? A. Attempting to measure voltage when using the resistance setting B. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen scale C. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position overnight D. Not allowing it to warm up properly E.C.T. Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or electromotive force? A. A voltmeter B. An ammeter C. A wavemeter D. An ohmmeter E.C.T. What is the correct way to connect a voltmeter to a circuit? A. In parallel with the circuit B. In series with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit E.C.T. How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit? A. In series with the circuit B. In parallel with the circuit C. In quadrature with the circuit D. In phase with the circuit E.C.T. Which instrument is used to measure electric current? A. An ammeter B. An ohmmeter C. A wavemeter D. A voltmeter E.C.T. Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use? A. Rosin-core solder B. Acid-core solder C. Silver solder D. Aluminum solder E.C.T. What is the characteristic appearance of a "cold" solder joint? A. A grainy or dull surface B. Dark black spots C. A bright or shiny surface D. A greenish tint E.C.T. What is probably happening when an ohmmeter, connected across a circuit, initially indicates a low resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time? A. The circuit contains a large capacitor B. The ohmmeter is defective C. The circuit contains a large inductor D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator E.C.T. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter? A. Ensure that the circuit is not powered B. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency E.C.T. Which is not true about thermocouples? A. It can be calibrated. B. May reference something. C. Generate small voltage. D. Made of dissimilar materials. E.C.T. What instrument is used to measure resistance? A. An ohmmeter B. An oscilloscope C. A spectrum analyzer D. A noise bridge E.C.T. The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the: A. faradmeter B. wattmeter C. ammeter D. voltmeter E.C.T. How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test? A. In series with the circuit B. In quadrature with the circuit C. In phase with the circuit D. In parallel with the circuit E.C.T. What does a multimeter measure? A. Resistance, capacitance and inductance B. Voltage, current and resistance C. Resistance and reactance D. SWR and power E.C.T. The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is: A. an ohmmeter B. a wattmeter C. an ammeter D. a voltmeter E.C.T. When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as: A. a perfect conductor B. a low value resistance C. an extra current drain D. an insulator E.C.T. When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed: A. in series with both receiver power leads B. in series with one of the receiver power leads C. in parallel with both receiver power supply leads D. in parallel with one of the receiver power leads E.C.T. Potential difference is measured by means of: A. a wattmeter B. an ohmmeter C. a voltmeter D. an ammeter E.C.T. Voltage drop means: A. the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished B. difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer C. voltage between the terminals of a component D. any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage E.C.T. In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with: A. the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel B. the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series C. both voltmeter and ammeter in series D. both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel E.C.T. Which of the following meters would you use to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver? A. a DC ammeter B. an RF ammeter C. an RF power metre D. an electrostatic voltmeter E.C.T. Section 40 of RA 9292. A. Appropriations B. Repealing clause C. Effectivity D. Separability clause E.C.T. Date of approval of RA 9292 A. April 14, 2004 B. April 14, 2007 C. April 17, 2004 D. None of these E.C.T. There are __________ Articles and __________ sections in the RA 9292. A. 8, 42 B. 8, 43 C. 7, 43 D. 7,42 E.C.T. Any person who shall violate any provision of RA 9292 or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice is stated in section _________. A. 35 B. 36 C. 37 D. 38 E.C.T. This act is was consolidation of House Bill No. 5224 and Senate Bill No. 2683. A. RA 9292 B. RA 6541 C. RA 5734 D. None of these E.C.T. According to section 43, RA 9292 shall take effect __________ following its full publication in the __________ or any newspaper of general circulation. A. 15 days, Law Gazette B. 15 days, Official Gazette C. 15 days, internet D. 30 days, internet E.C.T. Who among the following persons was not a signatory of the 9292? A. FRANKLIN DRILON B. JOSE DE VENECIA JR C. OSCAR G. YABES D. JESUS P. NAZARENO E.C.T. Which of the following is not true for the qualifications of Board Members of Electronics Engineering? A. Be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for 5 consecutive yrs prior to his appointment B. Member of good standing of the APO C. Must not have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude D. Be of good moral character and integrity E.C.T. All records of the Board, including applications for the examination, administrative cases involving PECE, ECE and ECTs shall be kept by A. BECE B. IECEP C. PRC D. APO E.C.T. The members of the Board shall hold office for a term of __________ from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term. A. two years B. at least 3 years C. 3 years D. 5 years E.C.T. Section 7 states that the Board is vested with the authority to: Adopt an official __________ of the Board. A. logo B. icon C. Avatar D. Seal E.C.T. The compensation and allowances of the Board is comparable to that being received by the Chairman and members of existing regulatory boards under the Commission as provided for in the __________. A. Civil Service B. Dept of Budget & Mngt C. RA 1992 D. Gen Appropriations Act E.C.T. Each member of the Board shall take the/a __________ prior to the assumption of office. A. panel interview from the Appointment committee B. board exam C. proper oath D. none of these E.C.T. How much or what fine is required for any person who shall violate any provision or any rules, regulations, the Code of Ethics and the Code of Technical Standards of Practice promulgated under RA 9292? A. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor more than 6 year B. Php100,000.00 to Php 1M or 6 yrs imprisonment or both, in the discretion of the court C. Not less than Php100,000.00 nor more than Php 1M or by imprisonment of not less than 6 months nor more than 6 years, or both, in the discretion of the court D. none of these E.C.T. The Board and the __________ shall correct and rate the licensure examination papers A. Commission B. APO C. IECEP D. none of these E.C.T. According to section 2-Statement of Policy, the state shall therefore develop and nurture competent, virtuous, productive, and __________ PECE, ECE, and ECTs A. God-fearing B. religious C. versatile D. well-rounded E.C.T. A candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s below _________ percent but not lower than __________ percent, shall be allowed to take one removal examinations on the subject/s where he/she failed to obtain the passing rating. A. 70, 50 B. 70, 60 C. 50, 70 D. 60, 70 E.C.T. Within __________ years after the effectivity of RA 9292, the Board shall issue Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Cards without examination to all applicants for registration as Electronics Technicians who comply to all the requirements stated in section 20. A. 3 (three) B. 5 (five) C. 7 (seven) D. none of these E.C.T. All submittals/documents shall be accompanied by a certification from __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the applicant. A. at least 3 B. 3 C. 5 D. none of these E.C.T. An act that provides for the regulation of radio station communications in the Philippines and other purposes. A. RA 3864 B. RA 9292 C. RA 7952 D. RA 3846 E.C.T. Rules and regulations requiring the service of ECE's in planning and designing radio communications equipment. A. EO 456 B. DO 88 C. EO 57 D. DO 456 E.C.T. Which of the following does not form a moral philosophy which, associated with mutual interest among men? A. Honesty B. Justice C. Courage D. Courtesy E.C.T. What republic act has the short title of PRC Modernization Act of 2000. A. RA 8918 B. RA 8981 C. RA 8891 D. RA 9292 E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _________ is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier. A. speech amplifier B. oscillator C. power amplifier D. microphone E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the: A. microphone B. modulator C. power amplifier D. frequency multiplier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the: A. modulator B. power amplifier C. speech amplifier D. oscillator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator. A. modulator B. power amplifier C. microphone D. frequency multiplier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier. A. frequency multiplier B. microphone C. speech amplifier D. modulator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the: A. frequency multiplier B. microphone C. antenna D. modulator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is connected to the input of the radio frequency amplifier. A. mixer B. frequency discriminator C. antenna D. limiter E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the antenna and the mixer. A. audio frequency amplifier B. high frequency oscillator C. intermediate frequency amplifier D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the high frequency oscillator is fed to the: A. radio frequency amplifier B. limiter C. antenna D. mixer E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the _______ is connected to the mixer. A. frequency discriminator B. intermediate frequency amplifier C. speaker and/or headphones D. high frequency oscillator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the mixer and the intermediate frequency amplifier. A. filter B. limiter C. frequency discriminator D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the filter and the limiter. A. high frequency oscillator B. intermediate frequency amplifier C. mixer D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the intermediate frequency amplifier and the frequency discriminator. A. filter B. high frequency oscillator C. limiter D. radio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the limiter and the audio frequency amplifier. A. intermediate frequency amplifier B. speaker and/or headphones C. high frequency oscillator D. frequency discriminator E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the speaker and/or headphones and the frequency discriminator. A. limiter B. intermediate frequency amplifier C. radio frequency amplifier D. audio frequency amplifier E.C.T. In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ connects to the audio frequency amplifier output. A. intermediate frequency amplifier B. frequency discriminator C. speaker and/or headphones D. limiter E.C.T. In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _________ is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna. A. modulator B. power amplifier C. speech amplifier D. oscillator E.C.T. The use of triggered sweep of oscilloscopes will increase the accuracy of what? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Graticule activity D. Timing E.C.T. What is the impedance of a circuit with R = 10 ohms, L =.01 H and C = 800 uF connected in parallel across a 240 V, 50 Hz source? A. 8.308 ohms B. 7.404 ohms C. 2.164 ohms D. 1.832 ohms E.C.T. To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two: A. Two 20 millihenry chokes in series B. Two 5 millihenry chokes in series C. Two 30 millihenry chokes in parallel D. Two 5 millihenry chokes in parallel E.C.T. If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance? A. Half the value of one inductor B. The same as the value of either inductor C. The value of one inductor times the value of the other D. Twice the value of one inductor E.C.T. If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance? A. Twice the value of one inductor B. The same as the value of either inductor C. The value of one inductor times the value of the other D. Half the value of one inductor E.C.T. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance? A. Twice the value of one capacitor B. The same as the value of either capacitor C. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other D. Half the value of either capacitor E.C.T. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance? A. The same as the value of either capacitor B. Twice the value of one capacitor C. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other D. Half the value of one capacitor E.C.T. What determines the inductance of a coil? A. The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil B. The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire C. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil D. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically E.C.T. What determines the capacitance of a capacitor? A. The material between the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates B. The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type D. The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating E.C.T. If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance? A. The same value of either capacitor B. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other C. Half the value of either capacitor D. Twice the value of either capacitor E.C.T. Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is: A. 45 microfarads B. 12 microfarads C. 5 microfarads D. 18 microfarads E.C.T. Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor? A. two 10 microfarad capacitors B. two 20 microfarad capacitors C. twenty 2 microfarad capacitors D. ten 2 microfarad capacitors E.C.T. Solve for x: log2(x^2 + 2x +1) - log2(X + 1) = 1 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3.124 D. 0.1242 E.C.T. Equivalent of tan x cot x – cos2 x A. sin x B. tan2 x C. sin2 x D. tan x E.C.T. If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 150 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest? A. They will all be the same B. The 40 watt bulb C. The 60 watt bulb D. The 150 watt bulb E.C.T. What is the word used to describe how fast electrical energy is used? A. Current B. Power C. Voltage D. Resistance E.C.T. What is the basic unit of electrical power? A. The ampere B. The volt C. The watt D. The ohm E.C.T. Which electrical circuit will have no current? A. A short circuit B. An open circuit C. A complete circuit D. A closed circuit E.C.T. Which electrical circuit uses too much current? A. A dead circuit B. A short circuit C. A closed circuit D. An open circuit E.C.T. Power is expressed in: A. volts B. amperes C. watts D. ohms E.C.T. Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power? A. Inductance and capacitance B. Voltage and inductance C. Voltage and current D. Resistance and capacitance E.C.T. Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"? A. Volts and farads B. Farads and henrys C. Amperes and henrys D. Volts and amperes E.C.T. A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much: A. voltage B. resistance C. current D. power E.C.T. High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by: A. allowing higher voltage to be handled B. increasing the effective resistance of the resistor C. allowing heat to dissipate more readily D. making it shock proof E.C.T. The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked: A. 100 ohms B. 2 ohms C. 20 watts D. 0.5 watt E.C.T. 120 Vdc has __________ energy compared than 120 Vrms. A. same B. higher C. lower D. impossible to tell E.C.T. Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur transmitter while the supply is operating is not a recommended technique because of the risk of: A. damaging the transmitter B. electric shock C. overmodulation D. blowing the fuse E.C.T. How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home? A. Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line B. Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line C. Put a "Danger – High Voltage" sign in the station D. Put fuses in the main power line E.C.T. How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car? A. Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it B. Turn the radio off when you are not using it C. Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it D. Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio E.C.T. Why would you use a key- operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station? A. For safety, in case the main fuses fail B. To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency C. For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency D. To keep unauthorized persons from using your station E.C.T. How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal? A. Approximately 10 amperes B. More than 20 amperes C. Current flow through the human body is never fatal D. As little as 1/10 of an ampere E.C.T. Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current? A. The heart B. The brain C. The liver D. The lungs E.C.T. What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans? A. 100 volts B. 1000 volts C. 2000 volts D. 30 volts E.C.T. What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage? A. Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help B. Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage C. Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if needed D. Run from the area so you won't be burned too E.C.T. What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source? A. Turn off the high voltage switch before removing the person from contact with the source B. Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area C. Call an electrician D. Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg E.C.T. Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to First: A. turn off the power and remove power plug B. short out leads of filter capacitor C. check action of capacitor bleeder resistance D. remove and check fuse from power supply E.C.T. The gain of an amplifier is 20 dB. Assuming that the input impedance matches the load impedance, determine the output voltage if the input voltage is 2 V. A. 10 V B. 5 V C. 20 V D. 2.5 V E.C.T. An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery: A. has two terminals B. can be repeatedly recharged C. can be completely discharged D. contains an electrolyte E.C.T. How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply? A. About 240 volts B. About 120 volts C. About 12 volts D. About 9 volts E.C.T. Which component has a positive and a negative side? A. A potentiometer B. A fuse C. A resistor D. A battery E.C.T. A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a: A. low leakage cell B. memory cell C. storage cell D. primary cell E.C.T. Which of the following is a source of EMF? A. germanium diode B. lead acid battery C. P channel FET D. carbon resistor E.C.T. A dry cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volt. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volt. This is due to the cell's: A. electrolyte becoming dry B. internal resistance C. current capacity D. voltage capacity E.C.T. The most common primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This cell can be recharged: A. never B. twice C. many times D. once E.C.T. All storage batteries have discharge limits, and nickel-cadmium, the type most used in hand-held portables, should not be discharged to less than: A. 0.5 volt per cell B. 1.5 volt per cell C. 0.2 volt per cell D. 1.0 volt per cell E.C.T. To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in: A. Parallel B. series C. parallel resonant D. series resonant E.C.T. To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in: A. parallel B. series-parallel C. resonance D. series E.C.T. A nickel-cadmium battery should never be: A. short-circuited B. recharged C. left disconnected D. left overnight at room temperature E.C.T. One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be: A. smaller DC current drain B. lower modulation percentage C. reduced antenna radiation D. radiated key-clicks E.C.T. A mismatched antenna or feedline may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be: A. loss of modulation in the transmitted signal B. the driver stage will not deliver power to the final C. excessive heat produced in the final transmitter stage D. the output tank circuit breaks down E.C.T. An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not: A. become over modulated B. generate key-clicks C. drift in frequency D. cause undue distortion E.C.T. The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power? A. It has been dissipated as heat loss B. It has been used to provide greater efficiency C. It has been used to provide negative feedback D. It has been used to provide positive feedback E.C.T. The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier: A. is lost in the feed line B. appears as heat dissipation C. is due to oscillating D. radiates from the antenna E.C.T. The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is: A. found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors B. found by adding each of the capacitors together C. always less than the smallest capacitor D. always greater than the largest capacitor E.C.T. Solve for the energy in a 500 ohm resistor if 100 mA of current passes through it for two minutes. A. 600 J B. 300 J C. 1200 J D. 150 J E.C.T. Two resistors are connected in series with a battery having a terminal voltage of 24 V. If R1 is 22 ohms and dissipates 5 W of power, solve for R2. A. 32.8 ohms B. 12.5 ohm C. 28.3 ohms D. 24.2 ohms E.C.T. A 24 V has a terminal potential difference is 23.5 V when connected to an external circuit that draws a current of 10 A. What is the resistance of this external circuit? A. 2.35 ohms B. 3.25 ohms C. 2.40 ohms B. 3.40 ohms E.C.T. Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened? A. To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages B. To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet C. To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet D. To turn the power supply off when it is not being used E.C.T. Determine the y-intercept of the function f(x) = tan x A. (0, 0) B. (π/2, ∞) C. (π/4, 1) D. All of these are correct. E.C.T. What can you say about the graph of y = bx, where 0 < b < 1. A. It is vertical. B. It falls from right to left. C. It falls from left to right. D. It is horizontal. E.C.T. A load connected to a 48 V source consumes 1.5 W of power. If it draws a current of 100 mA, determine the value of the wasted heat. A. 4.8 W B. 3.2 W C. 3.3 W D. 1.5 W E.C.T. What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength in meters? A. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300 C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300 D. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300 E.C.T. What is the name for the distance a radio wave travels during one complete cycle? A. Wavelength B. Wave speed C. Waveform D. Wave spread E.C.T. What term describes the number of times per second that an alternating current reverses direction? A. Frequency B. Pulse rate C. Speed D. Wavelength E.C.T. What are the two components of a radio wave? A. Electric and magnetic fields B. AC and DC C. Voltage and current D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation E.C.T. How fast does a radio wave travel through free space? A. At the speed of light B. At the speed of sound C. Its speed is inversely proportional to its wavelength D. Its speed increases as the frequency increases E.C.T. How does the wavelength of a radio wave relate to its frequency? A. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency increases B. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency increases C. There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of the signal E.C.T. What property of radio waves is often used to identify the different frequency bands? A. The approximate wavelength B. The magnetic intensity of waves C. The time it takes for waves to travel one mile D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves E.C.T. What are the frequency limits of the VHF spectrum? A. 30 to 300 MHz B. 30 to 300 kHz C. 300 to 3000 kHz D. 300 to 3000 MHz E.C.T. What are the frequency limits of the UHF spectrum? A. 300 to 3000 MHz B. 30 to 300 kHz C. 30 to 300 MHz D. 300 to 3000 kHz E.C.T. What frequency range is referred to as HF? A. 3 to 30 MHz B. 300 to 3000 MHz C. 30 to 300 MHz D. 300 to 3000 kHz E.C.T. What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave as it travels through free space? A. 300,000,000 meters per second B. 3000 kilometers per second C. 300,000 miles per hour D. 186,000 miles per hour E.C.T. What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets longer? A. It disappears B. It stays the same C. It goes down D. It goes up E.C.T. What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth? A. Speed B. Pulse rate C. Frequency D. Inductance E.C.T. Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear? A. 20 000 - 30 000 Hz B. 200 - 200 000 Hz C. 20 - 20 000 Hz D. 0 - 20 Hz E.C.T. Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies? A. Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range B. Because this range is too low for radio energy C. Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range D. Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range E.C.T. Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range? A. Radio B. Audio C. Hyper D. Super-high E.C.T. What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle? A. Wavelength B. Wave speed C. Waveform D. Wave spread E.C.T. What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases? A. It gets longer B. It stays the same C. It disappears D. It gets shorter E.C.T. What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean? A. 6000 metres per second B. 60 cycles per second C. 60 metres per second D. 6000 cycles per second E.C.T. If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is: A. 10 seconds B. 0.0001 second C. 0.01 second D. 1 second E.C.T. Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of: A. 10 Hz B. 1 Hz C. 100 Hz D. 1000 Hz E.C.T. A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4 kHz signal is referred to as: A. a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal B. the DC component of the main signal C. a dielectric signal of the main signal D. a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal E.C.T. Transducers used to measure displacement and motion. A. Variable resistance, thermoelectric B. LVDT, piezoelectric, variable resistance C. LVDT, thermoelectric, sonic D. LVDT, thermoelectric, variable resistance E.C.T. Old resistance is 0.1 ohm, what is the new resistance if you double the length? A. 0.1 ohm B. 0.2 ohm C. 0.01 ohm D. 0.05 ohm E.C.T. Electronic equipment used to compare the input and output signals. A. Logic probe B. Spectrum analyzer C. Oscilloscope D. Multitrace oscilloscope E.C.T. The measurement of the bearing is referenced to the __________________. A. East – West line B. North – South line C. +x - axis D. –x – axis E.C.T. How does a capacitor react to AC? A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases E.C.T. How does a coil react to AC? A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases E.C.T. The reactance of capacitors increases as: A. applied voltage increases B. AC frequency decreases C. applied voltage decreases D. AC frequency increases E.C.T. In inductances, AC may be opposed by both resistance of winding wire and reactance due to inductive effect. The term which includes resistance and reactance is: A. resonance B. inductance C. impedance D. capacitance E.C.T. Capacitive reactance: A. decreases as frequency increases B. applies only to series RLC circuits C. increases as frequency increases D. increases with the time constant E.C.T. Inductive reactance may be increased by: A. a decrease in the applied frequency B. a decrease in the supplied current C. an increase in the applied voltage D. an increase in the applied frequency E.C.T. A choke coil of 4.25 microhenrys is used in a circuit at a frequency of 200 MHz. Its reactance is approximately: A. 5 740 ohms B. 5 340 ohms C. 7 540 ohms D. 4 750 ohms E.C.T. The capacitive reactance of a 25 microfarad capacitor connected to a 60 hertz line is: A. 106.1 ohms B. 9 420 ohms C. 2.4 ohms D. 1 500 ohms E.C.T. A power-supply filter has a capacitor of 10 microfarad. What is the capacitive reactance of this capacitor to a frequency of 60 hertz? A. 200 ohms B. 100 ohms C. 500 ohms D. 265 ohms E.C.T. What is the approximate inductive reactance of a 1 henry choke coil used in a 60 hertz circuit? A. 376 ohms B. 3760 ohms C. 188 ohms D. 1888 ohms E.C.T. In general, the reactance of inductors increases with: A. increasing AC frequency B. decreasing AC frequency C. decreasing applied voltage D. increasing applied voltage E.C.T. How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting? A. Pointed towards the station you are contacting B. Pointed away from the station you are contacting C. Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground D. Away from your head and away from others E.C.T. What should you do for safety when operating at 1270 MHz? A. Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied B. Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point C. Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test D. Never use a horizontally polarized antenna E.C.T. What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna? A. Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction B. Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting C. Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point D. Make sure that RF field screens are in place E.C.T. What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier? A. Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected B. Make sure the antenna feed line is properly grounded C. Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on D. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna feed line E.C.T. Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting? A. To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction B. To reduce your exposure to the radiofrequency energy C. To keep static charges from building up D. To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions E.C.T. How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue? A. It causes radiation poisoning B. It paralyzes the tissue C. It produces genetic changes in the tissue D. It heats the tissue E.C.T. Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation? A. Heart B. Eyes C. Liver D. Hands E.C.T. Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue? A. It causes radiation poisoning B. It causes blood flow to stop C. It produces genetic changes in the tissue D. It heats the tissue E.C.T. If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them? A. Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects B. Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation C. Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating D. Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize feed- line length E.C.T. Name three good electrical conductors. A. Gold, silver, wood B. Gold, silver, aluminum C. Copper, aluminum, paper D. Copper, gold, mica E.C.T. Why should directional high- gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures? A. So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures B. So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm C. So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy D. So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves E.C.T. For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located? A. As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna B. Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground C. As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter D. Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder E.C.T. Name four good electrical insulators. A. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon B. Paper, glass, air, aluminum C. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain D. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain E.C.T. Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use? A. Their reactance makes them heat up B. Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up C. They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot D. Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat E.C.T. What is the best conductor among the following materials? A. carbon B. silicon C. aluminium D. copper E.C.T. The material listed, which will most readily allow an electric current to flow, is called? A. a conductor B. an insulator C. a resistor D. a dielectric E.C.T. A length of metal is connected in a circuit and is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a: A. high resistance B. high wattage C. low wattage D. low resistance E.C.T. The letter "R" is the symbol for: A. impedance B. resistance C. reluctance D. reactance E.C.T. The reciprocal of resistance is: A. conductance B. reactance C. reluctance D. permeability E.C.T. Voltage drop means: A. voltage developed across the terminals of a component B. any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage C. difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer D. the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished E.C.T. The resistance of a conductor changes with: A. voltage B. temperature C. current D. humidity E.C.T. The most common material used to make a resistor is: A. carbon B. gold C. mica D. lead E.C.T. So-called "transformerless" power supplies are used in some applications (notably tube-type radios and TV receivers). When working on such equipment, one should be very careful because: A. one side of the line cord is connected to the chassis B. DC circuits are negative relative to the chassis C. chassis connections are grounded by the centre pin of the power source's plug D. the load across the power supply is variable E.C.T. If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first? A. The power supply B. The speaker C. The microphone The SWR meter E.C.T. What device converts household current to 12 VDC? A. A low pass filter B. A power supply C. An RS-232 interface A catalytic converter E.C.T. Which of these usually needs a heavy duty power supply? A. An antenna switch B. A receiver C. A transceiver D. An SWR meter E.C.T. What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter? A. A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply B. Using an antenna which is the wrong length C. Energy from another transmitter D. Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit E.C.T. A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than: A. 17 watts B. 2.4 watts C. 6 watts D. 60 watts E.C.T. What is a good precaution to observe before climbing an antenna tower? A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist strap B. Remove all tower grounding connections C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses D. All of the these choices are correct E.C.T. The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it: A. has a high resistance to AC but not to DC B. allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode C. has a high resistance to DC but not to AC D. allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode E.C.T. To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a: A. transformer B. capacitor C. diode D. resistor E.C.T. If household voltages are consistently high or low at your location, this can be corrected by the use of: A. a full-wave bridge rectifier B. an autotransformer C. a variable voltmeter D. a proper load resistance E.C.T. What kind of hazard might exist in a power supply when it is turned off and disconnected? A. Static electricity could damage the grounding system B. Circulating currents inside the transformer might cause damage C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover D. You might receive an electric shock from the charged stored in large capacitors E.C.T. You have a very loud low- frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble? A. the power supply B. the variable-frequency oscillator C. the driver circuit D. the power amplifier circuit E.C.T. What is the most common function of a diode? A. Oscillator B. Rectifier C. Amplifier D. Attenuator E.C.T. Which of the following are thermal sensing elements? A. RTD B. Thermistor C. Thermocouple D. All of the choices are correct. E.C.T. Two emfs will be measured by slider potentiometer. The two emfs are balanced at 500 mm and 655 mm. At 1.27 V the slider is at 530 mm. Find the emfs. A. 1.2 V and 1.57 V B. 2.1 V and 1.75 V C. 1.2 V and 1.75 V D. 2.1 V and 1.57 V E.C.T. Which type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters? A. FM B. AM C. SSB D. PSK E.C.T. Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation? A. Single sideband B. Spread-spectrum C. Packet radio D. Phase shift keying E.C.T. What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions? A. FM B. SSB C. AM D. Spread Spectrum E.C.T. Which type of voice modulation is most often used for long-distance or weak signal contacts on the VHF and UHF bands? A. SSB B. FM C. AM D. PM E.C.T. What is the primary advantage of single sideband over FM for voice transmissions? A. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth B. SSB signals are easier to tune C. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference D. All of these choices are correct E.C.T. The graph of y = logb x is asymptotic to: A. y = b B. x = 0 C. y = x D. x = b E.C.T. Which of the following measurements are commonly made using a multimeter? A. SWR and RF power B. Voltage and resistance C. Signal strength and noise D. Impedance and reactance E.C.T. In circuit theory, it states that any linear circuit can be represented as an equivalent source with parallel equivalent resistance. A. Thevenin’s theorem B. Compensation theorem C. Norton’s theorem D. Reciprocity theorem E.C.T. What law declares that ECT examination is equivalent to civil service licensure examination? A. RA 8010 B. RA 8100 C. RA 1080 D. RA 1800 E.C.T. Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery? A. Shorting the terminals can cause burns, fire, or an explosion B. Touching both terminals with the hands can cause electrical shock C. RF emissions from the battery D. All of these choices are correct E.C.T. What is connected to the green wire in a three-wire electrical AC plug? A. Neutral B. Hot C. Safety ground D. The white wire E.C.T. What device increases the low-power output from a handheld transceiver? A.An RF power amplifier B.A voltage divider C.An impedance network D.All of these choices are correct E.C.T. What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit? A. To interrupt power in case of overload B. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging a circuit C. To limit current to prevent shocks D. All of these choices are correct E.C.T. Which of these precautions should be taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial cable feed line? A.Ground all of the protectors to a common plate which is in turn connected to an external ground B.Include a parallel bypass switch for each protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running high power C.Include a series switch in the ground line of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging the protector D.Keep the ground wires from each protector separate and connected to station ground E.C.T. The change in the direction of a compass needle, when a current- carrying wire is brought near, is A. electromagnetic deflection B. electrostatic force C. magnetic force D. electroscopic force Suppose a certain current in a galvanometer causes the needle to deflect 20°, and then this current is doubled. The needle deflection A. will decrease B. will stay the same C. will increase D. will reverse direction One important advantage of an electrostatic meter is that A. it measure very small currents B. it will handle large currents C. it can detect ac voltages D. it draws a large current from the source A thermocouple A. gets warm when current flows through it B. is a thin, straight, special wire C. generates dc when exposed to light D. generates ac when heated One advantage of an electromagnet meter over a permanent-magnet meter is that A. The electromagnet meter costs much less B. The electromagnet meter need not be aligned with the earth’s magnetic field C. The permanent-magnet meter has a more sluggish coil D. The electromagnet meter is more rugged An ammeter shunt is useful because A. It increases meter sensitivity B. It makes a meter more physically rugged C. It allows for measurement of a wide range of currents D. It pre

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